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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. There are ________ tuples in finite state machine.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) unlimited

2. Transition function maps.
a) Σ * Q -> Σ
b) Q * Q -> Σ
c) Σ * Σ -> Q
d) Q * Σ -> Q

3. Number of states require to accept string ends with 10.
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) can’t be represented.

4. Extended transition function is .
a) Q * Σ* -> Q
b) Q * Σ -> Q
c) Q* * Σ* -> Σ
d) Q * Σ -> Σ

5. δ*(q,ya) is equivalent to .
a) δ((q,y),a)
b) δ(δ*(q,y),a)
c) δ(q,ya)
d) independent from δ notation

6. String X is accepted by finite automata if .
a) δ*(q,x) E A
b) δ(q,x) E A
c) δ*(Q0,x) E A
d) δ(Q0,x) E A

7. Languages of a automata is
a) If it is accepted by automata
b) If it halts
c) If automata touch final state in its life time
d) All language are language of automata

8. Language of finite automata is.
a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3

9. Finite automata requires minimum _______ number of stacks.
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) None of the mentioned

10. Number of final state require to accept Φ in minimal finite automata.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned

11. Regular expression for all strings starts with ab and ends with bba is.
a) aba*b*bba
b) ab(ab)*bba
c) ab(a+b)*bba
d) All of the mentioned

12. How many DFA’s exits with two states over input alphabet {0,1} ?
a) 16
b) 26
c) 32
d) 64

13. The basic limitation of finite automata is that
a) It can’t remember arbitrary large amount of information.
b) It sometimes recognize grammar that are not regular.
c) It sometimes fails to recognize regular grammar.
d) All of the mentioned

14. Number of states require to simulate a computer with memory capable of storing ‘3’ words each of length ‘8’.
a) 3 * 28
b) 2(3*8)
c) 2(3+8)
d) None of the mentioned

15. FSM with output capability can be used to add two given integer in binary representation. This is
a) True
b) False
c) May be true
d) None of the mentioned

Set 2

1. How many strings of length less than 4 contains the language described by the regular expression (x+y)*y(a+ab)*?
a) 7
b) 10
c) 12
d) 11

2. Which of the following is true?
a) (01)*0 = 0(10)*
b) (0+1)*0(0+1)*1(0+1) = (0+1)*01(0+1)*
c) (0+1)*01(0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*
d) All of the mentioned

3. A language is regular if and only if
a) accepted by DFA
b) accepted by PDA
c) accepted by LBA
d) accepted by Turing machine

4. Regular grammar is
a) context free grammar
b) non context free grammar
c) english grammar
d) none of the mentioned

5. Let the class of language accepted by finite state machine be L1 and the class of languages represented by regular expressions be L2 then
a) L1<L2
b) L1>=L2
c) L1 U L2 = .*
d) L1=L2

6. Which of the following is not a regular expression?
a) [(a+b)*-(aa+bb)]*
b) [(0+1)-(0b+a1)*(a+b)]*
c) (01+11+10)*
d) (1+2+0)*(1+2)*

7. Regular expression are
a) Type 0 language
b) Type 1 language
c) Type 2 language
d) Type 3 language

8. Which of the following is true?
a) Every subset of a regular set is regular
b) Every finite subset of non-regular set is regular
c) The union of two non regular set is not regular
d) Infinite union of finite set is regular

9. L and ~L are recursive enumerable then L is
a) Regular
b) Context free
c) Context sensitive
d) Recursive

10. Regular expressions are closed under
a) Union
b) Intersection
c) Kleen star
d) All of the mentioned

Set 3

1. Regular sets are closed under union,concatenation and kleene closure.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends on regular set
d) Can’t say

2. Complement of a DFA can be obtained by
a) making starting state as final state.
b) no trival method.
c) making final states non-final and non-final to final.
d) make final as a starting state.

3. Complement of regular sets are _________
a) Regular
b) CFG
c) CSG
d) RE

4. If L1 and L2 are regular sets then intersection of these two will be
a) Regular
b) Non Regular
c) Recursive
d) Non Recursive

5. If L1 is regular L2 is unknown but L1-L2 is regular ,then L2 must be
a) Empty set
b) CFG
c) Decidable
d) Regular

6. Reverse of a DFA can be formed by
a) using PDA
b) making final state as non-final
c) making final as starting state and starting state as final state
d) None of the mentioned

7. Reverse of (0+1)* will be
a) Phi
b) Null
c) (0+1)*
d) (0+1)

8. A ___________ is a substitution such that h(a) contains a string for each a.
a) Closure
b) Interchange
c) Homomorphism
d) Inverse Homomorphism

9. Homomorphism of a regular set is _______
a) Universal set
b) Null set
c) Regular set
d) Non regular set

10. (a ^ 5b ^ 5)* is example of ________
a) Type 0 language
b) Type 1 language
c) Type 2 language
d) Type 3 language

11. Which of the following is type 3 language ?
a) Strings of 0’s whose length is perfect square
b) Palindromes string
c) Strings of 0’s having length prime number
d) String of odd number of 0’s

12. a ^ nb ^ n where (n+m) is even .
a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3

13. Complement of a ^ nb ^ m where n >= 4 and m <= 3 is example of
a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3

14. a ^ nb ^ m where n >= 1, m >= 1, nm >= 3 is example of
a) Type 0
b) Type 1
c) Type 2
d) Type 3

15. Complement of (a + b)* will be
a) phi
b) null
c) a
d) b

Set 4

1. A reaction has reactants 1 moles of H2O and 1 mole of NaCl, and products NaOH and HCl, what are the total moles of products?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

2. 5 moles of O2 is added to 5 moles of H2, how many moles of H2O will it produce?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

3. In a process, 5 Kgs of water is added to a container and after some interval 3 Kgs of water is taken out. If finally there is 7 Kgs of water then how much water was there in the very beginning?
a) 5 Kg
b) 10 Kg
c) 15 Kg
d) 20 Kg

4. A bucket of water is filled with oil. What kind of system is this?
a) Open
b) Closed
c) Transient
d) None of the mentioned

5. The human body is _________
a) Closed System
b) Open System
c) Isolated System
d) None of the mentioned

6. A fluid enters system at the rate of 10 liters/s and leaves in two pathways one with 7 liters/s and other with 3 liters/s, then what type of flow it is?
a) Steady-state
b) Unsteady-state
c) Cannot say
d) None of the mentioned

7. A fluid enters system at the rate of 10 liters/s and leaves in two pathways one with 7 liters/s, then what type of flow it is?
a) Steady-state
b) Unsteady-state
c) Cannot say
d) None of the mentioned

8. A semi-batch process differ from an open process in ________
a) Input
b) Output
c) Generation
d) Consumption

9. Wine pouring in a glass is an example of
a) Batch
b) Semi-batch
c) Neither of them
d) Both of them

10. Water boiling in a container is an example of Batch process.
The above given statement is
a) True
b) False
c) Neither true nor false
d) None of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Of the following, _________ has the maximum frequency.
a) UV Rays
b) Gamma Rays
c) Microwaves
d) Radio Waves

2. In the Visible spectrum the ______ colour has the maximum wavelength.
a) Violet
b) Blue
c) Red
d) Yellow

3. Wavelength and frequency are related as : (c = speed of light)
a) c = wavelength / frequency
b) frequency = wavelength / c
c) wavelength = c * frequency
d) c = wavelength * frequency

4. Electromagnetic waves can be visualised as a
a) sine wave
b) cosine wave
c) tangential wave
d) None of the mentioned

5. How is radiance measured?
a) lumens
b) watts
c) armstrong
d) hertz

6. Which of the following is used for chest and dental scans?
a) Hard X-Rays
b) Soft X-Rays
c) Radio waves
d) Infrared Rays

7. Which of the following is impractical to measure?
a) Frequency
b) Radiance
c) Luminance
d) Brightness

8. Massless particle containing a certain amount of energy is called
a) Photon
b) Shell
c) Electron
d) None of the mentioned

9. What do you mean by achromatic light?
a) Chromatic light
b) Monochromatic light
c) Infrared light
d) Invisible light

10. Which of the following embodies the achromatic notion of intensity?
a) Luminance
b) Brightness
c) Frequency
d) Radiance

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of the following two windings produces/induces the working flux and working EMF respectively?
a) field winding and armature winding
b) armature winding and field winding
c) both are produced in field winding
d) both are produced in armature winding

2. Armature winding carries which of the following current?
a) magnetizing current only
b) load current only
c) both magnetizing current and load current
d) none of the mentioned

3. Field winding carries which of the following current?
a) exciting current only
b) load current only
c) both exciting current and load current
d) none of the mentioned

4. Which of the following statements are correct regarding exciting current?
(i) exciting current varies with the load
(ii) exciting current doesn’t vary with load
(iii) exciting current produces only a working magnetic flux
(iv) exciting current is not responsible for the production of working magnetic flux
a) (i),(iv)
b) (ii),(iii)
c) (i),(iii)
d) (ii),(iv)

5. Current in the field winding is ___________
a) AC always
b) DC always
c) Both AC and DC
d) Either AC or DC

6. The rating of the armature winding is ___________
a) 1/2 to 2% of the rated power of the machine
b) less than the power rating of the machine
c) greater than the power rating of the machine
d) equal to the power rating of the machine

7. The power rating of the field winding is ___________
a) equal to the power rating of the machine
b) 1/2 to 2% of the rated power of the machine
c) greater than the power rating of the machine
d) less than the power rating of the machine

8. What is the reason behind armature structure for both DC and AC machines being laminated?
a) reduce i2R losses
b) reduce the leakage flux
c) reduce the eddy current losses
d) for better operating power factor

9. Armature winding is one in which working ___________
a) flux is produced by field current
b) flux is produced by the working emf
c) emf is produced by the working flux
d) emf is produced by the leakage flux

10. Why is the air gap between stator and rotor should be kept as small as mechanically possible in induction motor?
a) to reduce the leakage flux between stator and rotor
b) as it leads to better operating power factor of the induction motor
c) reduce the eddy current losses
d) both, to reduce leakage flux between stator and rotor, and also for better operating power factor

Set 2

1. Which type of slots are used in the construction of large size and small size induction motors respectively?
a) open slots and semiclosed slots
b) semiclosed slots and open slots
c) open slots and open slots
d) semiclosed slots and semiclosed slots

2. In which of the following applications, wound rotor type of induction motor is used?
a) where the driven load requires speed control
b) where high starting torque is required
c) when external resistance is to be inserted
d) any of the mentioned

3. For an induction motor,
(i) squirrel cage type is simpler and more economical in construction
(ii) wound rotor type requires less maintenance
(iii) squirrel cage type is more rugged and requires less maintenance
(iv) no external resistance can be inserted in the rotor circuit of squirrel cage induction motor
(v) no external resistance can be inserted in the rotor circuit of a wound rotor induction motor
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (ii),(v),(iii)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(iii),(iv)
d) (i),(ii),(iv)

4. What are the advantages of providing the field winding on rotor and armature winding on the stator?
a) more economical
b) more efficient
c) efficient cooling
d) all of the mentioned

5. The stator frame and end covers in synchronous and induction machines are designed to ___________
a) carry the magnetic flux
b) to serve as a mechanical support
c) to provide cooling or to carry induced EMF
d) any of the mentioned

6. What is the advantage of connecting two coils in parallel?
a) reduce the amount of copper required
b) increase the current per parallel path to double the value
c) increase the voltage capacity
d) all of the mentioned

7. In a synchronous machine, salient pole construction has been found to suit best for ___________
a) low speed prime movers
b) high speed prime movers
c) medium speed prime movers
d) any of the mentioned

8. What is the equation for frequency of generated EMF?
a) f = PN/120 Hz
b) f = 120/PN Hz
c) f = P/120 Hz
d) f = N/120 Hz

9. How many poles should the alternators driven by the oil engines and hydraulic turbine prime movers must have, for better operation?
a) fewer number of poles
b) larger number of poles
c) medium number of poles
d) any of the mentioned

10. Large synchronous machines are constructed with armature winding on the stator because stationary armature winding
(i) can be insulated satisfactorily for higher voltages
(ii) can be cooled more efficiently
(iii) would lead to reduced slip ring losses
(iv) would have no slot harmonics
(v) would have reduced armature reactance
Which of the above statements are correct ?
a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
b) (i),(ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v)
d) (i),(ii),(iv),(v)

Set 3

1. How many poles should the alternators, driven by the steam and gas turbines prime movers must have, for better operation?
a) fewer number of poles
b) large number of poles
c) medium number of poles
d) any of the mentioned

2. In a synchronous machine, cylindrical pole construction has been found to suit best for ___________
a) low speed prime movers
b) high speed prime movers
c) medium speed prime movers
d) any of the mentioned

3. Commercially, which of the following generators is called turbo-alternators or turbo-generators?
a) salient pole rotor synchronous generators
b) cylindrical pole rotor induction generators
c) salient pole rotor induction generators
d) cylindrical rotor synchronous generators

4. For relatively large sizes of synchronous machines, which of the following are used for providing closed circuit cooling?
a) air
b) water
c) hydrogen/helium
d) any of the mentioned

5. In a synchronous generator, the frequency of the generated EMF depends on
a) rotational speed
b) poles
c) both rotational speed and poles
d) none of the mentioned

6. A synchronous machine can be connected to an energy system only when ___________
a) frequency/rotational speed matches
b) voltage matches
c) current matches
d) power matches

7. In larger DC machines, the reason behind using fabricated steel instead of cast iron in the manufacture of yoke is ?
a) economical considerations
b) permeability considerations
c) mechanical considerations
d) insulation considerations

8. In a DC machine, the pole core is usually of smaller cross section than the pole shoe because ___________
(i) smaller cross section requires less copper
(ii) larger pole shoe increases the air gap reluctance
(iii) larger pole shoe increases the flux per pole entering the armature
(iv) larger pole shoe reduces the mechanical strength
(v) larger pole shoe supports the field winding
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i),(ii),(v)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(iii),(v)
d) (ii),(iv),(v)

9. In a DC generator, the commutator serves as a _________
a) mechanical rectifier for alternating EMF to direct EMF
b) mechanical inverter to invert the direct applied voltage to alternating voltage
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

10. In a DC motor, the commutator serves as a ___________
a) mechanical rectifier for alternating EMF to direct EMF
b) mechanical inverter to invert the direct applied voltage to alternating voltage
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Which of the following are examples of doubly-excited magnetic systems?
a) Synchronous Machines
b) Loudspeakers and Tachometers
c) D.C Shunt Machines
d) Any of the mentioned

2. Most of the electromagnetic energy conversion devices belong to __________
a) singly excited magnetic systems
b) doubly excited magnetic systems
c) multiply excited magnetic systems
d) both doubly excited magnetic systems and multiply excited magnetic systems

3. In a doubly excited magnetic system with salient pole type stator and rotor, if the rotor is not allowed to move, then the equation for magnetic field stored energy in establishing the currents from zero to is and ir is __________
a) Wfld=1/2 is2Ls+1/2 ir2Lr
b) Wfld=1/2 is2Ls+Mrs is ir
c) Wfld=1/2 is2Ls+1/2 ir2Lr+Mrs is ir
d) Wfld=1/2 ir2Lr+Mrs is ir

4. In a doubly excited magnetic system of salient pole stator and rotor, the magnetic torque (Te) depends on
(i) the instantaneous values of currents is and ir
(ii) the angular rate of change of inductances
(iii) the differential changes of current dis and dir
(iv) only the instantaneous values of self inductance

Which of the above statements are true?
a) (i),(iii)
b) (i),(ii)
c) (iii),(iv)
d) (i),(iv)

5.In a doubly excited magnetic systems, the magnetic torques and forces act in such a direction as to tend to
a) decrease the field energy at constant currents
b) decrease the field co-energy at constant currents
c) increase the field energy at constant currents
d) none of the mentioned

6. In a doubly excited magnetic system of salient pole type stator and rotor, the reluctance torque is present only when _____________
a) both stator and rotor currents are acting
b) stator current is acting alone
c) rotor current is acting alone
d) any of the stator or rotor currents acting alone

7. Which component of torque in the following equation is called the electromagnetic torque of electromagnetic energy conversion device?
Te=1/2is2dLs/dθr+1/2ir2dLr/dθr+isirdMsr/dθr
a) 1/2is2dLs/dθr
b) 1/2ir2dLr/dθr
c) isirdMsr/dθr
d) any of the mentioned

8. Which components of torque in the following equation are called the reluctance torque terms?
Te=1/2is2dLs/dθr+1/2ir2dLr/dθr+isirdMsr/dθr
a) 1/2is2dLs/dθr and isirdMsr/dθr
b) 1/2is2dLs/dθr and 1/2ir2dLr/dθr
c) 1/2ir2dLr/dθr and isirdMsr/dθr
d) 1/2is2dLs/dθr, 1/2ir2dLr/dθr and isirdMsr/dθr

9. Which of the following statements are true about electromagnetic torques and reluctance torques:
(i) electromagnetic torque can exist only if both windings carry current
(ii) reluctance torque depend on the direction of current in stator or rotor windings
(iii) reluctance torque doesn’t depend on the direction of current in stator or rotor windings
(iv) electromagnetic torque depend on the direction of currents is and ir
(v) electromagnetic torque doesn’t depend on the direction of currents is and ir

a)(i),(ii),(iii)
b)(ii),(iii),(v)
c)(i),(iii),(iv)
d)(ii),(iii),(iv)

10. Singly and doubly excited magnetic systems applications are respectively:
a) loud speakers and tachometers
b) synchronous motors and moving iron instruments
c) DC shunt machines and solenoids
d) reluctance motors and synchronous motors

11. Electromagnetic torque in rotating electrical machinery is present when ________
a) stator winding alone carries current
b) rotor winding alone carries current
c) air gap is uniform
d) both stator and rotor windings carry current

12. All practical electromechanical energy conversion devices make use of the magnetic field rather than the electric field as the coupling medium.This is because
a) electric field systems present insulation difficulties
b) electric field systems have more dielectric loss than the magnetic loss, for the same power rating of the machine
c) in electric field systems, for normal electric field strength, the stored energy density is high
d) in magnetic field systems, for normal magnetic flux density, the stored energy density is high

Set 5

1. Consider a single phase synchronous machine of cylindrical rotor type. A single phase supply is given to the stator winding and a voltmeter is connected across rotor winding. For what value of θr, the voltmeter reads maximum?
a) 90°
b) 0°
c) 45°
d) 30°

2. Consider a single phase synchronous machine of cylindrical rotor type. A single phase supply is given to the stator winding, and a voltmeter is connected across rotor winding. For what value of θr the voltmeter reads a zero?
a) 0°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 90°

3. Which of the following equation best represents the mutual inductance between stator and rotor in a single phase cylindrical rotor synchronous machine?
a) Msr=0
b) Msr=Mmax
c) Msr=Mmaxcosθr
d) Msr=Mmaxsinθr
where θr= space angle between stator and rotor field axis

4. In a single phase cylindrical rotor synchronous machine, the torque Te tends to ____________ the space angle θr.
a) reduce
b) increase
c) maintain constant
d) all of the mentioned

5. The following torque expression: Te=-isirMmaxsinθr is applicable in a single phase cylindrical rotor synchronous machine when the rotor is __________
a) revolving
b) stationary
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

6. In a two phase cylindrical rotor synchronous machine, the self inductances Lα, Lβ for phases α,β respectively are __________
a) constant and equal
b) constant and unequal
c) varying and equal
d) varying and unequal

7. In a two phase cylindrical rotor synchronous machine, the mutual inductance Mαβ between α phase and β phase winding is __________
a) Mmax
b) 0
c) Mmin
d) any of the mentioned

8. In a two phase cylindrical rotor synchronous machine, torque Te is _____________
a) constant at some instant of time
b) changing at every instant of time
c) constant at every instant of time
d) changing at some instant of time

9. Which of the following equation represents the reluctance torque of a salient pole synchronous machine?
a) Te(av)= 1/4 Im2(Ld-Lq)sin2δ
b) Te(av)= 2 Im2(Ld-Lq)sinδcosδ
c) Te(av)= 1/8 Im2(Ld-Lq)
d) Te(av)= 1/8 Im2(Ld-Lq)sin2δ

10. Which component of torque equation, Te(av)= 1/8 Im2(Ld-Lq)sin2δ+1/2 IfImMmaxsinδ represents the electromagnetic/interaction torque in single phase salient pole synchronous machine?
a) 1/2 IfImMmaxsinδ
b) 1/8 Im2(Ld-Lq)sin2δ
c) 1/8 Im2(Ld-Lq)sin2δ+ 1/2 IfImMmaxsinδ
d) none of the mentioned

11. An electromechanical energy conversion device has cylindrical stator but salient pole rotor. If δ is the angle between stator field and rotor field, the average torque developed is proportional to (A and B are constants) __________
a) Asinδ
b) Asin2δ
c) Asinδ+Bsin2δ
d) δ

12. An electromechanical energy conversion device has cylindrical stator but salient pole rotor. Rotor is not excited. If δ is the angle between stator field and rotor long axis, then average torque developed is proportional to (A and B are constants)
a) Asinδ
b) Asin2δ
c) Asinδ + Bsin2δ
d) zero

13. The self and mutual inductances of a doubly excited magnetic system are Ls=0.6+0.20cos2θr H and Lr=0.75+0.30cos2θr H and Msr=0.8cosθr H. For a stationary rotor at an angular position of θr=60°,what is the magnitude of torque when the currents is=20A DC and ir=10A DC?
a) -233.88N-m
b) +233.88N-m
c) -467.76N-m
d) +467.76N-m

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The angular slot pitch, γ is given by
a) γ= πP/Total number of slots Elect radians
b) γ= 180P/Total number of slots Elect degrees
c) γ= 180/Slots per pole Elect degrees
d) Any of the mentioned

2. Consider the following statements regarding the design of distributed armature winding in a 3-phase alternator:
(i) it reduces the phase-belt harmonics
(ii) it increases the utilization of the armature iron and copper
(iii) it increases rigidity and mechanical strength of the winding
(iv) it reduces copper in the overhang of the winding
Which of these statements are correct?
a) (i),(iii),(iv)
b) (ii),(iii),(iv)
c) (i),(ii),(iii)
d) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)

3. What is the coil span for a 2 pole 18 slot machine?
a) 9
b) 4.5
c) 18
d) 6

4. In a machine with coil span 9, if a coil has its one coil-side in slot 1, then its other coil-side must be in ____________
a) slot 9
b) slot 8
c) slot 10
d) slot 2

5. The belt factor is defined as the ratio of
a) arithmetic sum of coil EMF to the phasor sum of coil EMFs
b) phasor sum of EMF per coil to the arithmetic sum of EMF per coil
c) phasor sum of coil EMFs to the arithmetic sum of coil EMFs
d) phasor sum of coil EMFs to per phase voltage

6. The armature winding of a 2-pole, 3-phase alternator for each phase is distributed in a number of slots per phase. The RMS value of the voltage per phase is less than the RMS value of the voltage per coil multiplied by the number of coils in series because the
a) RMS value of the voltage in different coils of the phase is different
b) equal RMS voltages in different coils of the phase has mutual phase difference
c) maximum value of the induced voltage in different coils of the phase are different
d) different coils of the phase pass through different saturated regions of the magnetic circuit

7. A 3-phase machine has integral slot winding with fundamental distribution factor kd1, the distribution factor for nth harmonic kdn is ____________
a) less than kd1
b) more than kd1
c) equal to kd1
d) depends upon the number of slots and poles

8. If a stator has 48 slots, 6 poles and 3 phase with narrow spread winding, then the third harmonic belt factor is ____________
a) 0.9556
b) 0.6407
c) 0.1944
d) None of the mentioned

9. A fraction pitch winding is used to reduce
(i) amount of copper in the winding
(ii) size of the machine
(iii) harmonics in the generated EMF
(iv) cost of the machine
From these, the correct answer is
a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv)
b) (i),(ii),(iii)
c) (ii),(iii),(iv)
d) (i),(iii),(iv)

10. The pitch factor, in rotating electrical machinery, is defined as the ratio of resultant EMF of a
a) full-pitched coil to that of a chorded coil
b) full-pitched coil to the phase EMF
c) chorded coil to the phase EMF
d) chorded coil to that of a full-pitched coil

Set 2

1. The winding’s for a 3-phase alternator are:
(i) 36 slots, 4 poles, span 1 to 8
(ii) 72 slots, 6 poles, span 1 to 10
(iii) 96 slots, 4 poles, span 1 to 21
The winding’s having pitch factor of more than 0.97 are
a) (i) and (ii) only
b) (ii) and (iii) only
c) (i) and (iii) only
d) (i),(ii) and (iii)

2. In 48 slot, 4-pole,3 phase alternator, the coil-span is 10. Its distribution and pitch factors are respectively ____________
a) 0.9717,0.966
b) 0.9822, 0.9814
c) 0.9577, 0.9814
d) 0.9577, 0.966

3. A 3-phase, 4-pole alternator has 48 stator slots carrying a 3-phase distributed winding. Each coil of the winding is short chorded by one slot pitch. The winding factor is given by ______________
a) (cos7.5)/16
b) (cot7.5)/8
c) 1/(8sin7.5)
d) (cot7.5)/16

4. The chording angle for eliminating 5th harmonic should be ____________
a) 30°
b) 34°
c) 36°
d) 35°

5. Consider the following statements:
(i) breadth factor for third harmonic kd3 is more than that for fundamental kd1
(ii) kd3 < kd1
(iii) kd3 may be less or more than kd1 depending upon the number of slots and poles
(iv) coil-span factor for third harmonic kp3>kp1 (coil span factor for fundamental)
(v) kp3 < kp1
(vi) kp3 may be less or more than kp1 depending upon the number of slots and poles

From these, the correct answer is
a) (ii),(v)
b) (i),(iv)
c) (iii),(vi)
d) (i),(iii),(iv),(vi)

6. A 6-pole alternator with 36 slots carries a 2-phase distributed winding. Each coil is short pitched by one slot. The winding factor is given by
a) cot15°/3√2
b) cot15°/4
c) cot15°/2√2
d) cot15°/4

7. For eliminating nth harmonic from the EMF generated in the phase of a 3-phase alternator, the chording angle should be
a) n∗full pitch
b) (1/n)∗full pitch
c) (2/n)∗full pitch
d) (3/n)∗full pitch

8. Which among the given harmonics are called belt harmonics?
a) 5,7,11,13
b) 3,6,9,12
c) 5,6,11,12
d) 7,11,13,15

9. Machine A has 60° phase spread and machine B has 120° phase spread. Both the machines have uniformly distributed winding. The ratio of distribution factors of machine A to machine B is ____________
a) 0.866
b) 1.1
c) 1.55
d) 1.155

Set 3

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the generation of EMF in rotating electrical machines in the armature winding? EMF is generated ____________
a) by rotating armature windings through a magnetic field
b) by rotating magnetic field with respect to the armature windings
c) by designing the magnetic circuit to have variable reluctance with rotor rotation
d) any of the mentioned

2. The EMF equation e = NωrΦsinωrt is applicable to ____________
a) AC systems with time variant field flux
b) DC systems with time variant field flux
c) Both AC and DC systems with time invariant field flux
d) Both AC and DC systems with time variant field flux

3. In the equation for RMS value of the generated EMF in a full pitched coil of an AC machine,
E = Emax/√2 = √2πfrNΦ, fr depends on
a) rotating speed of the armature coil
b) rotating speed of the flux density wave
c) relative velocity between the flux density wave and armature coil
d) any of the mentioned

4. In AC rotating machines, the generated or speed EMF
a) leads Φ by 90°
b) lags Φ by 90°
c) is in phase with working flux
d) lags Φ by 180°

5. In a short pitched coil, the coil pitch factor kp, is given by ____________
a) kp = cosε
b) kp = cosε/2
c) kp = √2πfrNΦcosε
d) kp = cosε/2cosωrt

6. Which of the following equations represents the RMS value of the generated EMF in a short-pitched N-turn armature coil of an AC machine ____________
a) E = √2πkpfr
b) E = 2πkpfr
c) E = NΦωrkpsinωrt
d) None of the mentioned

7. The effect of short pitched coil on the generated EMF is _____________
a) increasing
b) decreasing
c) either increasing or decreasing
d) none of the mentioned

8. A winding is distributed in the slots along the air gap periphery
(i) to add mechanical strength to the winding
(ii) to reduce the amount of conductor material required
(iii) to reduce the harmonics in generated EMF
(iv) to reduce the size of the machine
(v) for full utilization of iron and conductor materials
From these, the correct answer is
a) (i),(iii),(iv),(v)
b) (i),(ii),(iv),(v)
c) (i),(ii),(iii),(v)
d) (i),(iii),(v)

9. In an AC machine, the effect of distributing the turns in different slots, results in a further reduction of generated EMF by the factor kd. This factor is called ____________
a) distribution/speed factor
b) coil pitch factor
c) winding factor
d) any of the mentioned

10. A polyphase induction motor of the slip ring or wound rotor type can be used ____________
a) for high start-up torque applications
b) as a frequency converter
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

11. The equation for slip speed is ____________
a) (ω-ωr)/ω
b) ω-ωr
c) (ωr-ω)/ω
d) ωr

12. If the rotor of an induction motor is made to revolve in a direction opposite to the rotating flux wave, then RMS value of EMF induced in one phase of rotor E is proportional to ____________
a) 2-s
b) s
c) 1-s
d) 2+s

13. In an alternator, frequency per revolution is equal to
a) number of poles
b) twice the number of poles
c) speed in rps
d) number of pole-pairs

14. The EMF generated in an alternator depends upon
(i) speed
(ii) maximum flux per pole
(iii) series turns per phase
(iv) phase spread
(v) coil-span
(vi) type of alternator
Which of the above statements are correct?
a)(i),(ii),(iii),(iv),(v),(vi)
b) (i),(iii),(iv),(v)
c) (i),(ii),(iii),(v),(vi)
d) (i),(iii),(iv),(v),(vi)

15. If the dimensions of all the parts of a synchronous generator and the number of field and armature turns are doubled, then the generated voltage will change by a factor of
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

16. A 6 pole machine is rotating at a speed of 1200rpm. This speed in mechanical rad/sec and electrical radians per second is respectively
a) 40π, 40π/3
b) 120π, 40π
c) 20π, 60π
d) 40π, 120π

17.The short pitch winding for an alternator gives
(i) improved wave form of the generated EMF per phase
(ii) reduced value of self inductance of the winding
(iii) increased rating of machine
(iv) reduced tooth ripples
(v) increased total generated EMF
(vi) saving in winding copper
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i),(ii),(iv),(v),(vi)
b) (i),(ii),(vi)
c) (i),(ii),(iv),(vi)
d) (i),(iii),(vi),(iv)

18. The DC machines are designed with flat topped flux density waves because
a) average value of brush voltage is more for a flat topped B-wave
b) average value of brush voltage is less for a flat topped B-wave
c) losses for flat topped B-wave are less
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. A consideration of the power losses in electrical machines is essential for which of the following reasons?
a) Operating cost
b) Temperature rise
c) Voltage drops
d) Any of the mentioned

2. To determine the efficiency of the machine, direct load test is not advantageous because of which of the following reasons?
a) Cost of providing large inputs
b) Difficulty of dissipating the large outputs
c) Both cost of providing large inputs and difficulty in dissipating the large outputs
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which of the following statements are correct regarding brush contact losses?
a) In DC machine: proportional to armature current
b) In synchronous machine: neglected
c) In induction machine: neglected
d) Any of the mentioned

4. In rotating electrical machines, when the armature rotates, there are continuous magnetic reversals and power required for their reversals is called _____________
a) Eddy current loss
b) Hysteresis loss
c) Resistance or ohmic losses
d) Mechanical loss

5. The usual lamination thickness selected to minimize the eddy current loss in rotor is _____________
a) 0.1 mm to 0.2 mm
b) 0.3 mm to 0.4 mm
c) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
d) 0.9 mm to 0.10 mm

6. In an induction motor, which of the following is correct:
a) Stator core loss < rotor core loss
b) Stator core loss = rotor core loss
c) Stator core loss > rotor core loss
d) Any of the mentioned

7. The pole shoes in DC and synchronous machines are laminated to reduce _____________
a) Resistance losses
b) Pulsation or pole-face losses
c) Mechanical losses
d) None of the mentioned

8. What percentage of the rated output for DC machine and synchronous machine is taken as stray load losses respectively?
a) 1% and 0.5%
b) 0.5% and 1%
c) 3% and 0.1%
d) 0.1% and 5%

9. Which of the given losses are directly proportional to square of speed?
a) Windage loss
b) Eddy current loss
c) Both Windage and eddy current loss
d) Hysteresis loss and brush loss

10. Consider the following statements regarding efficiency of electrical machines:
(i) efficiency should be calculated by measuring output and input
(ii) efficiency is maximum when constant losses = variable losses
(iii) electrical machines are designed to have maximum efficiency at full load
(iv) electrical machines are designed to have maximum efficiency at near about full load
(v) efficiency should be calculated by measuring their losses
(vi) efficiency is maximum when constant losses = x times of (variable losses)
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i),(iii),(vi)
b) (ii),(iv),(v)
c) (i),(ii),(iii)
d) (iv),(v),(vi)

11. The electromechanical energy conversion devices used in power systems are never operated to deliver maximum power output, because at maximum power output, _____________
a) Efficiency is less than 50%
b) Temperature of the power devices is much more than the specified allowable temperature rise
c) Half of the power input appears as losses
d) Any of the mentioned

12. For the same rating machines, which of the following statement is correct regarding the efficiency (η)?
a) η of low speed machine > η of high speed machine
b) η of low speed machine < η of high speed machine
c) η of low speed machine = η of high speed machine
d) Any of the mentioned

13. No load rotational losses in electrical machine consists of _____________
a) Friction and windage losses
b) Stator core, friction and windage losses
c) Rotor core, friction and windage losses
d) No load core, friction and windage losses

Set 5

1. The winding MMF in rotating machines depends on
a) winding arrangement
b) winding current
c) air gap length,slot openings etc
d) both winding arrangement and winding current

2. A knowledge of the air gap flux distribution in a machine helps in determining the
a) generated EMF waveform and its magnitude
b) electrical torque
c) winding MMF
d) both generated EMF waveform and electrical torque

3. If the current in the coil is DC, then MMF doesn’t vary with ____________
a) space
b) time
c) both space and time
d) None of the mentioned

4. If the current in a coil is AC, the amplitude of MMF
a) varies with time but not with space
b) varies with space but not with time
c) varies with both space and time
d) doesn’t vary with both space and time

5. Peak value of fundamental component of MMF produced by one N-turn coil carrying a current ‘i’ is ____________
a) 4/Π(Ni)
b) 2/Π(Ni)
c) 1/Π(Ni)
d) 1/2Π(Ni)

6. The armature MMF wave in a DC machine is ____________
a) sinusoidal and depends on the speed
b) square and independent of speed
c) triangular and depends on speed
d) triangular and independent of speed

7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the current sheet?
a) it is a thin strip of conducting material carrying the current in the dot
b) it is wrapped around stator or rotor
c) it develops MMF identical to that produced by the winding it replaces
d) Any of the mentioned

8. A current sheet with sinusoidal current produces?
a) sinusoidal MMF wave lagging it by 90°
b) sinusoidal MMF wave leading it by 90°
c) trapezoidal MMF wave leading it by 90°
d) trapezoidal MMF wave lagging it by 90°

9. A uniformly distributed winding on the stator has three full pitched coils, each coil having N turns and each turn carrying a current i. The MMF produced by the winding is
a) sinusoidal in waveform with an amplitude 3Ni
b) sinusoidal in waveform with an amplitude 3Ni/2
c) trapezoidal in waveform with an amplitude of 3Ni
d) trapezoidal in waveform with an amplitude of 3Ni/2

10. MMF produced by one N-turn coil carrying a current i is ____________
a) rectangular of amplitude Ni/2
b) trapezoidal of amplitude Ni/2
c) rectangular of amplitude Ni
d) trapezoidal of amplitude Ni

11. A winding of 20 full pitched series turns, distributed over a band of 60° under each pole, carries a current of 3A. The winding produces a uniform current sheet of density (in AT’s per electrical radiangs) of
a) 180/Π
b) 120/Π
c) 90/Π
d) 60/Π

12. A sinusoidal current sheet in a rotating electrical machine has peak value along q-axis. The peak value of sinusoidal MMF would be
a) in phase with current peak
b) 90° lagging the current peak
c) 90° leading the current peak
d) may lag or lead depending upon the type of machine

13. In a DC machine, z,p,Ia and a are respectively the number of conductors, number of poles, armature current and number of parallel paths. The peak value of fundamental component of armature MMF wave is ____________
a) 8/Π[(z/2p)(Ia/a)].
b) 8/Π2[(z/p)(Ia/a)].
c) 4/Π[(z/2p)(Ia/a)].
d) 8/Π2[(z/p)(Ia/a)].

14. The armature MMF wave in a DC machine is triangluar and
(i) rotates with respect to stator
(ii) is stationary with respect to stator
(iii) rotates with respect to armature
(iv) is stationary with respect to armature
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (ii) only
b) (iii) only
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iii)

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. An electro-mechanical energy conversion device is one which converts _______
a) Electrical energy to mechanical energy only
b) Mechanical energy to electrical energy only
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

2. What is the coupling field used between the electrical and mechanical systems in an energy conversion devices?
a) Magnetic field
b) Electric field
c) Magnetic field or Electric field
d) None of the mentioned

3. The energy storing capacity of magnetic field is about ________ times greater than that of electric field?
a) 50,000
b) 25,000
c) 10,000
d) 40,000

4. The formula for energy stored in the mechanical system of linear motion type is ______
a) 1/2 Jwr2
b) 1/2 mv2
c) 1/2 mv
d) Jwr2

5. In an electro-mechanical energy conversion device, the coupling field on the
(i) electrical side is associated with emf and current
(ii) electrical side is associated with torque and speed
(iii) mechanical side is associated with emf and current
(iv) mechanical side is associated with torque and speed

From the above, the correct statements are
a) (i) & (ii)
b) (ii) & (iii)
c) (iii) & (iv)
d) (i) and (iv)

6. A coupling magnetic field must react with
(i) electrical system in order to extract energy from mechanical system
(ii) mechanical system in order to extract energy from mechanical system
(iii) electrical system in order to extract energy from electrical system
(iv) mechanical system in order to extract energy from electrical system
(v) electrical or mechanical system for electro-mechanical energy conversion

From the above, the correct statements are
a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
b) (ii), (iii) & (v)
c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
d) (ii), (iii) & (v)

7. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electromechanical energy conversion system, acts in such a direction that tends to ___________
a) increase the stored energy at constant mmf
b) decrease the stored energy at constant mmf
c) decrease the co-energy at constant mmf
d) increase the stored energy at constant flux

8. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electromechanical energy conversion systems, acts in a direction that tends to ___________
(i) increase the co-energy at constant flux
(ii) increase the co-energy at constant mmf
(iii) decrease the stored energy at constant mmf
(iv) decrease the stored energy at constant flux

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (ii), (iv)
b) (i), (iii)
c) (ii), (iii)
d) (i), (iv)

9. A physical system of electromechanical energy conversion, consists of a stationary part creating a magnetic field with electric energy input, and a moving part giving mechanical energy output. If the movable part is kept fixed, the entire electrical energy input will be _______
a) stored in the magnetic field
b) stored in the electric field
c) divided equally between the magnetic and electric fields
d) zero

Set 2

1. The electromagnetic torque in non salient pole machines depends on
a) number of poles
b) machine dimensions at the air gap
c) peak value of stator and rotor MMF
d) Any of the mentioned

2. The torque equation for non salient pole machine is Te =-(P/2)(μoΠrl/g)(FsFr)sinλNm. What does the negative sign in the torque expression indicates?
a) stator and rotor MMF tend to reduce angle λ
b) stator and rotor MMF tend to increase angle λ
c) stator tend to reduce the air gap g
d) rotor tend to reduce the air gap g

3. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the torque equation in non salient pole machines, Te =-(P/2)(μoΠrl/g)(FsFr)sinλNm?
a) stator experiences less torque than rotor and in opposite directions
b) rotor experiences less torque than stator and in same directions
c) stator and rotor experiences equal and opposite torques
d) stator and rotor experiences equal torque and in same directions

4. In practice, electromagnetic torque acting on the stator
a) rotate in opposite direction to rotor
b) is transmitted to ground
c) makes it rotate in same direction as of rotor
d) None of the mentioned

5. Torque angle λ is the angle between ____________
a) stator MMF Fs and resultant MMF FR
b) stator MMF Fs and rotor MMF Fr
c) rotor MMF Fr and resultant MMF FR
d) Any of the mentioned

6. Load angle δ is the angle between ____________
a) stator MMF Fs and resultant MMF FR
b) stator MMF Fs and rotor MMF Fr
c) rotor MMF Fr and resultant MMF FR
d) stator MMF Fs and resultant MMF FR (or) rotor MMF Fr and resultant MMF FR

7. In the design of electromagnetic devices, the maximum value of MMF is limited from the considerations of ____________
a) temperature rise
b) limitation on flux density in teeth
c) torque production rise
d) power rating

8. Consider the principle that the torque in a rotating machine is proportional to peak of stator MMF(Fs), rotor MMF(Fr) and the angle between them(δ). Following statements relate to Fs,Fr and δ in different machine:
(i) δ is fixed in DC machine
(ii) Fs is fixed in DC shunt machine
(iii) δ is variable in induction machine
(iv) Fr is fixed in synchronous machne
(v) Fr is variable in DC machine
(vi) Fr is fixed in induction motor
(vii) resultant of Fs and Fr is fixed in synchronous motor
Which of these statements are correct?
a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) and (vi)
b) (i),(ii),(iii),(v) and (vii)
c) (ii),(iii),(v),(vi) and (vii)
d) (i),(ii),(iv),(v) and (vii)

9. In all rotating electrical machine, electrical torque is developed when relative speed between stator field and rotor field is ____________
a) zero
b) equal to rotor speed
c) equal and opposite to rotor speed
d) dependent upon the type of electrical machine

Set 3

1. What is the angle between stator direct axis and quadrature axis ?
a) 90°
b) 0°
c) 45°
d) any of the mentioned

2. Space angle, θr is measured between stator d-axis and _____
a) quadrature axis
b) direct d-axis
c) long rotor axis
d) none of the mentioned

3. The reluctance offered to the stator flux by two very large air gaps in series with high permeability iron, in reluctance machine is maximum, when the space angle θr = ______
a) 0°
b) 45°
c) 90°
d) 180°

4. The reluctance offered to the stator flux by two small air gaps in series with high permeability iron, in reluctance machine is minimum, when the space angle θr = ______
a) 0°
b) 45°
c) 90°
d) 270°

5. The variation of reluctance Rl with space angle θr depends on the shape of __________
a) stator poles
b) rotor poles
c) stator or rotor poles
d) both stator and rotor poles

6. Reluctance motor can produce torque at ________
a) any speed less than synchronous speed
b) synchronous speed only
c) any speed greater than synchronous speed
d) any of the mentioned

7. For a reluctance motor , the maximum average torque occurs when δ= __________
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 0°
d) 180°

8. For a given reluctance motor, Rld and Rlq are ________
a) constant
b) varying
c) zero
d) any of the mentioned

9. The single phase reluctance machine acts as a generator when angle δ is _______
a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
d) any of the mentioned

10. Single phase reluctance motors are extensively used in ________
a) grinder applications
b) driving electric clocks and other timing devices
c) welding applications
d) lifts/ elevators

11. If the salient pole rotor in a single phase reluctance motor is replaced by a cylindrical rotor, then
(i) reluctance offered to stator flux remains constant for all rotor positions
(ii) no reluctance torque will be developed
(iii) reluctance torque will be developed
(iv) reluctance offered to stator flux changes for all rotor positions

Which of the above statements are true ?
a) (i), (ii)
b) (ii), (iii)
c) (iii), (iv)
d) (i), (iv)

12. Which of the following are applications of singly excited magnetic systems ____________
a) electromagnets, relays
b) moving-iron instruments
c) reluctance motors
d) any of the mentioned

Set 4

1. For a p-pole machine, which of the following statements are correct regarding the rotating field speed?
a) The rotating field speed is 1/(p/2) revolutions in one cycle
b) f/(p/2) revolutions in f cycles
c) f/(p/2) revolutions in one second
d) Any of the mentioned

2. The speed at which rotating magnetic field revolves is called
a) Induction speed
b) Synchronous speed
c) Relative speed
d) Rotating speed

3. What is the amplitude of rotating MMF produced as a result of m-phase currents flowing in m-phase windings?
a) (2/m)Fm
b) mFm
c) (m/2)Fm
d) Fm
where Fm is maximum MMF in any one phase, when current is maximum in that phase.

4. The peak of rotating MMF wave (FR) is directed along which of the following axis?
a) The axis of that phase which carries the maximum current at that instant
b) The axis of that phase which carries half of the maximum current at that instant
c) The axis of that phase which carries minimum current at that instant
d) Any of the mentioned

5. If the phase sequence of supply currents are reversed, then the direction of rotation of the resultant MMF wave will
a) Be reversed
b) Remains unchanged
c) Cannot be determined
d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following statements are correct regarding individual phase MMF in rotating machines ?
a) It is a rotating MMF wave
b) It is not a rotating MMF wave and its amplitude doesn’t alternate along its own phase axis
c) It is not a rotating MMF wave but its amplitude merely pulsates
d) None of the mentioned

7. The effect of poly phase currents in poly phase winding can be compared to _______________
a) Mechanical rotation of permanent magnets at synchronous speed
b) Mechanical rotation of DC excited field poles at synchronous speed
c) Mechanical rotation of either permanent magnets or DC excited field poles, at synchronous speed
d) None of the mentioned

8. The magnitude of rotating flux _____________ at all instants of time.
a) Changes
b) Remains constant
c) Pulsates
d) Any of the mentioned

9. The amplitude of rotating MMF wave is proportional to
a) Nph and P
b) I and P
c) Nph and I
d) Nph, I and P

10. If F1 is the constant amplitude of fundamental rotating MMF wave, the space harmonics of order 6K+1 (where K=1,2,3….), the harmonic MMF wave is of _____________
a) Constant amplitude and stationary in space
b) Constant amplitude and rotates along F1
c) Varying amplitude and rotates along F1
d) Constant amplitude and rotates against F1

Set 5

1. If F1 is the constant amplitude of fundamental rotating MMF wave, the for the space harmonics of order 6K-1 (where K=1,2,3….), the harmonic MMF wave is of _____________
a) Constant amplitude and stationary in space
b) Constant amplitude and rotates along F1
c) Varying amplitude and rotates along F1
d) Constant amplitude and rotates against F1

2. Which of the following harmonics are present in the resultant MMF produced by 3 phase currents flowing in the 3 phase windings?
a) Triplen harmonics (3K), where K is an integer
b) 6K+1 harmonics only, where K is an integer
c) 6K-1 harmonics only, where K is an integer
d) 6k+1 and 6K-1 harmonics, where K is an integer

3. When a single-phase winding is excited by an alternating current, then which of the following statements are correct?
a) It produces one stationary MMF wave
b) Produced MMF wave pulsates along its magnetic axis
c) It doesn’t produce two counter rotating MMF wave
d) All of the mentioned

4. What does the space angle α in the equation Fr(α,t)=3/2Fmcos(α-ωt) for MMF produced when 3-phase balanced windings excited by three phase balanced currents represent?
a) MMF wave at any moment is sinusoidally distributed in space
b) Entire MMF waveform is travelling at (constant angular speed) synchronous speed
c) MMF wave is of constant amplitude
d) None of the mentioned

5. Three phase voltages are applied to the three windings of an electrical machine. If any two supply terminals are interchanged, then the rotating MMF wave _____________
a) Direction reverses, amplitude alters
b) Direction reverses, amplitude unaltered
c) Direction remains same, amplitude alters
d) Direction remains same, amplitude unaltered

6. The rotating MMF wave of constant amplitude can be produced, only if the time angle displacement between currents is _____________
a) Less than the space angle displacement between winding axis
b) More than the space angle displacement between winding axis
c) Equal to the space angle displacement between winding axis
d) Any of the mentioned

7. A 3 phase star connected winding is fed from symmetrical 3 phase supply with their neutrals connected together. If one of the 3 supply lines gets disconnected, then the revolving MMF wave will have a ___________
a) Constant amplitude but sub synchronous speed
b) Varying amplitude but synchronous speed
c) Constant amplitude but super synchronous speed
d) Varying speed and a speed fluctuating around the synchronous speed

8. In case of the 3 phase winding with delta or star connection without neutral, if one of the supply lines gets disconnected, then the MMF becomes __________
a) Stationary and pulsating
b) Rotating with synchronous speed
c) Rotating with sub synchronous speed
d) Rotating with super synchronous speed

9. If φm is the maximum value of flux due to any one phase, then resultant flux in 2 phase and 3 phase AC machines would respectively be given by _________
a) φm and 1.5φm, both rotating
b) φm and 1.5φm, both stand still
c) φm stand still and 1.5φm rotating
d) 1.5φm and 2φm, both rotating

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 10μF. If the linear dimensions of the plates are doubled and distance between them is also doubled, the new value of capacitance would be __________
a) 10μF
b) 20μF
c) 5μF
d) 40μF

2. A parallel plate capacitor is changed and then the DC supply is disconnected. Now plate separation is allowed to decrease due to force of attraction between the two plates. As a consequence __________
(i) charge on the plate increases
(ii) charge on the plates remain constant
(iii) capacitance C increases
(iv) capacitance C remains constant
(v) potential difference increases
(vi) potential difference decreases
(vii) energy stored decreases
(viii) energy stored increases

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i),(iii),(vi)
b) (ii),(iv),(viii)
c) (ii),(iii),(vi),(vii)
d) (ii),(iv),(v),(viii)

3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then the DC supply is disconnected. The plate separation is then increased. Between the plates,
(i) electric field intensity is unchanged
(ii) flux density decreases
(iii) potential difference decreases
(iv) energy stored increases

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (i),(iv)
b) (ii),(iv)
c) (ii),(iii),(iv)
d) (i),(iii),(iv)

4. The area of two parallel plates is doubled and the distance between these plates is also doubled. The capacitor voltage is kept constant. Under these conditions, force between the plates of this capacitor __________
a) decreases
b) increases
c) reduce to half
d) gets doubled

5. A parallel plate capacitor has an electrode area of 1000 mm2, with a spacing of 0.1 mm between the electrodes. The dielectric between the plates is air with a permittivity of 8.85∗10-12 F/m. The charge on the capacitor is 100 v. The stored energy in the capacitor is ____________
a) 44.3 J
b) 444.3 nJ
c) 88.6 nJ
d) 44.3 nJ

6. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a DC source. Now the plates are allowed to move a small displacement under the influence of force of attraction between the two plates. As a result ____________
(i) charge on the plates increases
(ii) charge on plates remains constant
(iii) energy stored increases
(iv) energy stored remains constant
(v) electric field intensity is unchanged
(vi) flux density increases

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) (ii),(iv),(v)
b) (ii),(iii),(vi)
c) (i),(iii),(v)
d) (i),(iii),(vi)

7. The force produced by electric field in a singly excited energy conversion device, using electric field as coupling medium can be obtained by ___________
a) use of field energy function only
b) use of coenergy function only
c) any of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

8. Charge and voltage associated with electric field are analogous, respectively to __________ and ___________ in magnetic field.
a) flux linkages and current
b) flux density and current
c) flux linkages and voltage
d) MMF and current

9. Two parallel plates, each of area A = 1m2 are separated by a distance g. The electric field intensity between the plates is 3∗106 v/m. What is the force between the two plates?
a) 1/2π∗103 N
b) 1/8π∗103 N
c) 8π∗103 N
d) 0 N

Set 2

1. For a toroid to extract the energy from the supply system, the flux linkages of the magnetic field must be ________
a) zero
b) changing or varying
c) constant
d) any of the mentioned

2. Magnetic stored energy density for iron is given by ______
a) 1/2 B/μ
b) 1/2 B2 μ
c) 1/2 ∅2 Rl
d) 1/2 B2/μ

3. The energy stored in a magnetic field is given by ____________ where L=self-inductance and Rl=reluctance.
a) 1/2 Li2
b) 1/2 (mmf*Rl)2
c) 1/2∅Rl
d) 1/2 φ2i

4. When a current of 5A flows through a coil of linear magnetic circuit, it has flux linkages of 2.4 wb-turns. What is the energy stored in the magnetic field of this coil in Joules?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 1.2
d) 2.4

5. For a linear electromagnetic circuit, which of the following statement is true?
a) Field energy is less than the Co-energy
b) Field energy is equal to the Co-energy
c) Field energy is greater than the Co-energy
d) Co-energy is zero

6. The electromagnetic force and/or torque, developed in any physical system, acts in such a direction as to tend to ____________
a) decrease the magnetic stored energy at constant mmf
b) decrease the magnetic stored energy at constant flux
c) increase the magnetic stored energy at constant flux
d) increase the magnetic stored energy at constant current

7. The electromagnetic force developed in any physical system acts in such a direction as to tend to _____________
a) decrease the co-energy at constant mmf
b) increase the co-energy at constant flux
c) decrease the co-energy at constant flux
d) increase the co-energy at constant mmf

8. Consider a magnetic relay with linear magnetization curve in both of its open and closed position. What happens to the electrical energy input to the relay, when the armature moves slowly from open position to closed position ?
a) Welec=Wfld
b) Welec=Wmech
c) Welec=Wmech/2+Wfld/2
d) Welec=0

9. The electromagnetic torque developed in any physical system, and with magnetic saturation neglected, acts in such a direction as to tend to ____________
a) decrease both the reluctance and inductance
b) increase both the reluctance and inductance
c) decrease the reluctance and increase the inductance
d) increase the reluctance and decrease the inductance

10. Electromagnetic force and/or torque developed in any physical system, acts in such a direction as to tend to ____________
a) increase both the field energy and co-energy at constant current
b) increase the field energy and decrease the co-energy at constant current
c) decrease both the field energy and co-energy at constant current
d) decrease the field energy and increase the co-energy at constant current

Set 3

1. For a P-pole machine, the relation between electrical and mechanical degrees is given by _____________
a) θelec = 2/P θmech
b) θelec = 4/P θmech
c) θmech = P/2 θelec
d) θelec = P/2 θmech

2. What is the relation between ‘ω’, angular speed in electrical radians per second and ‘ωm‘, angular speed in mechanical radians per second, for a P-pole machine?
a) ω = 2/Pωm
b) ω = 4/Pωm
c) ωm = P/2ω
d) ω = P/2ωm

3. A pole pitch in electrical machine _____________
a) = 180° electrical
b) = 180° mechanical
c) > 180° electrical
d) < 180° electrical

4. The part of the coil in which EMF is generated is known as _____________
a) end connection
b) coil sides
c) coil span
d) none of the mentioned

5. A coil consists of _____________
a) two conductors
b) two coil sides
c) two turns
d) four turns

6. One turn consists of _____________
a) two coil sides
b) two conductors
c) four conductors
d) four coil sides

7. In a full pitch coil, the two coil sides are how many electrical space degrees apart?
a) 180 electrical degrees
b) 90 electrical degrees
c) 45 electrical degrees
d) none of the mentioned

8. A chording angle ε is defined as the angle by which coil span departs from __________
a) 90° electrical space degrees
b) 180° electrical space degrees
c) 360° electrical space degrees
d) any of the mentioned

9. If Bp= peak value of sinusoidal flux density wave, L = armature core length, D = armature diameter, P = number of poles, then
(i) flux per pole, Φ=2/PBpLD
(ii) Average flux density, Bav=2/πBp
(iii) Φ=4/PBpLD
(iv) Bav=3/πBp
(v) Bav=PΦ/πDL
(vi) Bav=PΦ/πrL
Which of the above statements are correct ?
a) (i),(ii),(v)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (ii),(iii),(vi)
d) (iii),(iv),(v)

10. In a 4 pole machine, what is the flux per pole produced, if the armature length is l and radius is r and Bp is peak value of sinusoidal flux?
a) 4Bplr
b) 2Bplr
c) Bplr
d) Bplr/2

11. The equation for flux per pole Φ=4/PBplr, is valid for _____________
a) for salient pole rotor only
b) for cylindrical pole rotor only
c) for both cylindrical and salient pole rotor
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The magnitude of electromagnetic or interaction torque, in all rotating machines, is given by ____________
a) Te ∝(stator field strength)sinδ
b) Te ∝(rotor field strength)sinδ
c) Te ∝(stator field strength)(rotor field strength)sinδ
d) Te ∝ sinδ

2. In a rotating electrical machine with 2 poles on the stator and 4 poles on the rotor, spaced equally, the net electromagnetic torque developed is ____________
a) maximum
b) zero or no torque is developed
c) minimum
d) none of the mentioned

3. For the development of electromagnetic torque in a rotating electrical machine, the number of rotor poles must be ____________
a) greater than the stator poles
b) less than the stator poles
c) equal to the stator poles
d) either greater or lesser than the stator poles

4. Torque angle ‘δ’ is the angle between ____________
a) rotor field axis and resultant field axis
b) stator field axis and rotor field axis
c) stator field axis and mutual field axis
d) stator field axis and resultant field axis

5. The interaction torque in a rotating electrical machine depends on which of the following components?
(i) sinδ
(ii) cosδ
(iii) torque angle δ
(iv) stator field strength
(v) rotor field strength
a) (i),(iv),(v)
b) (ii),(iii),(v)
c) (i),(iii),(v)
d) (ii),(iv),(v)

6. The basic torque and EMF expression of rotating electrical machines are ____________
a) applicable to DC machines only
b) applicable to AC machines only
c) applicable to both AC and DC machines
d) none of the mentioned

7. The final forms of the expression for generated EMF and torque,for AC and DC machines differ, because ____________
a) the fundamental principles underlying their operation are same
b) the fundamental principles underlying their operation are different
c) their construction details are same
d) their construction details are different

8. The voltage equation for the electrical system, in an electromechanical energy conversion device is as follows:
vt=ir+Ldi/dt+i(dL/dθrr = (i)+(ii)+(iii)
What does the (ii) and (iii) terms represent respectively?
a) transformer voltage term and speed/rotational voltage term
b) speed/rotational voltage term and transformer voltage term
c) force voltage term and transformer voltage term
d) none of the mentioned

9. For an inductor made from magnetic core, with two air gaps of equal length g, exciting coil with 1000 turns, A=5cm∗5cm and g=1cm, what will be the coil inductance?
a) 0.314H
b) 0.157H
c) 0.078H
d) 0.628H

Set 5

1. Statement 1: Cabinet tray dyers can be used for heat sensitive materials.
Statement 2: Bin dryer is used for materials which follow the falling rate drying curve.
a) True, False
b) True, True
c) False, False
d) False, True

2. Advantage of turbo dryer over cabinet tray dryer is _____
a) It is more effective
b) The feed is uniformly heated at the edges
c) None of the mentioned
d) Both of the mentioned

3. Hannah ordered one ton of mushrooms. But, the entire lot was brown. Which dryer could it possibly have been?
a) Bin dryer
b) Tray dryer
c) Tower Dryer
d) Vacuum dryer

4. Statement 1: Which tray dryer has indirect heating?
Statement 2: Which tray dryer is good for making powders?
a) Bin dryer, vacuum dryer
b) Tray dryer, vacuum dryer
c) Tower Dryer, vacuum dryer
d) Vacuum dryer, vacuum dryer

5. Which of the following dryers requires non-sticky granular feed?
a) Rotary dryer
b) Fluidized bed dryer
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

6. After incipient fluidization, the pressure briefly _____
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Stays constant
d) Varies exponentially

7. Statement 1: Vibro-fluidized bed dryer can reduce the air flow rate consumptions as air is only used for drying and not for fluidizing.
Statement 2:_____ are often called desolventizers.
a) True, screw conveyor
b) True, pneumatic conveyor
c) False, screw conveyor
d) False, pneumatic conveyor

8. Which of the following dryers cannot take feed in the form of pastes/slurries/sticky items?
a) Drum dryer
b) Screw conveyor dryer
c) Pneumatic dryer
d) Spray dryer

9. Which of the following is also called ring dryer?
a) Pneumatic conveyor dryer
b) Drum dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) Spray dryer

10. Which of the following dryers is used for making baby food?
a) Pneumatic conveyor dryer
b) Drum dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) Spray dryer

11. Coffee powders can be made from which of the following dryers?
a) Pneumatic conveyor dryer
b) Drum dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) Spray dryer

12. food-engineering-mcqs-q12
X-axis is temperature and Y-axis is pressure.
Which of the following curves is followed for freeze drying of prawns?
a) AA’
b) BB’
c) ABO
d) A’OB’

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. A flat wall of fire clay, 50 cm thick and initially at 25 degree Celsius, has one of its faces suddenly exposed to a hot gas at 950 degree Celsius. If the heat transfer coefficient on the hot side is 7.5 W/m2 K and the other face of the wall is insulated so that no heat passes out of that face, determine the time necessary to raise the center of the wall to 350 degree Celsius. For fire clay brick
heat-transfer-mcqs-q1
Thermal conductivity = 1.12 W/m K
Thermal diffusivity = 5.16 * 10 -7 m2/s
a) 43.07 hours
b) 53.07 hours
c) 63.07 hours
d) 73.07 hours

2. Glass spheres of 2 mm radius and at 500 degree Celsius are to be cooled by exposing them to an air stream at 25 degree Celsius. Find maximum value of convective coefficient that is permissible. Assume the following property values
Density = 2250 kg/m3
Specific heat = 850 J/kg K
Conductivity = 1.5 W/m K
a) 245 W/m2K
b) 235 W/m2K
c) 225 W/m2K
d) 215 W/m2K

3. The transient response of a solid can be determined by the equation
a) – 4 p V c = h A (t – t0)
b) – 3 p V c = h A (t – t0)
c) – 2 p V c = h A (t – t0)
d) – p V c = h A (t – t0)
Where,
P is density, V is volume, c is specific heat and A is area.

4. A 2 cm thick steel slab heated to 525 degree Celsius is held in air stream having a mean temperature of 25 degree Celsius. Estimate the time interval when the slab temperature would not depart from the mean value of 25 degree Celsius by more than 0.5 degree Celsius at any point in the slab. The steel plate has the following thermal physical properties
Density = 7950 kg/m3
C P = 455 J/kg K
K = 46 W/m K
a) 6548 s
b) 6941 s
c) 4876 s
d) 8760 s

5. An average convective heat transfer coefficient for flow of air over a sphere has been measured by observing the temperature-time history of a 12 mm diameter copper sphere (density = 9000 kg/m3 and c = 0.4 k J/kg K) exposed to air at 30 degree Celsius. The temperature of the sphere was measured by two thermocouples one located at the center and the other near the surface. The initial temperature of the ball was 75 degree Celsius and it decreased by 10 degree Celsius in 1.2 minutes. Find the heat transfer coefficient
a) 27.46 W/m2 K
b) 21.76 W/m2 K
c) 29.37 W/m2 K
d) 25.13 W/m2 K

6. Transient condition means
a) Conduction when temperature at a point varies with time
b) Very little heat transfer
c) Heat transfer with a very little temperature difference
d) Heat transfer for a short time

7. Which of the following is not correct?
In a transient flow process
a) The state of matter inside the control volume varies with time
b) There can be work and heat interactions across the control volume
c) There is no accumulation of energy inside the control volume
d) The rate of inflow and outflow of mass are different

8. A cylindrical stainless steel (k = 25 W/m K) ingot, 10 cm in diameter and 25 cm long, passes through a heat treatment furnace which is 5 meter in length. The initial ingot temperature is 90 degree Celsius, the furnace gas is at 1260 degree Celsius and the combined radiant and convective surface coefficient is 100 W/m2 K. Determine the maximum speed with which the ingot moves through the furnace if it must attain 830 degree Celsius temperature. Take thermal diffusivity as 0.45 * 10 -5 m2/s
a) . 000116 m/s
b) .000216 m/s
c) . 000316 m/s
d) . 000416 m/s

9. The curve for unsteady state cooling or heating of bodies is
a) Hyperbolic curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis
b) Exponential curve asymptotic both to time and temperature axis
c) Parabolic curve asymptotic to time axis
d) Exponential curve asymptotic to time axis

10. What is the wavelength band for TV rays?
a) 1 * 10 3 to 34 * 10 10 micron meter
b) 1 * 10 3 to 2 * 10 10 micron meter
c) 1 * 10 3 to 3 * 10 10 micron meter
d) 1 * 10 3 to 56 * 10 10 micron meter

Set 2

1. Time loss factor in Actual Cycle is due to
a) progressive combustion
b) heat loss through cylinder walls
c) gas leakage
d) friction

2. If the spark timing is at TDC, the work is
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

3. When the spark is advanced, the work output is less as
a) the peak pressure is low
b) the peak temperature is low
c) additional work is required to compress the burning gas
d) frictional losses increase

4. Optimum spark timing gives
a) higher mean effective pressure
b) higher efficiency
c) higher mean effective pressure and higher efficiency
d) none of the mentioned

5. The major loss in a S.I. engine is due to
a) exhaust blow down
b) pumping
c) incomplete combustion
d) variation in specific heat and chemical equilibrium

6. The major loss in a C.I. engine is
a) direct heat loss
b) loss due to incomplete combustion
c) rubbing friction loss
d) pumping loss

7. In an actual S.I engine the pumping loss with respect to speed
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned

8. The volumetric efficiency is affected by
a) the exhaust gas in the clearance volume
b) the design of intake and exhaust valve
c) valve timing
d) all of the mentioned

9. In petrol engine the actual pressure developed compared to the predicted maximum pressure is
a) 90%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 25%

10. Energy released in actual cycle is about _____________ of the fuel input.
a) 90%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 25%

Set 3

1. Air injected in IC engines refers to injection of
a) air only
b) liquid fuel only
c) liquid fuel and air
d) none of the mentioned

2. The m.e.p. of a petrol engine first increases as the fuel air ratio is increased and then decreases on further increase in fuel air ratio. The m.e.p. is maximum in the zone of
a) lean mixture
b) chemically correct mixture
c) rich mixture
d) none of the mentioned

3. The specific fuel consumption for a petrol engine first decreases with increase in fuel air ratio and then increases with further increase in air fuel ratio. The maximum value occurs in the range of
a) lean mixture
b) chemically correct mixture
c) rich mixture
d) none of the mentioned

4. Auto-ignition reaction time for petrol engine first decreases with increase in fuel air ratio, reaches a minimum value and then increases with subsequent increase in fuel air ratio. The maximum value occurs in the region of
a) lean mixture
b) chemically correct mixture
c) rich mixture
d) none of the mentioned

5. The most effective air cleaner in case of diesel engines is
a) dry type
b) wet type
c) whirl type
d) oil bath type

6. A high flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is
a) uniform throughout the mixture
b) chemically correct mixture
c) about 3-5% rich mixture
d) about 10% rich mixture

7. During idling, a petrol engine requires ______________ mixture.
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically correct
d) none of the mentioned

8. The ___________ engines can work on very lean mixture of fuel.
a) spark ignition
b) compression ignition
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

9. In order to mix air and petrol in the required proportion and to supply it to the engine during suction stroke, then ______________ is employed.
a) fuel pump
b) injector
c) carburetor
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on
a) fuel used
b) speed of engine
c) compression ratio
d) none of the mentioned

2. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about
a) 0.2 kg
b) 0.25 kg
c) 0.3 kg
d) 0.35 kg

3. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about
a) 0.2 kg
b) 0.25 kg
c) 0.3 kg
d) 0.35 kg

4. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned

5. The thermal efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about
a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

6)The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about
a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

7. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is
a) unaffected
b) lower
c) higher
d) dependent on other factors

8. The volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be
a) 30 to 40%
b) 40 to 60%
c) 60 to 70%
d) 75 to 90%

9) The working medium of a air standard cycle has constant ___________ throughout the cycle.
a) pressure
b) volume
c) specific heat
d) mass

10. It is assumed that all the processes of a air standard cycle are
a) reversible
b) irreversible
c) adiabatic
d) isothermal

Set 5

1. Advantage of gaseous fuel is that
a) it can be stored easily
b) it can mix easily with air
c) it can displace more air from the engine
d) all of the mentioned

2. Paraffins are generally represented by
a) CnHn
b) CnH2n
c) CnH2n+2
d) CnH2n-6

3. Paraffins have molecular structure of
a) chain saturated
b) chain unsaturated
c) ring saturated
d) ring unsaturated

4. Olefins are generally represented by
a) CnHn
b) CnH2n
c) CnH2n+2
d) CnH2n-6

5. Hydrocarbons are decomposed into smaller hydrocarbons by
a) reforming
b) refining
c) cracking
d) polymerization

6. The molecular structure of the straight-run gasoline is changed by
a) reforming
b) refining
c) cracking
d) boiling

7. For S.I. engines fuel most preferred are
a) aromatics
b) paraffins
c) olefins
d) napthenes

8. For C.I. engines fuel most preferred are
a) aromatics
b) paraffins
c) olefins
d) napthenes

9. In spark ignition engines, the knocking tendency can be decreased by
a) decreasing compression ratio
b) controlling intake throttle
c) controlling ignition timing
d) adding dopes like tetraethyl lead and ethylene dibromide

10. Detonation in petrol engines can be suppressed or reduced by the addition of small quantity of
a) lead nitrate
b) iso-octane
c) n-heptane
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. If the vehicle is operated at an altitude lower than calibration altitude, ___________________ mixture is obtained.
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically equal
d) none of the mentioned

2. At lower altitude, the vehicles result in
a) hydrocarbon emission
b) carbon monoxide emission
c) poor drivability
d) none of the mentioned

3. If the vehicle is operated at an altitude higher than calibration altitude, _______________ mixture is obtained.
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically equal
d) none of the mentioned

4. At higher altitude, the vehicles result in
a) hydrocarbon emission
b) carbon monoxide emission
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

5. At higher altitude, power is
a) increased
b) reduced
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned

6. At higher altitude, the mixture strength delivered by the carburetor becomes richer at a rate ___________ proportional to the square root of the density ratio.
a) directly
b) inversely
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

7. At 6,000 m altitude, the air pressure is approximately ________________ the pressure at sea level.
a) same as
b) one-half
c) twice
d) none of the mentioned

8. The __________________ type of mixture control system, reduces the effective suction on the metering system.
a) back suction
b) needle
c) air port
d) none of the mentioned

9. The _________________ type of mixture control system, restricts the flow of fuel through the metering system.
a) back suction
b) needle
c) air port
d) none of the mentioned

10. The ________________ type of mixture control system, allows additional air to enter the carburetor between the main discharge nozzle and the throttle valve.
a) back suction
b) needle
c) air port
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

1. For idling condition in automotive engines, the air-fuel mixture must be
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically balanced
d) none of the mentioned

2. For cruising condition in automotive engines, the air-fuel mixture must be
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically balanced
d) none of the mentioned

3. For high power condition in automotive engines, the air-fuel mixture must be
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically balanced
d) none of the mentioned

4. To prevent overheating of exhaust valve and the area near it, the air-fuel mixture must be
a) lean
b) rich
c) chemically balanced
d) none of the mentioned

5. In an automobile engine, indication of knocking is available in the form of
a) light
b) gas
c) audible sound
d) none of the mentioned

6. The operator can make the engine operating conditions less stringent by
a) jamming the throttle
b) releasing the throttle
c) engaging the throttle
d) none of the mentioned

7. When the throttle is suddenly opened, the mixture from the simple carburetor tends to become
a) rich
b) lean
c) stoichiometric
d) not affected

8. Precise petrol injection system is
a) direct injection
b) sequential injection
c) throttle body injection
d) port injection

Set 3

1. A carburetor is used to supply
a) petrol, air and lubricating oil
b) air and diesel
c) petrol and lubricating oil
d) petrol and air

2. The compensating jet in a carburetor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds because the
a) jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
b) the flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed
c) the diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant
d) flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber

3. Which of the following does not relate to spark ignition engine?
a) Ignition coil
b) Spark plug
c) Carburetor
d) Fuel injector

4. Which of the following does not relate to compression ignition engine?
a) Fuel pump
b) Fuel injector
c) Governor
d) Carburetor

5. In carburetors, the top of the fuel jet with reference to the level in the float chamber is kept at
a) same level
b) slightly higher level
c) slightly lower level
d) may be anywhere

6. Carburetion is done to
a) feed petrol into cylinder
b) govern the engine
c) break up and mix the petrol with air
d) none of the mentioned

7. Power impulses from IC engine are smoothed out by
a) governor
b) crank shaft
c) gear box
d) flywheel

8. The following type of carburetor is preferred
a) concentric type
b) eccentric type
c) horizontal type
d) vertical type

9. In the passenger cars, the following type of carburetor is preferred
a) horizontal type
b) downward draught type
c) upward draught type
d) none of the mentioned

10. The part load efficiency of a carburetor is
a) maximum
b) optimum
c) poor
d) constant

Set 4

1. In a carnot cycle, the working medium receives heat at a _____________ temperature.
a) lower
b) higher
c) constant
d) none of the mentioned

2. In a carnot cycle, the working medium rejects heat at a ____________ temperature.
a) lower
b) higher
c) constant
d) none of the mentioned

3. In a carnot cycle, the working fluid is
a) a real gas
b) an ideal gas
c) a natural gas
d) none of the mentioned

4. The isothermal process of a carnot cycle needs very __________ motion of the piston to maintain constant temperature.
a) slow
b) fast
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

5. The adiabatic process of a carnot cycle needs very __________ motion to complete the adiabatic process.
a) slow
b) fast
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

6. For a given temperature T1, as the difference between T1 and T2 increases, the COP of a carnot heat pump
a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases, then decreases
d) none of the mentioned

7. A carnot heat pump is used to heat a house. The outside temperature is -3ºC and the indoor temperature is 27ºC. If the heat loss from the house is 40kW, the power required to operate the heat pump is
a) 1kW
b) 2kW
c) 3kW
d) 4kW

8. A carnot cycle is to be designed to attain efficiency of 0.75. if temperature of high temperature reservoir is 727ºC, then low temperature reservoir will have to be maintained at
a) 23ºC
b) 181ºC
c) -23ºC
d) -181ºC

9. A cyclic heat engine does 50kJ of work per cycle. If efficiency of engine is 75%, the heat rejected per cycle will be
a) 60.6kJ
b) 16.6kJ
c) 66.6kJ
d) 200kJ

10. A carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 250ºK and 300ºK. What is the value of COP?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 25
d) 5

Set 5

1. Swirl is the rotational flow of charge within the cylinder about the axis.
a) True
b) False

2. The _____________ is defined by the parallel portion of the piston and cylinder head which almost touch each other as the piston approaches T.D.C.
a) turbulence
b) swirl
c) quench area
d) none of the mentioned

3. ____________ consists of randomly dispersed vortices of different sizes which become superimposed into the air and petrol mixture flow stream.
a) Turbulence
b) Swirl
c) Quench area
d) None of the mentioned

4. The amount of vortex activity,and the disintegration of others, _____________ the turbulent flow with rising engine speed.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned

5. The degree of turbulence increases _____________ with the piston speed.
a) indirectly
b) directly
c) linearly
d) none of the mentioned

6. Turbulence decreases the heat flow to the cylinder wall and in the limit excessive turbulence may extinguish the flame.
a) True
b) False

7. The flame propagation velocities range from
a) 10 to 15 m/s
b) 15 to 70 m/s
c) 20 to 80 m/s
d) 30 to 90 m/s

8. When ignition occurs the nucleus of the flame spreads with the whirling or rotating vortices in the form of ragged burning crust from the initial spark plug ignition site.
a) True
b) False

9. Swirl ratio is defined as the ratio of air rotational speed to crankshaft rotational speed.
a) True
b) False

10. Abnormal combustion knock produced by surface ignition in SI engines is not harmful as normal combustion knock.
a) True
b) False

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The actual efficiency of a good engine is about _____________ of the estimated air fuel cycle efficiency.
a) 100%
b) 85%
c) 50%
d) 25

2. The ratio of the actual efficiency and the and the fuel air cycle efficiency for C.I. engines is about
a) 0.2-0.3
b) 0.5-0.6
c) 1.0
d) 0.6-0.8

3. Fuel air efficiency is less than air standard efficiency by an amount equal to
a) pumping loss
b) friction loss
c) loss due to specific heat and chemical equilibrium
d) exhaust blow down loss

4. Fuel air ratio affects maximum power output of the engine due to
a) higher specific heats
b) chemical equilibrium losses
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

5. As compared to air cycle, in actual working, the effect of variation in specific heats is to
a) increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature
b) reduce maximum pressure and maximum temperature
c) increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature
d) none of the mentioned

6. The ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that of the ideal cycle efficiency is called
a) effectiveness
b) work ratio
c) efficiency ratio
d) net efficiency

7. The ignition of charge by some hot surface in the engine cylinder before operation of spark plug is known as
a) auto ignition
b) pre-ignition
c) detonation
d) none of the mentioned

8. The break mean effective pressure of an I.C. engine with increase in speed will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

1. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel Cycle
b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto Cycle
c) Efficiency depends on other factors
d) None of the mentioned

2. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
a) gas engine
b) petrol engine
c) steam engine
d) reversible engine

3. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion cycle is
a) greater than otto cycle
b) less than diesel cycle
c) less than otto cycle and greater than diesel cycle
d) greater than both otto and diesel cycle

4. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle is
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

5. Choose the correct statement from the following
a) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle for a given compression ratio.
b) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle for a given compression ratio.
c) For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have same efficiency.
d) None of the mentioned

6. For constant maximum pressure and heat input, the air standard efficiency of gas power cycle is in the order.
a) Diesel cycle, Dual cycle, Otto cycle
b) Otto cycle,Diesel cycle, Dual cycle
c) Dual cycle,Otto cycle, Diesel cycle
d) Diesel cycle,Otto cycle, Dual cycle

7. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio and heat input because, in Otto cycle
a) combustion is at constant volume
b) expansion and compression are isentropic
c) maximum temperature is higher
d) heat rejection is lower

8. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is about
a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 50%
d) 70%

Set 3

1. On city roads one may be able to operate the vehicle between ________________ of the throttle only.
a) 30 to 70%
b) 40 to 80%
c) 25 to 60%
d) 25 to 50%

2. The principle of compensating jet device is to make the mixture
a) leaner
b) equal
c) richer
d) none of the mentioned

3. The compensating well is supplied with fuel from the main float chamber through a
a) nozzle
b) restricting orifice
c) injector
d) none of the mentioned

4. The main metering jet is kept at a level of about _______________ below the fuel level in the float chamber.
a) 25 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 35 mm
d) 40 mm

5. Back suction control mechanism, is employed in
a) small carburetors
b) medium carburetors
c) large carburetors
d) none of the mentioned

6. Auxiliary ports are used for aircraft carburetors to compensate for the _____________ in density of air at high altitudes.
a) increase
b) stable
c) loss
d) none of the mentioned

7. In back suction control mechanism, if the valve is closed, the float chamber pressure will ____________ the pressure at the venturi throat.
a) equalize with
b) increase
c) decrease
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which of the following are compensating devices?
a) air-bleed jet
b) compensating jet
c) emulsion tube
d) all of the mentioned

9. Which of the following are compensating devices?
a) back suction control mechanism
b) auxiliary air valve
c) auxiliary air port
d) all of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Diesel cycle is also known as
a) constant volume cycle
b) constant pressure cycle
c) constant temperature cycle
d) none of the mentioned

2. A diesel engine has compression ratio from
a) 6 to 10
b) 10 to 15
c) 16 to 20
d) 25 to 40

3. In Diesel cycle, heat addition takes place at
a) constant temperature
b) constant pressure
c) constant volume
d) none of the mentioned

4. The combustion in compression ignition engine is
a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
c) laminar
d) none of the mentioned

5. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
a) spark
b) injected fuel
c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
d) combustion chamber

6. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be independent
d) none of the mentioned

7. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately
a) 10 bar
b) 20 bar
c) 25 bar
d) 35 bar

8. The combustion in spark ignition engine is
a) homogeneous
b) heterogeneous
c) laminar
d) none of the mentioned

9. If the temperature of intake air in I.C. engine is lowered, then its efficiency will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) increase up to certain limit and then decrease

10. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
a) 5-10 kg/cm2
b) 20-25 kg/cm2
c) 60-80 kg/cm2
d) 90-130 kg/cm2

Set 5

1. Dissociation is the disintegration of burnt gases at __________ temperatures.
a) low
b) high
c) constant
d) none of the mentioned

2. In lean mixtures no dissociation takes place at_____________ temperatures.
a) low
b) high
c) constant
d) none of the mentioned

3. In rich mixtures dissociation is prevented by the available
a) CO
b) CO2
c) O2
d) CO and O2

4. Power output is maximum at stoichiometric ratio where there is
a) dissociation
b) no dissociation
c) rich mixture
d) none of the mentioned

5. Maximum dissociation is for
a) lean mixture
b) rich mixture
c) stoichiometric
d) none of the mentioned

6. With dissociation, peak temperature is obtained
a) at the stoichiometric ratio
b) when the mixture is slightly lean
c) when the mixture is slightly rich
d) none of the mentioned

7. With dissociation the exhaust gas pressure
a) decreases
b) increases
c) no effect
d) increases upto certain air fuel ratio and then decreases

8. For a given compression ratio, as the mixture is made progressively rich from lean the mean effective pressure
a) increases
b) decreases
c) initially increases then decreases
d) remains more or less same

9. When the mixture is lean
a) efficiency is less
b) power output is less
c) maximum temperature and pressure are higher
d) all of the mentioned

10. For a compressor process with variable specific heat the peak temperature and pressure are
a) lower
b) higher
c) no effect
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Dual Cycle is a combination of
a) Otto cycle and Diesel cycle
b) Otto cycle and Stirling cycle
c) Brayton cycle and steam cycle
d) None of the mentioned

2. Dual cycle is also known as
a) Diesel cycle
b) Joule cycle
c) Mixed cycle
d) None of the mentioned

3. In Dual cycle, heat addition takes place
a) at Constant volume
b) first at constant volume then at constant pressure
c) constant pressure
d) none of the mentioned

4. In Dual cycle, heat rejection takes place
a) at Constant volume
b) first at constant volume then at constant pressure
c) constant pressure
d) none of the mentioned

5. Most high speed compression engines operate on
a) Otto cycle
b) Diesel Cycle
c) Dual cycle
d) Carnot cycle

6. In a standard dual air cycle, for a fixed amount of heat supplied and a fixed value of compression ratio, the mean effective pressure
a) shall increase with increase in rp and decreases in rc
b) shall increase with decrease in rp and increases in rc
c) shall remain independent of rp
d) shall remain independent of rc

7. The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine on weak mixtures is
a) unaffected
b) lower
c) higher
d) none of the mentioned

8. The volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be
a) 30 to 40%
b) 40 to 60%
c) 60 to 70%
d) 75 to 90%

Set 2

1. The normal heptane(C7H16) is given a rating of ____________ octane number.
a) 0
b) 50
c) 100
d) 120

2. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking intensity as a mixture of
a) 75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane
b) 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane
c) 75% petrol and 25% diesel
d) 75% diesel and 25% petrol

3. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
a) cetane and iso-octane
b) cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
c) cetane and normal heptane
d) none of the mentioned

4. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have
a) cetane number 65
b) octane number 65
c) cetane number 35
d) octane number 35

5. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of
a) 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene
b) 40% alpha methyl naphthalene and 60% cetane
c) 40% petrol and 60% diesel
d) 40% diesel and 60% petrol

6. Anti-knock for compression ignition engines is
a) napthene
b) tetra ethyl lead
c) amyl nitrate
d) hexadecane

7. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are
a) paraffins, aromatics, napthenes
b) paraffins, napthanes, aromatics
c) napthenes, aromatics, paraffins
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards detonation?
a) Benzene
b) Iso-octane
c) Normal heptane
d) Alcohol

9. Which of the following fuel detonates readily?
a) Benzene
b) Iso-octane
c) Normal heptane
d) Alcohol

10. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines can be decreased by adding dopes like tetra ethyle lead and ethylene dibromide.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. The knock limit is dependent upon
a) the type of fuel used
b) mixture ratio
c) spark advance
d) all of the mentioned

2. For volatile petroleum fuels of high octane number, the knocking is reduced at _____________ mixture.
a) very rich
b) very lean
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

3. For volatile petroleum fuels of high octane number, pre-ignition is reduced at _____________ mixture.
a) very rich
b) very lean
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

4. In alcoholic fuels the knock is reduced at _____________ mixtures.
a) rich
b) lean
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

5. A slight ___________ in lean mixture makes the engine operation irregular and intermittent.
a) increase
b) reduction
c) heat
d) none of the mentioned

6. The ignition timings and thermal load on the engine affect the knock limit of _____________ engine.
a) SI
b) CI
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

7. The pressure of supercharger used is
a) 1.0 to 1.3 bar
b) 1.2 to 1.4 bar
c) 1.3 to 1.5 bar
d) none of the mentioned

8. In CI engine, the power developed by the turbocharger is sufficient to drive the compressor, and overcome mechanical friction.
a) True
b) False

9. Increase in pressure and temperature of the intake air increases significantly delay and rate of pressure.
a) True
b) False

10. The speed range of turbocharger is from
a) 10000 to 20000 r.p.m
b) 20000 to 30000 r.p.m
c) 30000 to 40000 r.p.m
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The ECU in the electronic control system, receives signals from the sensors and determines the opening time for the injectors land which also controls the injection volume.
a) True
b) False

2. When the engine is cold, the starting of the engine is usually not
a) difficult
b) easy
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

3. When a cold engine is started, it requires a _____________ mixture.
a) leaner
b) richer
c) chemically equal
d) none of the mentioned

4. The cold start injector is a type of solenoid valve to which power is supplied from a battery for the opening and closing of the valve inside, thus for injecting the fuel.
a) True
b) False

5. The duration of injection time is controlled by a timing switch.
a) True
b) False

6. The ignition switch is composed of a bi-metal element and an electric heater coil.
a) True
b) False

7. As the temperature is low, the _____________ valve speeds up the engine idle speed to fast idling.
a) nozzle
b) throttle
c) air
d) None of the mentioned

8. When the engine is cold, the _____________ plate will be in closed position.
a) nozzle
b) throttle
c) air
d) None of the mentioned

9. When the engine reaches the normal operating temperature, the valve closes completely and the air flow is cut-off from the _____________ valve.
a) nozzle
b) throttle
c) air
d) None of the mentioned

10. A thermo wax valve operates depending on the temperature of the engine coolant.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. _____________ senor senses the amount of oxygen in the engine exhaust and calculates air-fuel ratio.
a) Engine temperature
b) Exhaust gas
c) Air flow
d) Air inlet temperature

2. In _____________ sensor, output voltage changes in proportion to air-fuel ratio.
a) engine temperature
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
d) air inlet temperature

3. The _____________ sensor senses the temperature of the engine coolant, and from this data the computer adjusts the mixture strength to rich side for cold starting.
a) engine temperature
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
d) air inlet temperature

4. The _____________ sensor, monitors mass or volume of air flowing into the intake manifold for adjusting the quantity of fuel.
a) engine temperature
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
d) air inlet temperature

5. The _____________ sensor, checks the temperature of the ambient air entering the engine for fine tuning the mixture strength.
a) engine temperature
b) exhaust gas
c) air flow
d) air inlet temperature

6. The _____________ sensor, senses the movement of the throttle plate so that the mixture flow can be adjusted for engine speed and acceleration.
a) throttle position
b) manifold pressure
c) camshaft position
d) knock

7. The ___________ sensor, monitors vacuum in the engine intake manifold so that the mixture strength can be adjusted with changes in engine load.
a) throttle position
b) manifold pressure
c) camshaft position
d) knock

8. The _____________ sensor, senses rotation of engine camshaft for speed and timing of injection.
a) throttle position
b) manifold pressure
c) camshaft position
d) knock

9. The _____________ sensor,is a microphone type sensor that detects ping or pre-ignition noise so that the ignition timing can be retarded.
a) throttle position
b) manifold pressure
c) camshaft position
d) knock

10. In electronic fuel injection, there is improvement in the _____________ efficiency due to comparatively less resistance in the intake manifolds which will cause less pressure losses.
a) mechanical
b) volumetric
c) overall
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The electronic fuel injection, eliminates majority of carburettor pressure loses and almost eliminates the requirement of manifold heating.
a) True
b) False

2. Manifold _____________ is eliminated due to the fuel being injected into or close to the cylinder and need not flow through the manifold.
a) heating
b) wetting
c) cooling
d) none of the mentioned

3. _____________ of fuel is independent of cranking speed and therefore starting will be easier.
a) Ignition
b) Atomization
c) Condensation
d) None of the mentioned

4. Better atomization and _____________ will make the engine less knock prone.
a) ignition
b) vapourization
c) condensation
d) none of the mentioned

5. Formation of ice on the _____________ plate is eliminated in electronic fuel injection.
a) throttle
b) nozzle
c) engine
d) none of the mentioned

6. In an electronic fuel injection, variation of air-fuel ratio is almost negligible even when the vehicle takes different positions like turning, moving on gradients, uneven roads etc.
a) True
b) False

7. In an electronic fuel injection, position of the injection unit is critical.
a) True
b) False

8. In an electronic fuel injection, the maintenance cost is
a) low
b) high
c) nil
d) none of the mentioned

9. In an electronic fuel injection, the servicing is very
a) difficult
b) easy
c) nil
d) none of the mentioned

10. In an electronic fuel injection, there is a possibility of malfunctioning of some sensors.
a) True
b) False

Set 2

1. The ratio of the heat equivalent to one kW hour to the heat in fuel per B.P. hour is termed as brake thermal efficiency.
a) True
b) False

2. The ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time to the energy supplied during the same time is called
a) mechanical efficiency
b) overall efficiency
c) indicated thermal efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency

3. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called
a) mechanical efficiency
b) overall efficiency
c) indicated thermal efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency

4. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is known as
a) mechanical efficiency
b) overall efficiency
c) relative efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency

5. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake thermal efficiency of the three given basic types of engines is
a) four stroke C.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine
b) four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine
c) four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine
d) two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine

6. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
a) decreasing the density of intake air
b) increasing the temperature of intake air
c) increasing the pressure of intake air
d) decreasing the pressure of intake air

7. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression ignition engine?
a) inlet valve closing after bottom dead center
b) inlet valve closing before bottom dead center
c) inlet valve opening before top dead center
d) exhaust valve closing after top dead center

8. As compared to air standard cycle, in actual working, the effect of variation in specific heats is to
a) increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature
b) decrease maximum pressure and maximum temperature
c) increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature
d) decrease maximum pressure and increase maximum temperature

9. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called
a) mechanical efficiency
b) overall efficiency
c) relative efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency

10. The overall efficiency is defined as the ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time to the energy supplied during the same time.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is called
a) net efficiency
b) efficiency ratio
c) relative efficiency
d) overall efficiency

2. Compression ratio of I.C. engine is
a) the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke.
b) volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder.
c) ratio of pressure after compression and before compression.
d) swept volume/cylinder volume.

3. The air standard efficiency of an otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression ratio is
a) same
b) less
c) more
d) more or less depending on power rating

4. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of
a) Kcal
b) Kcal/kg
c) Kcal/m2
d) Kcal/m3

5. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to
a) pLAN
b) 2pLAN
c) pLAN/2
d) 4pLAN
where p = mean effective pressure,
L = stroke
A = area of piston and
N = rpm of engine

6. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases its efficiency will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned

7. All heat engines utilize
a) low heat value of oil
b) high heat value of oil
c) net calorific value of oil
d) calorific value of fuel

8. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
a) speed
b) temperature
c) volume of cylinder
d) m.e.p and I.H.P

9. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I.C. engine are usually based on
a) low heat value of oil
b) high heat value of oil
c) net calorific value of oil
d) calorific value of fuel

10. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) be independent
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The total power developed by combustion of fuel in the combustion chamber is called
a) brake power
b) indicated power
c) mean effective pressure
d) none of the mentioned

2. The power developed by an engine at the output shaft is called
a) brake power
b) indicated power
c) mean effective pressure
d) none of the mentioned

3. The hypothetical pressure which is thought to be acting on the piston throughout the power stroke is called
a) brake power
b) indicated power
c) mean effective pressure
d) none of the mentioned

4. A 4-cylinder four stroke petrol engine develops 14.7 KW at 1000 r.p.m. The mean effective pressure is 5.5 bar. Calculate the bore and stroke of the engine, if the length of stroke is 1.5 times the bore.
a) 87.9 mm and 131.8 mm
b) 90 mm and 134 mm
c) 97.4 mm and 138 mm
d) none of the mentioned

5. A single cylinder, four stroke cycle oil engine is fitted with a rope brake. The diameter of the brake wheel is 600 mm and the rope diameter is 26 mm. The dead load on the brake is 200 N and the spring balance reads 30 N. If the engine runs at 450 r.p.m., what will be the brake power of the engine?
a) 2 kW
b) 2.5 kW
c) 3 kW
d) 3.5 kW

6. The brake output per unit of piston displacement is defined as brake power.
a) True
b) False

7. Types of absorption dynamo meters are
a) prony brake
b) rope brake
c) hydraulic brake
d) all of the mentioned

8. Transmission dynamo meters are also known as
a) rope brake
b) hydraulic brake
c) torque meters
d) none of the mentioned

9. The brake power is the power available
a) in the engine cylinder
b) at the crank shaft
c) at the crank pin
d) none of the mentioned

10. The frictional power (F.P) is given by
a) F.P. = B.P.-I.P.
b) F.P. = I.P.-B.P.
c) F.P. = B.P./I.P.
d) F.P. = I.P./B.P.

Set 5

1.The air fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
a) fuel pump
b) governor
c) injector
d) carburettor

2. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low loads
a) the friction is high
b) the friction is unpredictable
c) the small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect
d) the engine is rarely operated

3. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be
a) higher
b) lower
c) remain unaffected
d) none of the mentioned

4. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of
a) 6:1
b) 9:1
c) 12:1
d) 15:1

5. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
a) 1:1
b) 5:1
c) 10:1
d) 15:1

6. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine can not work is
a) 8:1
b) 10:1
c) 15:1
d) 20:1 and less

7. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine of vehicles, is of the order of
a) 9:1
b) 12:1
c) 15:1
d) 18:1

8. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 litre of fuel by a four stroke engine
a) 1m3
b) 2.5m3
c) 5-6m3
d) 9-10m3

9. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30:1. A petrol engine can also work on such a lean ratio provided
a) it is properly designed
b) best quality fuel is used
c) can not work as it is impossible
d) flywheel size is proper

10. A stoichiometric air fuel ratio is
a) chemically correct mixture
b) lean mixture
c) rich mixture for idling
d) rich mixture for over loads

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The injection of fuel into a SI engine can be done by
a) direct injection of fuel into the cylinder
b) injection of fuel close to the inlet valve
c) injection of fuel into the inlet manifold
d) all of the mentioned

2. _____________ injection is adopted when manifold injection is contemplated.
a) Continuous
b) Timed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

3. In _____________ injection, fuel is injected only during induction stroke over a limited period.
a) continuous
b) timed
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

4. Fuel injection in an SI engine _____________ volumetric efficiency.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) maintains constant
d) none of the mentioned

5. By using fuel injection in an SI engine, better _____________ efficiency is obtained.
a) thermal
b) mechanical
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

6. By using fuel injection in an SI engine, lower _____________ is obtained.
a) exhaust emission
b) thermal efficiency
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

7. The most accurate gasoline injection system is
a) direct injection
b) port injection
c) throttle body injection
d) manifold injection

8. Advantage of fuel injection in SI engine is
a) low initial cost
b) low maintenance requirements
c) increased volumetric efficiency
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

1. Quick and complete combustion is ensured by a well designed _____________
a) governor
b) fuel injector
c) throttle
d) none of the mentioned

2. By atomizing the fuel into very fine droplets, it _____________ the surface area of the fuel droplets.
a) increases
b) decreases
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

3. _____________ is done by forcing the fuel through a small orifice under high pressure.
a) Vacuum
b) Atomization
c) Carburation
d) None of the mentioned

4. The injector assembly consists of
a) a needle valve
b) a compression spring
c) a nozzle and an injector body
d) all of the mentioned

5. When the fuel is supplied by the injection pump, it exerts sufficient force against the spring to lift the
a) nozzle valve
b) throttle valve
c) mechanical valve
d) none of the mentioned

6. _____________ is sprayed into the combustion chamber in a finely atomized particles.
a) Air
b) Fuel
c) Water
d) None of the mentioned

7. The spring tension and the valve opening pressure is controlled by adjusting the screw provided at the
a) top
b) bottom
c) center
d) none of the mentioned

8. For proper lubrication between nozzle valve and its guide a small quantity of fuel is allowed to leak through the clearance.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
a) octane number
b) calorific value
c) self ignition temperature
d) cetane number

2. Petrol is distilled at a temperature in range of
a) 30-65ºC
b) 65-220ºC
c) 220-350ºC
d) 350-450ºC

3. Kerosene is distilled at
a) 30-65ºC
b) 65-220ºC
c) 220-350ºC
d) 350-450ºC

4. Self-ignition temperature of petrol is of the order of
a) 150ºC
b) 240ºC
c) 370ºC
d) more than 500ºC

5. Iso-octane
a) has octane number of 0
b) has octane number of 50
c) has octane number of 100
d) none of the mentioned

6. Octane number is determined by comparing the performance of the petrol with the following hydro-carbons
a) iso-octane
b) mixture of normal heptane and iso octane
c) alpha methyl napthalene
d) none of the mentioned

7. Cetane
a) has zero cetane number
b) has 100 cetane number
c) helps detonation
d) is a straight chain paraffin

8. Ethyl fluid is used
a) to increase the octane rating of the fuel
b) to increase the cetane rating of the fuel
c) as a defrosting agent
d) none of the mentioned

9. Normal heptane
a) accelerates auto-ignition
b) helps to resist auto-ignition
c) does not affect auto-ignition
d) none of the mentioned

10. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
a) diesel
b) petrol
c) gasoline
d) fuel oil

11. Polymerization is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound become
a) larger
b) smaller
c) liquid
d) gaseous

12. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is
a) less difficult to ignite
b) just about the same difficult to ignite
c) more difficult to ignite
d) none of the mentioned

13. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed air temperature of
a) 250ºC
b) 500ºC
c) 1000ºC
d) 1500ºC

14. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first.
a) kerosene
b) gasoline
c) paraffin
d) natural gas

15. Gaseous fuel guarantees are based on
a) calorific value of oil
b) low heat value of oil
c) mean heat value of oil
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Gaseous fuel is most suited for IC engine since physical delay is almost
a) zero
b) more
c) less
d) none of the mentioned

2. Advantage of hydrogen as an IC engine fuel
a) high volumetric efficiency
b) low fuel cost
c) no HC and CO emissions
d) none of the mentioned

3. Disadvantage of hydrogen as a fuel in IC engine is
a) storage is safe
b) low NOx
c) detonating tendency
d) easy handling

4. Major constituent of natural gas is
a) ethane
b) methane
c) butane
d) propane

5. Octane of natural gas is
a) 60-80
b) 80-100
c) >100
d) <60

6. Major disadvantage of LPG as fuel in automobiles is
a) reduction in life of engine
b) less power compared to gasoline
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

7. Hydrogen gas has ______________ self-ignition temperature.
a) very low
b) very high
c) no
d) none of the mentioned

8. The energy content of air hydrogen mixture is _________ than liquid hydrocarbon fuels.
a) lower
b) higher
c) negligible
d) none of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Multi-point fuel injection system uses
a) manifold injection
b) direct injection
c) port injection and throttle body injection
d) none of the mentioned

2. L-MPFI system uses
a) port injection
b) direct injection
c) manifold injection
d) throttle body injection

3. D-MPFI system uses
a) port injection
b) direct injection
c) manifold injection
d) throttle body injection

4. Common rail injection system uses injection pressures of the order
a) 100-200 bar
b) 200-400 bar
c) 400-600 bar
d) 1500 bar

5. Continuous injection system usually has
a) plunger pump
b) rotary pump
c) gear pump
d) vane pump

6. The cold start injector
a) maintain stoichiometric air-fuel ratio
b) provides lean air-fuel ratio
c) gives rich air-fuel ratio
d) none of the mentioned

7. ECU is an electronic injection system used for
a) calculating the appropriate injection timing
b) meeting only certain operating conditions
c) closing the injection valve only
d) none of the mentioned

8. With EFI of diesel engines
a) sharp start and stop is not possible
b) very high injection pressure can be obtained
c) sudden cylinder cut-off is impossible
d) diagnostic properties are poor

9. EFI system can achieve
a) proper injection timing
b) proper injection quantity
c) proper injection pressure
d) all of the mentioned

10. Gasoline engines are _____________ than diesel engines.
a) heavier
b) lighter
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. In an engine having group gasoline injection system, the injectors are activated
a) individually
b) in groups
c) both individually and in groups
d) none of the mentioned

2. For a group injection system, sensors are used for detecting _____________ in the manifold.
a) pressure
b) speed
c) coolant
d) none of the mentioned

3. The timing of the injectors is decided by the engine speed sensor.
a) True
b) False

4. In pilot ignition system, large quantity of fuel is injected.
a) True
b) False

5. By using EFI systems, precise control of injection timing can be achieved.
a) True
b) False

6. By means of EFI systems one can achieve the precise control of
a) fuel injection quality
b) injection rate during various stages of injection
c) injection pressure during injection
d) all of the mentioned

7. By means of EFI systems one can achieve the precise control of
a) nozzle opening speed
b) pilot injection timing and its quantity
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

8. By using EFI system we get,
a) very high injection pressure
b) sharp start and stop of injection
c) cylinder cut off
d) all of the mentioned

9. By using EFI system we get,
a) diagnostic capability
b) turbocharger control
c) two stage injection
d) all of the mentioned

10. Types of electronic diesel injection control are :
a) electronically controlled injection pumps
b) electronically controlled unit injectors
c) common rail fuel injection system
d) all of the mentioned

Set 2

1. The inputs used in electronically controlled diesel fuel injection systems are :
a) engine speed
b) crank shaft position
c) accelerator pedal position
d) all of the mentioned

2. The inputs used in electronically controlled diesel fuel injection systems are :
a) intake air temperature
b) lubricating oil temperature
c) ambient air temperature
d) all of the mentioned

3. The inputs used in electronically controlled diesel fuel injection systems are :
a) turbocharger boost pressure
b) intake air mass flow rate
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

4. The frequency of injection depends on the engine speed and number of cylinders.
a) True
b) False

5. The timing of injection has to be advanced as the speed
a) decreases
b) increases
c) stables
d) none of the mentioned

6. The lubricating oil and coolant temperatures does not indicate the engine condition.
a) True
b) False

7. The turbocharger boost pressure can not be used to detect the mass flow rate of air, which can be used to decide the fuel injection quantity.
a) True
b) False

8. The ECU generates the pulses to operate the solenoid controlled spill valve.
a) True
b) False

9. The end of injection in the conventional inline element is determined by the instant when the top of the plunger covers the bypass or the spill ports.
a) True
b) False

10. The end of delivery occurs when the helical slot or groove on the plunger uncovers the ports.
a) True
b) False

11. In common rail fuel injection system, very high injection pressures of order of _________ bar.
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 2000
d) none of the mentioned

12. In common rail fuel injection system, there is complete control over start and end of injection.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. Hydrogen has very ______________ density both as gas and as liquid.
a) high
b) low
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

2. Hydrogen engine operate on ____________ throttling.
a) very little
b) very high
c) without
d) none of the mentioned

3. The power output of hydrogen engine is limited by
a) detonation and knocking
b) pre-ignition and back flash
c) pre-ignition and detonation
d) none of the mentioned

4. Hydrogen gas has less than _______________ the density of air.
a) 1/12th
b) 1/10th
c) 2/3rd
d) 1/3rd

5. The heating value per unit volume of hydrogen gas is less than ______________ that of air.
a) 1/12th
b) 1/10th
c) 2/3rd
d) 1/3rd

6. Hydrogen can be used in S.I. engines by
a) manifold induction
b) direct introduction of hydrogen into the cylinder
c) supplementing gasoline
d) all of the mentioned

7. Hydrogen is _____________ reactive fuel.
a) highly
b) non
c) less
d) none of the mentioned

8. Natural gas obtained from oil wells is known as
a) dry gas
b) wet gas
c) casing head gas
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The ___________ type injection pump consist of a reciprocating plunger inside a barrel.
a) jerk
b) distributer
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

2. The plunger of a jerk type pump is driven by a
a) crankshaft
b) camshaft
c) pully
d) none of the mentioned

3. The axial distance traversed by the plunger is ____________ for every stroke.
a) same
b) different
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

4. Bosh fuel injection pump is an example of _______________ type fuel injector pump.
a) jerk
b) distributer
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

5. In a _____________ type of injection pump, the fuel is distributed to each cylinder by means of a rotor.
a) jerk
b) distributer
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

6. Advantage of petrol injections is
a) higher power
b) free from icing trouble
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

7. Disadvantage of petrol injection is
a) high initial cost
b) complicated design
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

8. In the idle speed adjustment of the pneumatic governor, when the set-screw in the system is slightly screwed in,
a) the idling speed will be reduced
b) the idling speed will be increased
c) there will be no idling speed
d) none of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Fuel delivered by a pump increases with
a) pressure
b) speed
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

2. Quantity of fuel delivered increases with load causing excessive
a) carbon deposits
b) high exhaust temperature
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

3. When the engine speed tends to exceed the limit the _____________ fly apart.
a) weight
b) volume
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

4. Lesser fuel causes the engine speed to
a) remain constant
b) increase
c) decrease
d) none of the mentioned

5. The purpose of a _____________ is to provide automatic control of the idling and maximum speeds to the engine.
a) governor
b) nozzle
c) throttle
d) none of the mentioned

6. The driver’s foot accelerator controls the intermediate _____________ of the engine.
a) pressure
b) speed
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

7. In a _____________ governor, the camshaft of the pump is fitted to two ball weights.
a) mechanical
b) pneumatic
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

8. The _____________ governor functions due to the vacuum created by suction in the air inlet pipe of the engine.
a) mechanical
b) pneumatic
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

9. In the _____________ governor, the induction part throttle is operated by the foot pedal accelerator.
a) mechanical
b) pneumatic
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

10. If the engine is at rest and the lever controlling the engine speed is released, the spring will force the control to reach its ______________ position.
a) maximum
b) minimum
c) center
d) none of the mentioned

11. When the mechanical governor is running on ‘no load’ position,
a) the ball weights fly
b) the ball weight do not fly
c) the speed increases
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. In a fuel-injection system, the amount of fuel delivered into the air stream going to the engine is controlled by a pump which forces the fuel under pressure.
a) True
b) False

2. The requirements met by the injection system are:
a) Proper atomization of fuel into very fine droplets
b) Proper spray pattern to ensure rapid mixing of fuel and air
c) Uniform distribution of fuel droplets throughout the combustion chamber
d) All of the mentioned

3. In an air injection system, __________ is forced into the cylinder by means of compressed air.
a) air
b) fuel
c) water
d) none of the mentioned

4. Fuel injector is used for
a) Gas engines
b) CI engines
c) SI engines
d) None of the mentioned

5. Advantage of air injection system is
a) cheaper fuels can be used
b) mep is high
c) fine atomization and distribution of the fuel
d) all of the mentioned

6. Commonly used injection system in automobiles is
a) air injection
b) solid injection
c) combination of (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

7. Fuel injection pressure in solid injection system is around
a) < 10 bar
b) 10-20 bar
c) 30-50 bar
d) 200-250 bar

8. Fuel filters do not use generally
a) oil
b) paper
c) cloth
d) felt

9. Fuel is injected in a four-stroke CI engine
a) at the end of suction stroke
b) at the end of expansion stroke
c) at the end of compression stroke
d) at the end of exhaust stroke

10. Advantage of fuel injection in SI engine is
a) low initial cost
b) low maintenance requirements
c) increased volumetric efficiency
d) none of the mentioned

11. A six cylinder, four-stroke diesel engine develops 125 kW at 3000 rpm. Its brake specific fuel consumption is 200gm/kW h. Calculate the quantity of fuel to be injected per cycle per cylinder. Specific gravity of the fuel may be taken as 0.85.
a) 0.0545 cc/cycle
b) 0.545 cc/ cycle
c) 5.45 cc/cycle
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

1. The fuel is injected into the inlet manifold of each cylinder at _____________ timing.
a) same
b) different
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

2. The timing at which the injection of the fuel takes place inside the inlet manifold is called _____________ timing.
a) injection
b) suction
c) combustion
d) none of the mentioned

3. In _____________ cylinder, the piston moves up from BDC to TDC during the exhaust stroke.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

4. Just before the piston reaches TDC during exhaust stroke, injection of the fuel takes place into the inlet manifold of the cylinder at about 60º crankangle before TDC.
a) True
b) False

5. At the beginning of the compression stroke, intake valve opens and the air fuel mixture is sucked into the cylinder during the suction stroke.
a) True
b) False

6. In the four cylinder engine, the ECU calculates the appropriate injection timing for each cylinder and the air fuel mixture is made available at each suction stroke.
a) True
b) False

7. In order to meet the operating conditions, the injection valve is kept open for a longer time by ECU.
a) True
b) False

8. In common rail fuel injection system, injection pressure is dependent of engine speed.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. In a spark ignition engine combustion which is initiated between the spark plug electrodes spreads across the combustible mixture.
a) True
b) False

2. A definite flame front is one which separates the fresh mixture from the products of combustion travels from the spark plug to the other end of the combustion chamber.
a) True
b) False

3. The process of autoignition has nothing to do towards engine knock.
a) True
b) False

4. In SI engine, ignition lag is reduced if the initial temperature and pressure are
a) decreased
b) increased
c) constant
d) none of the mentioned

5. Auto ignition refers to initiation of combustion without the necessity of a flame.
a) True
b) False

6. The effects of knocking are
a) noise and roughness
b) mechanical damage
c) carbon deposits
d) all of the mentioned

7. The effects of knocking are
a) increase in heat transfer
b) decrease in power output and efficiency
c) preignition
d) all of the mentioned

8. Increase of pressure increases the self ignition temperature and the induction period.
a) True
b) False

9. Low engine speeds will give low turbulence and low flame velocities and knock may occur at low speed.
a) True
b) False

10. Use of low octane fuel can eliminate detonation.
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. The basic measurement and testing parameters are
a) friction power
b) indicated power
c) brake power
d) all of the mentioned

2. The basic measurement and testing parameters are
a) fuel consumption
b) air flow
c) speed
d) all of the mentioned

3. _____________ is the difference between indicated and brake power of an engine.
a) Air flow
b) Emissions
c) Friction power
d) None of the mentioned

4. _____________ is also known as fuel rate extrapolation method.
a) Morse test
b) Motoring test
c) Willan’s line method
d) Retardation test

5. The internal losses in an engine are
a) pumping losses
b) brake losses
c) combustion losses
d) all of the mentioned

6. In Morse test, the engine is first run at the required speed by adjusting the throttle in ___________
a) CI engine
b) SI engine
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

7. The density of the fuel is dependent on temperature which can vary a wide range from ___________
a) 10 ºC to 70 ºC
b) -10 ºC to 70 ºC
c) 20 ºC to 80 ºC
d) -20 ºC to 80 ºC

8. Larger range of flow can be measured without pressure head being too ___________ in a viscous flow meter.
a) small
b) large
c) deep
d) none of the mentioned

9. The indicated power for multi-cylinder engine will be same as that of a single cylinder engine.
a) True
b) False

10. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned

Set 5

1. The main purpose of the Multi-Point Fuel Injection system is to supply a proper ratio of gasoline and air to the cylinders.
a) True
b) False

2. In the port injection arrangement, the injector is placed on the side of the intake manifold near the intake port.
a) True
b) False

3. Types of Multi-Point Fuel Injection system are
a) port injection
b) throttle body injection
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

4. The Multi-Point Fuel Injection system can be functionally divided into
a) electronic control system
b) fuel system
c) air induction system
d) all of the mentioned

5. In MPFI-Electronic Control System, the sensors that monitor intake air temperature, the oxygen, the water temperature, the starter signal and the throttle position send signals to the ECU.
a) True
b) False

6. In MPFI-Electronic Control System, the _____________ sensor sends information about the engine speed.
a) speed
b) ignition
c) air-flow
d) air-mass

7. In MPFI-Electronic system, at the time of starting, the cold start injector is operated by the cold start injector time switch.
a) True
b) False

8. In MPFI-Fuel system, the throttle receive signals from the ECU and inject the fuel into the intake manifold.
a) True
b) False

9. In MPFI-Air Induction System, the air cleaner, the air flow meter, the throttle body and the air valve supply a proper amount of air to the air intake chamber and intake manifold.
a) True
b) False

10. In MPFI-Fuel System, the quantity of air supplied is just what is necessary for complete combustion.
a) True
b) False

11. In D-MPFI system, the fuel metering is regulated by the engine speed and the amount of air that actually enters the engine.
a) True
b) False

12. In D-MPFI system, the vacuum in the intake manifold is first sensed.
a) True
b) False

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. _____________ is that part of an injector through which the liquid fuel is sprayed into the combustion chamber.
a) Governor
b) Nozzle
c) Throttle
d) None of the mentioned

2. _____________ is the first phase in obtaining proper mixing of the fuel and air in the combustion chamber.
a) Vaporization
b) Atomization
c) carburation
d) None of the mentioned

3. _____________ the injection pressure better the dispersion and penetration of the fuel into all the desired locations in combustion chamber.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) None of the mentioned

4. If the density of compressed air in the combustion chamber is ____________ then the resistance to the movement of the droplets is higher.
a) high
b) low
c) same
d) none of the mentioned

5. Fuel striking the walls of combustion chamber, decomposes and produces _____________ deposits.
a) iron
b) ash
c) carbon
d) none of the mentioned

6. ___________ nozzle is used in open combustion chambers.
a) Single hole
b) Multi hole
c) Circumferential hole
d) none of the mentioned

7. The size of the hole in a single hole nozzle is usually
a) 0.2 mm
b) < 0.2 mm
c) > 0.2 mm
d) none of the mentioned

8. In a single hole nozzle, the spray cone angle varies from
a) 50 to 150
b) 100 to 150
c) 50 to 100
d) none of the mentioned

9. The number of holes in a multi-hole nozzle, varies from
a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 18
c) 4 to 10
d) none of the mentioned

10. The hole diameter in a multi-hole nozzle, lies between
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.20 to 0.30 mm
c) 0.30 to 0.40 mm
d) none of the mentioned

11. The hole angle in a multi-hole nozzle, lies between
a) 100 to 150
b) 200 to 350
c) 200 to 450
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

1. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 100%

2. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is increased by increasing
a) pressure ratio
b) compression ratio
c) temperature ratio
d) none of the mentioned

3. The Otto cycle consists of
a) two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes
b) two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes
c) two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
d) none of the mentioned

4. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle
a) decreases with increase in compression ratio
b) increases with decrease in compression ratio
c) does not depends upon the pressure ratio
d) none of the mentioned

5. The work output of theoretical Otto cycle
a) increases with increase in compression ratio
b) increases with increase in pressure ratio
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

6. The mean effective pressure of an Otto Cycle increases with an increase in
a) pressure ratio
b) compression ratio
c) temperature ratio
d) none of the mentioned

7. In Otto cycle, heat addition takes place at
a) constant temperature
b) constant pressure
c) constant volume
d) none of the mentioned

8. If compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 6, its air standard efficiency will increase by
a) 1%
b) 20%
c) 16.67%
d) 8%

9. If compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the percentage increase in efficiency will be
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 8%
d) 14%

10. The constant volume cycle is also called
a) Carnot cycle
b) Joule cycle
c) Diesel cycle
d) Otto cycle

Set 3

1. To prevent blockage of the nozzle by dust particles, the gasoline is filtered by installing a ______________ at the inlet to the float chamber.
a) choke
b) fuel strainer
c) nozzle
d) none of the mentioned

2. The strainer consist of
a) a fine wire mesh
b) cone shaped filtering device
c) cylindrical shaped filtering device
d) all of the mentioned

3. The function of a float chamber in a carburetor is to supply the fuel to the nozzle at a
a) constant volume head
b) constant pressure head
c) variable pressure head
d) none of the mentioned

4. The main metering system of the carburetor controls the fuel feed for
a) cruising
b) full throttle operations
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

5. The main metering system of the carburetor consists of
a) the fuel metering orifice through which fuel is drawn from the float chamber
b) the main discharge
c) the passage leading to the idling system
d) all of the mentioned

6. The functions of the main metering system are
a) to proportion the fuel-air mixture
b) to decrease the pressure at the discharge nozzle exit
c) to limit the air flow at full throttle
d) all of the mentioned

7. The throttle regulates the output of the engine by ________________ the quantity of charge going into the cylinder.
a) constant regulating
b) varying
c) increasing
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. A simple carburetor supplies rich mixture during
a) starting
b) idling
c) cruising
d) accelerating

2. The size of carburetor is generally given in terms of the diameter of the ______________ in mm.
a) venturi tube
b) jet
c) nozzle
d) none of the mentioned

3. A decrease in the density of air ______________ the value of air-fuel ratio.
a) increases
b) reduces
c) equals
d) none of the mentioned

4. Venturi tube is also known as
a) choke tube
b) throat
c) nozzle
d) none of the mentioned

5. The pressure difference between the float chamber and the throat of the venturi is known as
a) carburetor expansion
b) carburetor acceleration
c) carburetor depression
d) none of the mentioned

6. The choke in an automobile meant is for supplying
a) lean mixture
b) rich mixture
c) stoichiometric mixture
d) weak mixture

7. Modern carburettors provide the correct quality of air-fuel mixture during
a) starting
b) idling
c) cruising
d) all of the mentioned

8. The air fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
a) carburetor
b) injector
c) governor
d) none of the mentioned

Set 5

1. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will
a) increase linearly
b) decrease linearly
c) increase parabolically
d) decrease parabolically

2. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to
a) instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
b) instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge
c) reduction of delay period
d) none of the mentioned

3. Volatility of diesel fuel is
a) maximum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapour in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when bought in contact with a flame
b) it catches fire without external aid
c) indicated by 90% distillation temperature
d) none of the mentioned

4. Violent sound pulsations within the cylinder of an I.C. engine are caused due to
a) heavy turbulence
b) improved scavenging
c) detonation
d) pre-ignition

5. Auto-ignition temperature is
a) maximum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapour in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when bought in contact with a flame
b) that at which it catches fire without external aid
c) indicated by 90% distillation temperature
d) none of the mentioned

6. Ignition lag is
a) the time taken by fuel after injection to reach upto auto-ignition temperature
b) time before actual fuel injection and the pump plinger starts to pump fuel
c) time corresponding to actual injection and top dead center
d) none of the mentioned

7. The delay period in petrol engine is of the order of
a) 0.001 sec
b) 0.002 sec
c) 0.01 sec
d) 0.1 sec

8. Detonation is caused by the following unstable compounds
a) peroxides, aldehydes and ketones
b) peroxides, aldehydes, oxides and sulphides
c) aldehydes, oxides and ketones
d) none of the mentioned

9. In order to prevent knock in the S.I. engines, the charge away from the spark plug should have
a) low temperature
b) low density
c) rich mixture
d) all of the mentioned

10. To reduce the possibility of knock in C.I. engines, the first elements of fuel and air should have
a) high temperature
b) high density
c) short delay
d) all of the mentioned

11. The detonation tendency in petrol engines for specified conditions of fuel rating, compression ratio, speed etc, can be controlled by having
a) smaller cylinder bore
b) bigger cylinder bore
c) medium cylinder bore
d) none of the mentioned

12. A fuel will detonate less if it has
a) higher self ignition temperature
b) lower self ignition temperature
c) proper self ignition temperature
d) none of the mentioned

13. Ignition quality of diesel fuel oil is expressed by an index called
a) octane number
b) cetane number
c) calorific value
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. For best results of efficient combustion, high speed diesel engines need an approximate cetane number of
a) 100
b) 10
c) 50
d) 5

2. Calorific value of diesel oil is of the order of
a) 3000 kcal/kg
b) 5000 kcal/kg
c) 7500 kcal/kg
d) 10000 kcal/kg

3. Carbon residue in diesel oil should not be more than
a) 1%
b) 0.5%
c) 0.1%
d) 0.01%

4. The most popular firing order in case of four cylinder in-line I.C. engine is
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 1-3-2-4
c) 1-4-2-3
d) 1-3-4-2

5. The compression ratio of motor cars is
a) 5
b) 7
c) 10
d) 13

6. The specific gravity of diesel oil is
a) 1
b) 0.7
c) 0.85
d) 0.5

7. Freezing temperature of petrol is about
a) 0.65
b) 0.75
c) 0.85
d) 0.95

8. Choose the correct statement, detonation can be controlled by
a) varying compression ratio
b) using lean mixture
c) retarding the spark timing
d) reducing the r.p.m

9. The efficiency of I.C. engines normally is of the order of
a) 15-20%
b) 20-25%
c) 25-30%
d) 30-35%

10. The firing order of a six stroke I.C. engine is
a) 1-3-6-5-2-4
b) 1-4-2-5-6-3
c) 1-6-2-5-4-3
d) 1-5-3-4-2-6

11. Sulphur content in diesel engine oil should not be more than
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 1%
d) 0.1%

12. The ash content in diesel oil should be not be more than
a) 1%
b) 5%
c) 0.1%
d) 0.01%

Set 2

1. The process of clearing the cylinder after the expansion stroke is called scavenging process.
a) True
b) False

2. Scavenging process is the replacement of combustion products in the cylinder from previous power stroke with fresh air charge to be burned in the next cycle.
a) True
b) False

3. The efficiency of a two stroke engine does not depends on the effectiveness of the scavenging process.
a) True
b) False

4. Inadequate scavenging leads to high mean indicated pressure which results in high weight and high cost per kW for the engine.
a) True
b) False

5. Inadequate scavenging leads to low amount of oxygen availability which results in incomplete combustion leading to higher specific fuel combustion.
a) True
b) False

6. Inadequate scavenging leads to contamination of lubricating oil to a greater extent which reduces the lubricating qualities and eventually results in increased wear of piston and cylinder liners.
a) True
b) False

7. Scavenging angle is the crank angle during which both inlet and exhaust port are open.
a) True
b) False

8. Scavenging period is the time period taken for crank angle.
a) True
b) False

9. The theoretical scavenging processes are
a) perfect scavenging
b) perfect mixing
c) short circuiting
d) all of the mentioned

10. In short circuiting process, the fresh charge coming from the scavenge manifold directly goes out of the exhaust ports without removing combustion products.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. The Stirling cycle consists of
a) two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
b) two isothermal and two constant volume processes
c) two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
d) none of the mentioned

2. In a Stirling cycle, the heat rejection and addition takes place at constant
a) pressure
b) volume
c) temperature
d) none of the mentioned

3. If Stirling cycle with regenerative arrangement and Carnot cycle operate within same temperature limits, then the thermal efficiency of Carnot cycle will be
a) same
b) half
c) twice
d) none of the mentioned

4. The Ericsson cycle consists of
a) two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
b) two isothermal and two constant volume processes
c) two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
d) none of the mentioned

5. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
a) reversible cycles
b) irreversible cycles
c) quasi-static cycles
d) semi-reversible cycles

6. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is _____________ Carnot cycle.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
d) none of the mentioned

7. The concept of regeneration is used in following cycles
a) Rankine and Stirling
b) Rankine and Ericsson
c) Ericsson and Stirling
d) None of the mentioned

8. The efficiency of Ericsson cycle is ___________ Carnot cycle.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) equal to
d) none of the mentioned

9. Both the Ericsson cycle and Joule’s cycle have two constant pressure processes.
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. Which of the following statement is not correct with respect to alcohols as alternate fuel in IC engines
a) anti-knock characteristics of alcohol is poor
b) alcohol contains about half the heat energy of gasoline/litre
c) alcohol does not vaporize as easily as gasoline
d) alcohols are corrosive in nature

2. Gasohol is a mixture of
a) 90% ethanol + 10% gasoline
b) 10% ethanol + 90% gasoline
c) 40% ethanol + 60% gasoline
d) 50% ethanol + 50% gasoline

3. Stoichiometric air-fuel ratio of alcohol when compared to gasoline is
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

4. Small amount of gasoline is added to alcohol to
a) reduce the emission
b) to increase the power output
c) to increase the efficiency
d) to improve cold weather starting

5. Methanol by itself is not a good CI engine fuel because
a) its octane number is high
b) its cetane number is low
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

6. Anti-knock characteristics of alcohol when compared to gasoline is
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

7. Alcohols alone cannot be used in CI engines as
a) their self ignition temperature is high
b) latent heat of vaporization is high
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

8. The compression ratio of alcohol fuel lies between
a) 11:1 to 13:1
b) 7:1 to 9:1
c) 5:1 to 7:1
d) none of the mentioned

9. The calorific value of alcohols is _____________ in diesel oil.
a) higher than
b) lower than
c) same
d) none of the mentioned

10. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is
a) alcohol
b) water
c) lead
d) none of the mentioned

Set 5

1. An SI engine sometimes continues to run for a very small period even after the ignition is switched off. This phenomenon is called
a) idling
b) dieseling
c) throttling
d) none of the mentioned

2. Dieseling may take place due to
a) engine idling speed set to high
b) increase in compression ratio due to carbon deposits
c) inadequate or low octane rating
d) all of the mentioned

3. Dieseling may take place due to
a) engine overheating
b) too high spark plug heat range
c) incorrect adjustment of idle fuel-air mixture
d) all of the mentioned

4. Dieseling may take place due to
a) sticking of throttle
b) requirement of tune up of engine and oil entry into the cylinder
c) none of the mentioned
d) all of the mentioned

5. The solenoid valve operated idling circuit reduces
a) engine performance
b) hydrocarbon emissions
c) CO emissions
d) none of the mentioned

6. In order to accelerate the vehicle and consequently its engine, the mixture required is very
a) rich
b) lean
c) thin
d) none of the mentioned

7. An economizer valve opens at ______________ throttle operation.
a) half
b) full
c) partial
d) none of the mentioned

8. Economizer is also known as
a) power enrichment system
b) power less system
c) power throttle system
d) none of the mentioned

9. Economizer allows a large opening to the main jet when the throttle is ____________ beyond a specified limit.
a) closed
b) opened
c) partially opened
d) none of the mentioned

10. The metering rod used in an economizer
a) is tapered
b) is not tapered
c) may be tapered
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the crankshaft.
a) True
b) False

2. A two stroke cycle engine gives _____________ the number of power strokes as compared to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) four times

3. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle engine.
a) True
b) False

4. A two stroke engine gives _____________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle engine.
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

5. The two stroke cycle engine have lighter flywheel.
a) True
b) False

6. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _____________ a four stroke cycle engine.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned

7. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
a) beginning of suction stroke
b) end of suction stroke
c) end of compression stroke
d) none of the mentioned

8. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a
a) haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) radial motion of the gases in the chamber
d) none of the mentioned

9. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently high pressure in order to
a) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke.
b) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization.
c) ensure that penetration is not high
d) all of the mentioned

10. Which of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?
a) 30 kW four stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
b) 30 kW two stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m
c) 30 kW two stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m
d) 30 kW four stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m

Set 2

1. Carburetors are categorized depending upon
a) direction of flow of air
b) direction of flow of fuel
c) direction of flow of air-fuel
d) none of the mentioned

2. In updraught type carburetors, air enters at the
a) center
b) top
c) bottom
d) none of the mentioned

3. In updraught type carburetors, air leaves at the
a) center
b) top
c) bottom
d) none of the mentioned

4. In the constant choke carburetor, the air and fuel flow areas are always maintained to be
a) constant
b) variable
c) linear
d) none of the mentioned

5. In the constant choke carburetor,he pressure difference that causes flow of fuel and air is kept
a) constant
b) variable
c) linear
d) none of the mentioned

6. Solex and Zenith carburetors are
a) constant choke carburetors
b) constant vacuum carburetors
c) multiple venturi carburetors
d) multi jet carburetors

7. The constant vacuum carburetor is also known as
a) constant choke carburetor
b) variable choke carburetor
c) multiple venturi carburetor
d) multi jet carburetor

8. In constant vacuum carburetor, air and fuel flow areas are maintained at a ____________ rate as per the demand on the engine.
a) constant
b) variable
c) linear
d) none of the mentioned

9. In constant vacuum carburetor, the vacuum is maintained at a ___________ rate.
a) constant
b) variable
c) linear
d) none of the mentioned

10. S.U and Carter carburetors are
a) constant choke carburetors
b) constant vacuum carburetors
c) multiple venturi carburetors
d) multi jet carburetors

Set 3

1. Multiple venturi system uses ____________ venturi.
a) single
b) multiple
c) double or triple
d) none of the mentioned

2. _____________ depression is created in the region of the fuel nozzle.
a) high
b) low
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

3. In multiple venturi system, the condensation of fuel is
a) increased
b) kept constant
c) reduced
d) none of the mentioned

4. In multiple venturi system, the speed system is
a) high
b) low
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

5. A dual carburetor supplies ______________ quality charge of the mixture to the cylinders.
a) uniform
b) variable
c) linear
d) none of the mentioned

6. The volumetric efficiency of a dual carburetor is ________________ in a single barrel carburetor.
a) lower than
b) higher than
c) same as
d) none of the mentioned

7. Carburetors with two outlets connected to two intake manifolds are known as
a) barrel
b) two throat carburetors
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

8. The important requirements of an automobile carburetors are
a) ease of starting the engine, particularly under low ambient conditions
b) ability to give full power quickly after starting the engine
c) equally good and smooth engine operation at various loads
d) all of the mentioned

9. The important requirements of an automobile carburetors are
a) good and quick acceleration of the engine
b) developing sufficient power at high engine speeds
c) simple and compact in construction
d) all of the mentioned

10. The important requirements of an automobile carburetors are
a) good fuel economy
b) absence of racing of the engine under idling conditions
c) ensuring full torque at low speeds.
d) all of the mentioned

11. A soles carburetor has
a) good ease of starting
b) good performance
c) reliability
d) all of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The following bracket is welded to the vertical column. The joint undergoes torsional stresses.
a) True
b) False

2. A bracket is shown welded to a vertical column by means of two fillet welds. The bending stress induced in the welds can be given by
a) My/I
b) 2My/I
c) My/2I
d) None of the listed

3. Calculate the moment of inertia about the axis parallel to welds and shift it to CG by considering thickness of welds t.
a) tᵌ+2000t
b) None of the listed
c) 250000 t
d) 125000 t

4. Find the bending stress in the top weld is if thickness of weld is t. Given P=15kN and e=120mm.
a) 230/t
b) 360/t
c) 200/t
d) None of the listed

5. Find the thickness of the weld is if allowable shear stress in the welds is 70N/mm². Given P=15kN and e=120mm.
a) None of the listed
b) 3.35mm
c) 4mm
d) 4.73mm

6. The bracket welded to the vertical plate by means of two fillet welds. Calculate the bending stress in the welds if P=40kN, leg=4mm and e=400mm.
a) None of the listed
b) 34N/mm²
c) 24 N/mm²
d)44 N/mm²

7. The bracket welded to the vertical plate by means of two fillet welds. Calculate size of the welds if P=40kN, leg=4mm and e=400mm. Maximum permissible value of shear stress in the weld is 70N/mm².
a) 1.4mm
b) 1.7mm
c) 2.1mm
d) 3mm

8. While calculating bending stress in the following welded joints which of the welds moment of inertia can be neglected?
a) 1
b) None of the listed
c) Both 1 & 3
d) Both 2 & 4

9. If a circular shaft is welded to the plate by means of circumferential fillet, then the shaft is subjected to torsional moment M. If throat of weld is t, then torsional shear stress is given by
a) M/2πtr²
b) M/πtr²
c) M/4πtr²
d) None of the listed

10. Magnetic crack detection method in the welds is destructible examination.
a) True
b) False

11. Testing the ultimate strength of the weld falls in nondestructive examination.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. Which of the following is correct about series of range of speed in simple lathe?
a) Geometric progression
b) Arithmetic progression
c) Logarithmic progression
d) Harmonic progression

2. Which of the following is the correct basis in designing feed gear box for screw cutting?
a) Geometric progression
b) Arithmetic progression
c) Logarithmic progression
d) Harmonic progression

3. If cutting tool travel 1000mm in the direction of feed motion with work piece rotational speed of 500 rpm and feed rate of 0.2mm/rev, machining time in minutes will be
a) 2
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

4. Facing of work piece of diameter 72mm is need to be done at spindle speed of 80 rev per min at cross feed of 0.3mm/rev. The time required in minute for facing operation will be
a) 2
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3

5. Compound rest swiveling method in taper turning operation is most suitable for
a) Long jobs with small taper angles
b) Short jobs with small taper angles
c) Short jobs with steep taper angles
d) Long jobs with steep taper angles

6. In which of the following, tail stock method of taper turning operation will be preferred more?
a) Internal tapers
b) Steep tapers
c) Small tapers
d) Long slender tapers

7. Which of the followings is the correct type of threads used in lead screw having half nut in lathe which is free to rotate in both directions?
a) ACME threads
b) Buttress threads
c) Whitworth threads
d) V‐threads

8. Which of the following is used to produce quality screw threads?
a) Thread casting
b) Thread cutting with single point tool
c) Thread milling ad cutting with single point tool
d) Thread chasing

9. Which of the following can produce both external as well as internal threads?
a) Die threading with self‐opening die heads
b) Thread tapping with taps
c) Thread milling and multiple‐thread cutters
d) Thread chasing with multiple‐rib chasers

10. In surface finishing operation one should use a sharp tool with a ______ feed and _______ Speed of rotation of the job.
a) Minimum, minimum
b) Minimum, maximum
c) Maximum, maximum
d) Maximum, minimum

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. A step-down delta-star transformer, with per-phase turns ratio of 5 is fed from a 3-phase 1100 V, 50 Hz source. The secondary of this transformer is connected through a 3-pulse type rectifier, which is feeding feeding an R load. Find the average value of output voltage.
a) 220 V
b) 257 V
c) 1100/√3 V
d) 206 V

2. The circuit shown below is that of a
power-electronics-mcqs-q2
a) 3-phase, 6-pulse, diode rectifier
b) 3-phase, 6-pulse, diode inverter
c) 3-phase, 3-pulse, diode rectifier
d) 3-phase, 3-pulse, diode inverter

3. A step-down delta-star transformer, with per-phase turns ratio of 5 is fed from a 3-phase 1100 V source. The secondary of this transformer is connected through a 3-pulse type rectifier, which is feeding an R load.
The power delivered to the load is 6839.3 Watts.
The maximum value of the load current is √2 x 22 A.
Fin, the rms value of output voltage Vo (rms)
a) 257.3 V
b) 220 V
c) 261.52 V
d) 248.32 V

4. From the diode rectifier circuit shown below, with phase sequence R-Y-B, diodes D3 & D5 conduct when
power-electronics-mcqs-q2
a) R is the most positive & B is the most negative
b) R is the most positive & Y is the most negative
c) R is the most negative & B is the most positive
d) R is the most negative & Y is the most positive

5. From the diode rectifier circuit shown below, with phase sequence R-Y-B, from ωt = 150° to 270°
power-electronics-mcqs-q2
a) D1
b) D2
c) D3
d) None of the diodes conduct

6. A 3-phase 6-pulse diode rectifier is shown below with phase sequence R-Y-B. The negative group of diodes (D4, D5, D6) conduct in sequence (from ωt = 0°)
power-electronics-mcqs-q2
a) D4-D5-D6
b) D5-D6-D4
c) D6-D5-D4
d) D6-D4-D5

7. For a 3-phase 6-pulse diode rectifier, has Vml as the maximum line voltage value on R load. The peak current through each diode is
a) Vml/2R
b) 2Vml/R
c) Vml/R
d) Insufficient Data

8. A 3-phase bridge rectifier, has the average output voltage as 286.48 V. Find the maximum value of line voltage
a) 100 V
b) 200 V
c) 300 V
d) 400 V

9. A 3-phase bridge rectifier charges a 240 V battery. The rectifier is given a 3-phase, 230 V supply. The current limiting resistance in series with the battery is of 8 Ω.
Find the average value of battery charging current.
a) 12.56 A
b) 8.82 A
c) 9.69 A
d) 6.54 A

10. A 3-phase bridge rectifier charges a 240-V battery. The rectifier is given a 3-phase 230 V supply. The current limiting resistance in series with the battery is 8 Ω.
Find the power delivered to the battery (Pdc).
a) Pdc = 2000 W
b) Pdc = 1226 W
c) Pdc = 2356 W
d) Pdc = 2116 W

Set 2

1. A single-phase full wave mid-point type diode rectifier requires __________ number of diodes whereas bridge type requires _________
a) 1,2
b) 2,4
c) 4,8
d) 3,2

2. A single-phase full wave rectifier is a
a) single pulse rectifier
b) multiple pulse rectifier
c) two pulse rectifier
d) three pulse rectifier

3. The below shown circuit is that of a
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-1-q3
a) full wave B-2 type connection
b) full wave M-2 type connection
c) half wave B-2 type connection
d) half wave M-2 type connection

4. In a 1-phase full wave bridge rectifier with M-2 type of connection has secondary side voltage Vs = Vm sin ωt, with R load & ideal diodes.
The expression for the average value of the output voltage can be given by
a) 2Vm/Ï€
b) Vm/Ï€
c) Vm/√2
d) 2Vm/√2

5. The below shown circuit is that of a
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-1-q5
a) full wave B-2 type connection
b) full wave M-2 type connection
c) half wave B-2 type connection
d) half wave B-2 type connection

6. In a 1-phase full wave bridge rectifier with M-2 type of connection has secondary side voltage Vs = Vm sin ωt,
with R load & ideal diodes.
The expression for the rms value of the output voltage can be given by
a) Vm/Ï€
b) Vm/√2
c) Vm
d) Vm2

7. For the circuit shown below, find the power delivered to the R load
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-1-q3
Where,
Vs = 230V
Vs is the secondary side single winding rms voltage.
R = 1KΩ
a) 46 W
b) 52.9 W
c) 67.2 W
d) 69 W

8. The PIV experienced by the diodes in the mid-point type configuration is
a) Vm
b) 2Vm
c) 4Vm
d) Vm/2

9. For the circuit shown below, find the value of the average output current.
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-1-q3
Where,
Vs = 230V
R = 1KΩ
Vs is the secondary side single winding rms voltage.
a) 100mA
b) 107mA
c) 200mA
d) 207mA

10. In the circuit, let Im be the peak value of the sinusoidal source current. The average value of the diode current for the below given configuration is
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-1-q5
a) Im
b) Im/2
c) Im/Ï€
d) Im/√2

Set 3

1. The PIV experienced by each of the diodes for the below shown rectifier configuration is
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-2-q1
a) Vm
b) 2Vm
c) 3Vm
d) Vm/2

2. For the circuit shown in the figure below,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-2-q1
Vs = 230 V
R = 10Ω
Find the average value of output current.
a) 207.04 A
b) 20.704 A
c) 2.0704 A
d) 207.04 mA

3. Choose the correct statement regarding the below given circuit.
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-2-q3
a) The load current is never negative
b) The load current is never zero
c) The load current is never positive
d) The load voltage is never negative

4. For a single phase, full bridge, diode rectifier excited from a 230 V, 50 Hz source. With R = 10 Ω & the inductance(L) large enough to maintain continues conduction, the average and rms values of diode currents will be
a) 7.85 A, 8 A
b) 10.35 A, 7.85 A
c) 10.35 A, 14.6 A
d) 8 A, 8 A

5. The circuit shown below, will have the output voltage waveform similar to that of a
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-2-q5
a) half wave rectifier with RL load
b) full wave bridge rectifier with RL load
c) full wave bridge rectifier with R load
d) full wave bridge rectifier with RC load

6. For the circuit shown below, the load current attains the maximum value at ωt =
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-2-q3
a) 0
b) π
c) 2Ï€
d) none of the mentioned

7. For a single phase, full bridge, diode rectifier excited from a 230 V, 50 Hz source. With R = 10 Ω & the inductance(L) large enough to maintain continuous conduction, the value of the supply power factor will be
a) 0.707 lag
b) 0.9 lag
c) 0.86 lag
d) Unity

8. The rectification efficiency for B-2 type & M-2 type full wave diode rectifiers are ___ & ___ respectively.
a) 8/Ï€ & 4/Ï€
b) 4/Ï€ & 8/Ï€
c) 8/Ï€ & 8/Ï€
d) 4/Ï€ & 4/Ï€

9. A load of R = 60 Ω is fed from 1phase, 230 V, 50 Hz supply through a step-up transformer & than a diode. The transformer turns ratio = 2. The power delivered to the load is
a) 614 Watts
b) 714 Watts
c) 814 Watts
d) 914 Watts

10. For the circuit shown below, D11 & D14 conduct from?
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-fw-2-q5
Assume that anode of D12 is positive at ωt = 0 and likewise.
a) 0 to π
b) π to 2π
c) 2Ï€ to 3Ï€
d) 0 to π/2

Set 4

1. In the process of diode based rectification, the alternating input voltage is converted into
a) an uncontrolled alternating output voltage
b) an uncontrolled direct output voltage
c) a controlled alternating output voltage
d) a controlled direct output voltage

2. In a half-wave rectifier, the
a) current & voltage both are bi-directional
b) current & voltage both are uni-directional
c) current is always uni-directional but the voltage can be bi-directional or uni-directional
d) current can be bi-directional or uni-directional but the voltage is always uni-directional

3. For a certain diode based rectifier, the output voltage (average value) is given by the equation
1/2π [ ∫Vm sin ωt d(ωt) ]
Where the integral runs from 0 to π
The rectifier configuration must be that of a
a) single phase full wave with R load
b) single phase full wave with RL load
c) single phase half wave with R load
d) single phase half wave with RL load

4. For a single phase half wave rectifier, with R load, the diode is reversed biased from ωt =
a) 0 to π, 2π to 2π/3
b) π to 2π, 2π/3 to 3π
c) π to 2π, 2π to 2π/3
d) 0 to π, π to 2π

5. For the circuit shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-1-q5
The secondary transformer voltage Vs is given by the expression
Vs = Vm sin ωt
Find the PIV of the diode.
a) √2
b) Vs
c) Vm
d) √2 Vm

6. For the circuit shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-1-q6
The peak value of the load current occurs at ωt = ?
a) 0
b) π
c) 2Ï€
d) Data is insufficient

7. Find the rms value of the output voltage for the circuit shown below.
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-1-q7
Voltage across the secondary is given by Vm sinωt.
a) Vm
b) 2Vm
c) Vm/2
d) Vm2/2

8. In a 1-Phase HW diode rectifier with R load, the average value of load current is given by
Take Input (Vs) = Vm sinωt
a) Vm/R
b) Vm/2R
c) Vm/Ï€R
d) Zero

9. In the circuit shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-1-q9
The switch (shown in green) is closed at ωt = 0. The load current or capacitor current has the maximum value at ωt =
a) 0
b) π
c) 2Ï€
d) none of the mentioned

10. Find the average value of output current for a 1-phase HW diode rectifier with R load, having RMS output current = 100A.
a) 200R A
b) 100/R√2 A
c) 200/R√2 A
d) 200/RÏ€ A

Set 5

1. A 1-phase 230V, 1KW heater is connected across a 1-phase HW rectifier (diode based). The power delivered to the heater is
a) 300 W
b) 400 W
c) 500 W
d) 600 W

2. A 1-phase half wave diode rectifier with R load, has input voltage of 240 V. The input power factor is
a) Unity
b) 0.707 lag
c) 0.56 lag
d) 0.865 lag

3. A 1-phase half wave diode rectifier with R = 1 KΩ, has input voltage of 240 V. The diode peak current is
a) Zero
b) 240mA
c) 24mA
d) 0.24mA

4. For the below given circuit, after the switch is closed the voltage across the load (shown open) remains constant.
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-2-q4
Assuming that all initial conditions are zero. The element across the load would be a/an
a) resistor
b) capacitor
c) inductor
d) data not sufficient

5. For the below given circuit,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-2-q5
After the supply voltage (Vs) is given the
a) diode starts conducting
b) diode starts conducting only when Vs exceeds Vdc
c) diode never conducts
d) diode stops conducting only when Vs exceeds Vdc

6. For the below given circuit,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-2-q6
With Vs = Vm sin ωt (secondary side). The expression for the average voltage is
a) Vm
b) Vm/2Ï€
c) Vm/Ï€
d) Vm/2

7. For the below given circuit, the
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-2-q7
a) output voltage is never positive
b) output current is never positive
c) output current is never zero
d) output voltage is never zero

8. For the below given circuit,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-2-q8
Vs = 325 sin ωt (secondary side)
The ripple voltage is
a) 125.32 V
b) 255.65 V
c) 325 V
d) 459.12 V

9. For a single phase half wave rectifier, the rectifier efficiency is always constant & it is
a) 4/Ï€2
b) 8/Ï€2
c) 100
d) 2/Ï€2

10. For the below given circuit,
power-electronics-mcqs-1p-diode-rectifiers-hw-2-q7
The power delivered to the load in Watts is
a) I(avg).Vdc
b) I(avg).Vdc + I(rms)2.R
c) I(avg).Vdc – I(rms)2.R
d) I(avg).Vdc + I(avg)2.R

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. In a three-phase half wave rectifier usually, the primary side of the transformer is delta connected because
a) it has no neutral connection
b) we can get greater output voltage
c) it provides a path for the triplen harmonics
d) it provides better temperature stability

2. The diode rectifier circuit given below is that of a
power-electronics-mcqs-3phase-rectifiers-1-q2
a) three-phase half wave common cathode arrangement
b) three-phase half wave common anode arrangement
c) three-phase full wave common cathode arrangement
d) three-phase full wave common anode arrangement

3. In a three-phase half wave diode rectifier using 3 diodes, each diode conducts for
a) 90 degrees
b) 120 degrees
c) 180 degrees
d) 360 degrees

4. In the below shown diode rectifier circuit,
power-electronics-mcqs-3phase-rectifiers-1-q4
The diodes D1, D2 & D3 are connected to phases R,Y and B respectively as shown
The phase sequence is R-Y-B.
The diode D1 would conduct from
a) 0 to 90 degrees
b) 30 to 150 degrees
c) 0 to 180 degrees
d) 30 to 180 degrees

5. In the below shown diode rectifier circuit,
power-electronics-mcqs-3phase-rectifiers-1-q4
The diodes D1, D2 & D3 are connected to phases R,Y and B receptively as shown
The phase sequence is R-Y-B.
The diode D3 conducts from
a) 0 to 270 degrees
b) 270 to 390 degrees
c) 270 to 450 degrees
d) 270 to 360 degrees

6. In a three-phase half wave diode rectifier using 3 diodes,
a) All diodes conduct together
b) Only two diodes conduct at a time
c) Only one diode conducts at a time
d) None of the above mentioned

7. In a three-phase half wave diode rectifier, if Vmp is the maximum phase voltage, then the output voltage on a R load varies from
a) 0 to Vmp
b) 0.5 Vmp to Vmp
c) Vmp to 3Vmp
d) –Vmp to Vmp

8. The average value of the output voltage, in a 3-phase half wave diode rectifier with Vml as the maximum line voltage value, is given by the expression
a) Vml/3Ï€
b) 2Vml/3Ï€
c) 3Vml/2Ï€
d) 3Vml

9. In a three-phase half wave 6-pulse mid-point type diode rectifier, each diode conducts for
a) 120°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 180°

10. A step-down delta-star transformer, with per-phase turns ration of 5, is fed from a 3-phase, 1100 V, 50 Hz source. The secondary of this transformer through a 3-pulse type rectifier feeds a R load of 10 Ω. Find the maximum value of the load current (phase).
a) √2 x 22 A
b) 1 x 11 A
c) √2 x 11 A
d) 1 x 22 A

Set 2

1. An ideal diode has _________ &__________
a) some forward voltage drop, some reverse recovery time
b) high switching losses, high reverse voltage drop
c) no forward voltage drop, negligible reverse recovery time
d) no reverse recovery time, high leakage current

2. A diode circuit is so arranged that when the switch is open it’s KVL gives
Ri+ 1/C ∫i dt = 0
When the switch is closed,
Ri+ 1/C ∫i dt = Vs
Vs is the dc supply voltage.
The diode is so connected that it is forward biased when switch is closed
The circuit is mostly likely be a
a) diode in parallel with Vs, switch, R & C
b) diode in series with R, than parallel with Vs & C
c) diode in series with the switch, R, C & Vs
d) diode in series with R,C & Vs with the switch connected in parallel across Vs

3. A circuit is so formed such that the source-R-C-diode-switch are in series. Consider the initial voltage across the C to be zero. The diode is so connected that it is forward biased when the switch is closed. When the switch is closed,
a) the current will decay exponentially & the voltage will increase exponentially
b) the current will increase exponentially & the voltage will increase exponentially
c) the current will fall to zero & the voltage both will decay exponentially
d) the voltage and current both remain constant

4. The time constant of a series RC circuit (Ï„) is given by
a) R/C
b) C/R
c) RC
d) 1/RC

5. A circuit is so formed such that source-R-L-diode-switch are all in series. Consider the initial current in L to be zero. The diode is so connected that it is forward biased when switch is closed.
When the switch is closed,
a) the current will decay exponentially & the voltage will increase exponentially
b) the current will increase exponentially & the voltage will decay exponentially
c) the current will fall to zero & the voltage both will decay exponentially
d) the voltage and the current both remain constant

6. In the figure shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-1-q6
As the switch (shown in the green) is pressed, the voltage across the diode(ideally)
a) increases to Vs/R
b) increases to Vs
c) decreases to zero
d) remains Constant

7. For a diode circuit the voltage across the capacitor is given by
Vc(t)= Vs(1-e(-t/RC))
Then the initial rate of change of capacitor voltage is given by
a) 0
b) ∞
c) Vs x RC
d) Vs/RC

8. In the circuit show below,
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-1-q8
The initial current through the inductor is zero. When the switch (shown in green) is closed, then the current through the inductor
a) decreases from Vs/R to 0
b) increases from zero to Vs/R
c) decreases from Vs/L to 0
d) increases from zero to Vs/L

9. In the figure shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-1-q6
When the switch is open, the voltage across the diode (ideally)
a) is Vs/R
b) is Vs
c) is zero
d) none of the mentioned

10. The time constant of a series RL circuit (Ï„) is given by
a) R/L
b) L/R
c) RC
d) 1/RL

Set 3

1. For the initially relaxed circuit shown below, KVL with switch in the closed position gives a certain equation. The Laplace of this equation will have the right hand side (RHS) as
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q1
a) Vs
b) (Vs x s)/RC
c) Vs/s
d) RC/s

2. For the initially relaxed circuit shown below, the Laplace transform of the KVL when the switch is closed is
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q1
I(s) [ X ] = Vs/s
The value of X is
a) sL + 1/C
b) Cs + 1/sL
c) sL + 1/sC
d) Vs/CLs

3. For the initially relaxed circuit shown below, if Ω=1/√LC. Then the current is a function of ___
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q1
a) cos Ωt
b) sin Ωt
c) tan Ωt
d) cos Ωt.sin Ωt

4. For the circuit shown below, the capacitor is initially charged to a voltage of Vo with the upper plate positive. After the switch (shown in green) is closed, the current through the load
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q4
a) increases from zero to Vo/R
b) decreases from Vo/R to zero
c) increases from zero to Vo/C
d) decreases from Vo/C to zero

5. For the circuit shown below, the capacitor is initially charged to a voltage of Vo with the upper plate positive. Switch is closed at t=0. The peak value of the current through the diode is
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q4
a) Vo/C
b) Vo/R
c) Vo
d) Vo/(RC)

6. When the switch (shown in green) is closed, the average current through the diode in the positive cycle is
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q6
a) 0
b) Vs/R
c) Vs/(R+Rd)
d) none of the mentioned

7. When the switch is closed, the steady state current through the diode is
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q7
a) Vo/C
b) Vo/R
c) Vo
d) Vo/(RC)

8. When the switch is open, the current through the diode in the positive cycle is
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q6
a) zero
b) Vs/R
c) Vs/(R+Rd)
d) none of the mentioned

9. For the circuit shown in the figure below, consider the diode as an ideal diode & R.M.S value of source voltage as Vs.
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q9
The output voltage waveform at R is most likely to have
a) zero value in the positive half cycle and a peak value of 1.414Vs in the negative half cycle
b) sine-wave nature with a peak value 1.414Vs
c) zero value in the negative half cycle and a peak value of 1.414Vs in the positive half cycle
d) sine-wave nature with a peak value Vs

10. For the circuit shown in the figure below, V8 is AC voltage source with peak value Vm. The waveform of the load voltage at the resistor is
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-2-q10
a) zero in the positive half & peak value of –(Vm) negative half
b) zero in the negative half & peak value of –(Vm-V1) in the positive half
c) zero in the positive half & peak value of –(Vm+V1) negative half
d) zero in the positive half & peak value of –(Vm-V1) negative half

Set 4

1. For the circuit shown in the figure below, consider the diode as an ideal diode & rms value of source voltage as Vs.
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q1
The output voltage waveform at R will have
a) zero value in the positive half cycle and a peak value of 1.414Vs in the negative half cycle
b) sine-wave nature with a peak value 1.414Vs
c) zero value in the negative half cycle and a peak value of 1.414Vs in the positive half cycle
d) sine-wave nature with a peak value Vs

2. For the circuit shown in the figure below, Vs is the ac voltage source with peak value Vm. The waveform of the load voltage at the resistor will have
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q2
a) zero value in the positive half cycle and a peak value of –(Vm) in the negative half cycle
b) zero value in the negative half cycle and a peak value of –(Vm-V1) in the positive half cycle
c) zero value in the positive half cycle and a peak value of –(Vm+V1) in the negative half cycle
d) zero value in the positive half cycle and a peak value of –(Vm-V1) in the negative half

3. For the circuit shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q3
Vs=230V, Voltage drop across the diode (Vd) = 2V
The peak value of voltage at R in the positive and the negative half cycles are ___ & ___ respectively.
a) 323V,0V
b) 0V, 323V
c) 327V, 0V
d) 0V, 327V

4. For the circuit shown in the figure below, V9 is the AC voltage source with peak value Vm. The waveform of the load voltage at the resistor has a
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q4
a) peak value of (Vm+V1) in the negative half cycle
b) peak value of (Vm-V1) in the positive half cycle
c) peak value of (Vm+V1) in the positive half cycle
d) peak value of (Vm-V1) in the negative half cycle

5. The circuit shown below has the following parameters:
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q5
V1 = 8 Volts
V2 = 6 Volts
Vs = 10V/√2 (rms)
Voltage drop across D1 & D2 = 0.7 Volts
At the load (R), the peak value in the positive half cycle will be
a) 8.7 V
b) 6.7 V
c) 8 V
d) 10V/√2

6. The circuit shown below has the following parameters:
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q5
Voltage drop across D1 & D2 = 0.7 Volts
V1 = 8 Volts
V2 = 6 Volts
Vs = 10V/√2 (RMS)
At the load (R), the peak value in the negative half cycle is
a) 8.7 V
b) 6.7 V
c) 8 V
d) 10V/√2

7. Consider the diode to be an ideal one and Vo = Vr + Vdc during positive half cycle. Thus, during the negative half cycle
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q7
a) Vo = Vr
b) Vo = 0
c) Vo = Vdc+Vr
d) Vo = Vdc

8. When a diode is connected in series with an AC source & R load, the conduction time per cycle is
a) 0
b) 2Ï€
c) π
d) π/2

9. When diode is connected in series to an AC source & RL load, the conduction time for the diode
a) is always less than π
b) is 0
c) is π
d) can be greater than π

10. For the circuit shown below,
power-electronics-mcqs-diode-circuits-3-q10
Vdc = 50 V
Cut-in voltage for D1 = 0.2 V
Cut-in voltage for D2 = 0.6 V
R = 5KΩ
Current through D1 & D2 would be,
a) 5mA, 5mA
b) 10mA, 0
c) 0, 10mA
d) 9.98mA, 9.94mA

Set 5

1. IGBT possess
a) low input impedance
b) high input impedance
c) high on-state resistance
d) second breakdown problems

2. IGBT & BJT both posses ___
a) low on-state power losses
b) high on-state power losses
c) low switching losses
d) high input impedance

3. The three terminals of the IGBT are
a) base, emitter & collector
b) gate, source & drain
c) gate, emitter & collector
d) base, source & drain

4. In IGBT, the p+ layer connected to the collector terminal is called as the
a) drift layer
b) injection layer
c) body layer
d) collector Layer

5. The controlling parameter in IGBT is the
a) IG
b) VGE
c) IC
d) VCE

6. In IGBT, the n layer above the p+ layer is called as the
a) drift layer
b) injection layer
c) body layer
d) collector Layer

7. The voltage blocking capability of the IGBT is determined by the
a) injection layer
b) body layer
c) metal used for the contacts
d) drift layer

8. The controlled parameter in IGBT is the
a) IG
b) VGE
c) IC
d) VCE

9. The structure of the IGBT is a
a) P-N-P structure connected by a MOS gate
b) N-N-P-P structure connected by a MOS gate
c) P-N-P-N structure connected by a MOS gate
d) N-P-N-P structure connected by a MOS gate

10. The major drawback of the first generation IGBTs was that, they had
a) latch-up problems
b) noise & secondary breakdown problems
c) sluggish operation
d) latch-up & secondary breakdown problems

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. When latch-up occurs in an IGBT
a) Ig is no longer controllable
b) Ic is no longer controllable
c) the device turns off
d) Ic increases to a very high value

2. A latched up IGBT can be turned off by
a) forced commutation of current
b) forced commutation of voltage
c) use of a snubber circuit
d) none of the mentioned

3. The static V-I curve of an IGBT is plotted with
a) Vce as the parameter
b) Ic as the parameter
c) Vge as the parameter
d) Ig as the parameter

4. Latch-up occurs in an IGBT when
a) Vce reaches a certain value
b) Ic reaches a certain value
c) Ig reaches a certain value
d) the device temperature reaches a certain value

5. In an IGBT, during the turn-on time
a) Vge decreases
b) Ic decreases
c) Vce decreases
d) none of the mentioned

6. Choose the correct statement
a) IGBTs have higher switching losses as compared to BJTs
b) IGBTs have secondary breakdown problems
c) IGBTs have lower gate drive requirements
d) IGBTs are current controlled devices

7. The approximate equivalent circuit of an IGBT consists of
a) a BJT & a MOSFET
b) a MOSFET & a MCT
c) two BJTs
d) two MOSFETs

8. An IGBT is also know as
a) MOIGT (Metal oxide insulated gate transistor)
b) COMFET (Conductively modulated FET)
c) GEMFET (Grain modulated FET)
d) all of the mentioned

9. The body of an IGBT consists of a
a) p-layer
b) n-layer
c) p-n layer
d) metal

10. At present, the state-of-the-art semiconductor devices are begin manufactured using
a) Semiconducting Diamond
b) Gallium-Arsenide
c) Germanium
d) Silicon-Carbide

Set 2

1. The MOSFET combines the areas of _______ & _________
a) field effect & MOS technology
b) semiconductor & TTL
c) mos technology & CMOS technology
d) none of the mentioned

2. Which of the following terminals does not belong to the MOSFET?
a) Drain
b) Gate
c) Base
d) Source

3. Choose the correct statement
a) MOSFET is a uncontrolled device
b) MOSFET is a voltage controlled device
c) MOSFET is a current controlled device
d) MOSFET is a temperature controlled device

4. Choose the correct statement(s)
i) The gate circuit impedance of MOSFET is higher than that of a BJT
ii) The gate circuit impedance of MOSFET is lower than that of a BJT
iii) The MOSFET has higher switching losses than that of a BJT
iv) The MOSFET has lower switching losses than that of a BJT
a) Both i & ii
b) Both ii & iv
c) Both i & iv
d) Only ii

5. Choose the correct statement
a) MOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, two terminal device
b) MOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, three terminal device
c) MOSFET is a unipolar, voltage controlled, three terminal device
d) MOSFET is a bipolar, current controlled, two terminal device

6. The arrow on the symbol of MOSFET indicates
a) that it is a N-channel MOSFET
b) the direction of electrons
c) the direction of conventional current flow
d) that it is a P-channel MOSFET

7. The controlling parameter in MOSFET is
a) Vds
b) Ig
c) Vgs
d) Is

8. In the internal structure of a MOSFET, a parasitic BJT exists between the
a) source & gate terminals
b) source & drain terminals
c) drain & gate terminals
d) there is no parasitic BJT in MOSFET

9. In the transfer characteristics of a MOSFET, the threshold voltage is the measure of the
a) minimum voltage to induce a n-channel/p-channel for conduction
b) minimum voltage till which temperature is constant
c) minimum voltage to turn off the device
d) none of the above mentioned is true

10.The output characteristics of a MOSFET, is a plot of
a) Id as a function of Vgs with Vds as a parameter
b) Id as a function of Vds with Vgs as a parameter
c) Ig as a function of Vgs with Vds as a parameter
d) Ig as a function of Vds with Vgs as a parameter

Set 3

1. In the output characteristics of a MOSFET with low values of Vds, the value of the on-state resistance is
a) Vds/Ig
b) Vds/Id
c) 0
d) ∞

2. At turn-on the initial delay or turn on delay is the time required for the
a) input inductance to charge to the threshold value
b) input capacitance to charge to the threshold value
c) input inductance to discharge to the threshold value
d) input capacitance to discharge to the threshold value

3. Choose the correct statement
a) MOSFET suffers from secondary breakdown problems
b) MOSFET has lower switching losses as compared to other devices
c) MOSFET has high value of on-state resistance as compared to other devices
d) All of the mentioned

4. Which among the following devices is the most suited for high frequency applications?
a) BJT
b) IGBT
c) MOSFET
d) SCR

5. Choose the correct statement
a) MOSFET has a positive temperature co-efficient
b) MOSFET has a high gate circuit impedance
c) MOSFET is a voltage controlled device
d) All of the mentioned

6. Consider an ideal MOSFET. If Vgs = 0V, then Id = ?
a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Id(on)
d) Idd

7. For a MOSFET Vgs=3V, Idss=5A, and Id=2A. Find the pinch of voltage Vp
a) 4.08
b) 8.16
c) 16.32
d) 0V

8. How does the MOSFET differ from the JFET?
a) JFET has a p-n junction
b) They are both the same
c) JFET is small in size
d) MOSFET has a base terminal

9. The basic advantage of the CMOS technology is that
a) It is easily available
b) It has small size
c) It has lower power consumption
d) It has better switching capabilities

10. The N-channel MOSFET is considered better than the P-channel MOSFET due to its
a) low noise levels
b) TTL compatibility
c) lower input impedance
d) faster operation

Set 4

1. The p-region has a greater concentration of __________ as compared to the n-region in a P-N junction.
a) holes
b) electrons
c) both holes & electrons
d) phonons

2. A p-type semiconductor material is doped with ____________ impurities whereas a n-type semiconductor material is doped with __________ impurities
a) acceptor, donor
b) acceptor, acceptor
c) donor, donor
d) donor, acceptor

3. In the p & n regions of the p-n junction the _________ & the ___________ are the majority charge carriers respectively.
a) holes, holes
b) electrons, electrons
c) holes, electrons
d) electrons, holes

4. The n-region has a greater concentration of _________ as compared to the p-region in a P-N junction diode.
a) holes
b) electrons
c) both holes & electrons
d) phonons

5. Which of the below mentioned statements is false regarding a p-n junction diode?
a) Diode are uncontrolled devices
b) Diodes are rectifying devices
c) Diodes are unidirectional devices
d) Diodes have three terminals

6. In the p & n regions of the p-n junction the _________ & the ___________ are the minority charge carriers respectively.
a) holes, holes
b) electrons, electrons
c) holes, electrons
d) electrons, holes

7. Lets assume that the doping density in the p-region is 10-9 cm-3 & in the n-region is 10-17cm-3, as such the p-n junction so formed would be termed as a
a) p n
b) p+ n
c) p n+
d) p+ n+

8. When a physical contact between a p-region & n-region is established which of the following is most likely to take place?
a) Electrons from N-region diffuse to P-region
b) Holes from P-region diffuse to N-region
c) Both of the above mentioned statements are true
d) Nothing will happen

9. Which of the following is true in case of an unbiased p-n junction diode?
a) Diffusion does not take place
b) Diffusion of electrons & holes goes on infinitely
c) There is zero electrical potential across the junctions
d) Charges establish an electric field across the junctions

10. Which of the following is true in case of a forward biased p-n junction diode?
a) The positive terminal of the battery sucks electrons from the p-region
b) The positive terminal of the battery injects electrons into the p-region
c) The negative terminal of the battery sucks electrons from the p-region
d) None of the above mentioned statements are true

Set 5

1. If V & I are the forward voltage & current respectively, then the power loss across the diode would be
a) V/I
b) V2 I2
c) I2 V
d) VI

2. The power loss in which of the following cases would be the maximum?
a) When both V & I are minimum
b) When both V & I are maximum
c) When only V is maximum
d) When only I is maximum

3. Even after the forward current reduces to zero value, a practical diode continues to conduct in the reverse direction for a while due to the
a) resistance of the diode
b) high junction temperature
c) stored charges in the depletion region
d) none of the mentioned

4. For a p-n junction diode, the peak inverse current & the reverse recovery time are dependent on
a) inverse voltage
b) forward Voltage
c) di/dt
d) all of the above mentioned

5. In an AC-DC converter, a diode might be used as a
a) voltage source
b) phase angle controller
c) freewheeling Diode
d) filter

6. When the p-n junction diode is forward biased, the width of the depletion region __________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains Constant
d) increases than Decreases

7. When the p-n junction diode is reversed biased, the width of the depletion region __________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains Constant
d) none of the above mentioned

8. In case of a practical p-n junction diode, the rise in the junction temperature ___________
a) decreases the width of the depletion region
b) increases the barrier potential
c) increases the width of the depletion region
d) width of the depletion region increases but the barrier potential remains constant

9. In the equilibrium state, the barrier potential across a unbiased silicon diode is _________
a) 0.3 V
b) 0.7 V
c) 1.3 V
d) 0 V

10. In the equilibrium state the barrier, potential across a unbiased germanium diode is __________
a) 0.3 V
b) 0.7 V
c) 1.7 V
d) 0 V

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. An ideal power diode must have
a) low forward current carrying capacity
b) large reverse breakdown voltage
c) high ohmic junction resistance
d) high reverse recovery time

2. To make a signal diode suitable for high current & high voltage carrying applications with minimum losses, ________
a) a lightly doped n layer is grown between the two p & n layers
b) a heavily doped n layer is grown between the two p & n layers
c) a lightly doped p layer is grown between the two p & n layers
d) a heavily doped p layer is grown between the two p & n layers

3. Power diode is __________
a) a three terminal semiconductor device
b) a two terminal semiconductor device
c) a four terminal semiconductor device
d) a three terminal analog device

4. The V-I Characteristics of the diode lie in the
a) 1st & 2nd quadrant
b) 1st & 3rd quadrant
c) 1st & 4th quadrant
d) Only in the 1st quadrant

5. Which of the following is true in case of a power diode with R load?
a) I grows almost linearly with V
b) I decays almost linearly with V
c) I is independent of V
d) I initial grows than decays

6. A diode is said to be reversed biased when the
a) cathode is positive with respect to the anode
b) anode is positive with respect to the cathode
c) cathode is negative with respect to the anode
d) both cathode & anode are negative

7. A diode is said to be forward biased when the
a) cathode is positive with respect to the anode
b) anode is positive with respect to the cathode
c) anode is negative with respect to the anode
d) both cathode & anode are positive

8. In case of an ideal power diode, the leakage current flows from
a) anode to cathode
b) cathode to anode
c) in both the directions
d) leakage current does not flow

9. The peak inverse current IP for a power diode is given by the expression
a) IP=t + di/dt
b) IP=t * log ⁡i
c) IP=t * di/dt
d) IP=t * ∫ t*i dt

10. A power diode with small softness factor (S-factor) has
a) small oscillatory over voltages
b) large oscillatory over voltages
c) large peak reverse current
d) small peak reverse current

Set 2

1. For a power transistor, if the forward current gain α = 0.97, then β = ?
a) 0.03
b) 2.03
c) 49.24
d) 32.33

2. The power electronics devices have a very high efficiency because
a) cooling is very efficient
b) the devices traverse active region at high speed & stays at the two states, on and off
c) the devices never operate in active region
d) the devices always operate in the active region

3. For a power transistor, which of the following relations is true?
a) Ie>Ic>Ib
b) Ib>Ic>Ie
c) Ic>Ie>Ib
d) Ie=Ib

4. High frequency operation of any device is limited by the
a) forward voltage rating
b) switching losses
c) thermal conductivity
d) heat Sink arrangements

5. The instantaneous power loss during the delay time of a transistor is given by
a) Ic Vce
b) Ib Vbe
c) Ic Vbe
d) Ib Vce

6. For a power transistor, the average power loss during the delay time can be given by the equation
a) Ic * Vc
b) 1/T * ∫Td (Ic Vce) dt
c) Ic * dVc/dt * T
d) 1/T * ∫(Td *Tr) (Ic Vc) dt

7. A 1mv of i/p gives an output of 1V, the voltage gain as such would be
a) 0.001
b) 0.0001
c) 1000
d) 100

8. Which of the following relations is true for a BJT?
a) Ic ≈ Ie
b) Ib ≈ Ic
c) Ie ≈ Ib
d) Ib ≈ Ie ≈ Ic

9. Choose the correct statement
a) A transistor will remain on as long the the base current is applied
b) A transistor remains on after a high to low pulse is applied at the base
c) A transistor will remain on as long the the collector current is applied
d) A transistor remains on after a high to low pulse is applied at the collector

10. Let’s say that a transistor is operating at the middle of the load line, then a decrease in the current gain would
a) move the Q point up
b) move the Q point down
c) result in to & fro motion of the Q point
d) not change the Q point

Set 3

1. Which of the following devices does not belong to the transistor family?
a) IGBT
b) MOSFET
c) GTO
d) BJT

2. A power transistor is a
a) three layer, three junction device
b) three layer, two junction device
c) two layer, one junction device
d) four layer, three junction device

3. In a power transistor, ____ is the controlled parameter.
a) VBE
b) VCE
c) IB
d) IC

4. A power transistor is a _________ device.
a) two terminal, bipolar, voltage controlled
b) two terminal, unipolar, current controlled
c) three terminal, unipolar, voltage controlled
d) three terminal, bipolar, current controlled

5. In a power transistor, _________ is the controlling parameter.
a) VBE
b) VCE
c) IB
d) IC

6. In a power transistor, the IB vs VBE curve is
a) a parabolic curve
b) an exponentially decaying curve
c) resembling the diode curve
d) a straight line Y = IB

7. For a power transistor, if the base current IB is increased keeping VCE constant, then
a) IC increases
b) IC decreases
c) IC remains constant
d) none of the mentioned

8. The forward current gain α is given by
a) IC/IB
b) IC/IE
c) IE/IC
d) IE/IB

9. The value of β is given by the expression
a) IC/IB
b) IC/IE
c) IE/IC
d) IE/IB

10. A power BJT is used as a power control switch by biasing it in the cut off region (off state) or in the saturation region (on state). In the on state
a) both the base-emitter & base-collector junctions are forward biased
b) the base-emitter junction is reverse biased, and the base collector junction is forward biased
c) the base-emitter junction is forward biased, and the base collector junction is reversed biased
d) both the base-collector & the base-emitter junctions are reversed biased

Set 4

1. For a transistor, the safe operating area (SOA) is a plot of
a) Ib versus Vce
b) Ib versus Ic
c) Ic versus Vce
d) Ic versus time

2. The forward safe operating area (FSOA) pertains to the operation when
a) the device is fired at a 50% Duty cycle
b) the device is forward-biased
c) the device is operated on AC
d) the device is operated on DC

3. The SOAs are plotted always on a _________ scale
a) time
b) frequency
c) logarithmic
d) polynomial

4. As the FSOA increases, the pulse width
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains constant
d) vanishes

5. The SOAs provided by the manufacturers are for
a) single pulse operation & a particular temperature
b) multi pulse operation & all the temperature
c) all the conditions
d) a particular duty cycle operation

6. A device is operating at Ic = 4A & Vce = 50V. For the device to operate at Ic = 20A (Without damaging),
a) voltage should be increased
b) voltage should be reduced
c) voltage can be kept constant
d) current has to increased further

7. For a BJT, find the maximum power dissipation when the device is safely operated at Vce = 90V and Ic = 0.5A
a) 40 Watts
b) 35 Watts
c) 45 Watts
d) 30 Watts

8. The SOA for a MOSFET is plotted for
a) Id versus Vds
b) Ig versus Id
c) Ig versus Vds
d) Id versus Vgs

9. The SOA for an IGBT is plotted for
a) Ic versus Vge
b) Ig versus Ic
c) Ig versus Vce
d) Ic versus Vce

10. For MOSFET’s SOA, as the pulse width goes on increasing, the maximum voltage rating ____ & current rating ____
a) is constant, increases
b) increases, decreases
c) decreases, is constant
d) constant, decreases

Set 5

1. Shown below is the diagram of an ideal super diode. When the input voltage Vin is negative, then the output voltage Vout = ?
power-electronics-mcqs-types-power-diodes-1-q1
a) Vout/Vin
b) Vin
c) 0
d) Vin * Rl

2. In order to reduce the reverse recovery time of the diodes, __________ is carried out.
a) shortening of the length of the device
b) platinum & gold doping
c) antimony doping
d) adding an extra silicon layer

3. Which of the following diodes uses a metal-semiconductor junction?
a) General purpose diodes
b) Fast recovery diodes
c) Schottky diode
d) None of the mentioned

4. Which of the below mentioned statements is false regarding Schottky diodes?
a) Schottky diodes have a Al-Silicon junction
b) There is no storage of charges in a Schottky diode
c) The majority charge carriers in a Schottky diode are holes
d) Schottky diodes can be switched off faster than a p-n junction diode of the same rating

5. A Schottky diode _____
a) has current flow due to holes only
b) has no reverse recovery time
c) has large amount of storage charges
d) has zero cut-in voltage

6. Which of the following are/is the majority charge carriers in a Schottky diode?
a) Holes
b) Electrons
c) Both holes & Electrons carry equal current
d) None of the mentioned

7. In a Schottky diode, the silcon is usually
a) N-type
b) P-type
c) un-doped semiconductor
d) silicon is not used

8. As compared to a p-n junction diode(of the same rating), a Schottky diode has ___________
a) higher cut-in voltage
b) lower reverse leakage current
c) higher operating frequency
d) higher switching time

9. A Schottky diode has __________
a) a gate terminal
b) aluminum-silicon junction
c) platinum gold junction
d) germanium-Arsenide junction

10. A Schottky diode can be switchd off much faster than an equivalent p-n junction diode due to its
a) higher operating frequency
b) no recombination of charges
c) more compact structure
d) None of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Ideally the voltage drop across a conducting diode must be
a) ∞
b) 0
c) higher than the forward biased voltage
d) equal to the forward biased voltage

2. When reverse breakdown occurs in a diode
a) voltage increases & current is constant
b) voltage increases & current also increases
c) both are constant
d) voltage is constant & current increases

3. Schottky diodes are also called as
a) metal diode
b) hot carrier diode
c) signaling diode
d) easy turn on diode

4. In a Schottky diode, the aluminum metal acts as a __________
a) anode
b) cathode
c) gate
d) common terminal

5. If the doping levels of the semiconductor is increased, then the width of the depletion layer
a) increases
b) decreases
c) is unchanged
d) keeps oscillating

6. As compared to a p-n junction device of equal rating, the Schottky diode has
a) lower reverse voltage rating
b) lower reverse leakage current
c) higher Switching time
d) higher cut-in voltage

7. In a Schottky diode, the silicon layer acts as a _____________
a) anode
b) cathode
c) gate
d) common terminal

8. In a certain power electronics application, it is required that the voltage at the load terminals is to be kept within a certain range of voltages only. Among the device listed below, which would be the most ideal choice for this application?
a) P-n junction diode
b) Schottky diode
c) Zener diode
d) Fast recover diode

9. Shown below is the diagram of an ideal super diode. When the input voltage Vin is positive, then the output voltage Vout = ?
power-electronics-mcqs-types-power-diodes-2-q9
a) Vout/Vin
b) Vin
c) 0
d) Vin * Rl

10. Zener diodes allow a current to flow in the reverse direction, when the
a) voltage reaches above a certain value
b) temperature reaches above a certain value
c) current always flows in the reverse direction only
d) current cannot flow in the reverse direction

Set 2

1. A gas turbine works on?
a) Carnot cycle
b) Brayton cycle
c) Dual cycle
d) Rankine cycle

2. What is the range of Thermal efficiency in Brayton cycle?
a) 30-35%
b) 40-45%
c) 50-55%
d) 50-60%

3. What is the maximum possible TIT(Turbine Inlet Temperature)?
a) 1000 K
b) 1500 K
c) 950 K
d) 1300 K

4. A simple Brayton cycle uses Helium as the working fluid, has a maximum temperature of 1000 K, and a pressure ratio of 4. At the start of the compression, the Helium pressure and temperature are 50 kPa and 250 K. Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the thermal efficiency of the cycle is:
a) 0.13
b) 0.23
c) 0.43
d) 0.53

5. A simple Brayton cycle has a pressure ratio of 5 and a maximum temperature of 900 K. Air enters the compressor at 100 kPa, 300 K. Based upon cold-air standard analysis assumptions, the back-work ratio of this cycle is:
a) 0.23
b) 0.53
c) 0.48
d) 0.36

6. Which of the following methods can be used to increase efficiency of a Brayton cycle?
a) Regeneration
b) Increasing pressure ratio
c) Heat exchanger
d) All of the mentioned

7. For the same maximum pressure and heat input, the most efficient cycle is?
a) Brayton cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Rankine cycle
d) Dual cycle

8. The compression ratio is the ratio of?
a) Swept volume to total volume
b) Total volume to swept volume
c) Total volume to clearance volume
d) None of the mentioned

9. A Sterling engine uses an energy source whose temperature is 727°C and an energy sink whose temperature is 27°C. How much heat must be added to the engine to produce 1 unit of work?
a) 1.10
b) 1.19
c) 1.43
d) 2.0

10. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?
a) Compressor
b) Combustion Chamber
c) Turbine
d) Pump

Set 3

1. Deaerator is an
a) closed heater
b) open heater
c) surface heater
d) none of the mentioned

2. What is the purpose of deaerator?
a) to remove the dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) to remove the dissolved nitrogen
c) to remove the dissolved impurities
d) to supply more oxygen to feedwater

3. What do you mean by vent condenser?
a) a condensing unit
b) a temperature measuring instrument
c) a heat exchanger
d) dissolves oxygen

4. How dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxides are removed?
a) by allowing it to fall from height
b) by series of chemical reactions
c) by condensing feedwater
d) by heating feedwater to saturation temperature

5. What chemicals are added for residual dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide?
a) sodium sulphite
b) hydrazine
c) alum
d) all of the mentioned

6. Why deaerator is installed at a certain height from the pump?
a) to provide a net positive suction head
b) to maintain less pressure
c) to avoid leakage
d) to maintain pressure

7. Why deaerator is not used in water cooled and moderated nuclear power plant?
a) radioactivity
b) not economical
c) not safe
d) not mechanically possible

8. Location of high pressure heaters
a) after the deaerator
b) before the deaerator
c) middle of deaerator
d) depends on pressure conditions

9. Location of low pressure heaters
a) after the deaerator
b) before the deaerator
c) middle of deaerator
d) depends on pressure conditions

10. Steam used to heat water comes from?
a) boiler
b) turbine
c) condenser
d) external power source

Set 4

1. Feedwater heaters are of two types, they are
a) natural and forced
b) saturated and non saturated
c) open and close
d) water driven and steam driven

2. In open feedwater heater
a) the extracted steam is allowed to mix with feedwater
b) feedwater flows trough tubes and steam is condensed outside
c) steam flows outside tubes and feedwater inside
d) steam flows inside tubes and outside inside

3. Closed heaters are also called
a) contact type heater
b) shell and heat exchanger
c) drip heaters
d) shell and tube heater

4. Expand TTD?
a) turbine temperature difference
b) total temperature difference
c) terminal temperature difference
d) turbine terminal difference

5. The value of TTD varies with?
a) heater pressure
b) heater temperature
c) turbine inlet temperature
d) independent of all mentioned

6. Why at least one open heater is used?
a) installed vertically
b) feedwater deaeration
c) less cost
d) increase efficiency

7. What are the advantages of open heater?
a) lower cost
b) high heat transfer capacity
c) high feedwater temperature
d) all of the mentioned

8. What do you mean by heater drip?
a) condensate
b) heater failure
c) extract
d) maximum temperature

9. Which of the following material can be used as a moderator?
a) Beryllium
b) Graphite
c) Heavy water
d) All of the mentioned

10. Closed heaters are?
a) horizontal
b) vertical
c) inclined
d) depends on requirement

Set 5

1. For a given value of mean temperature of heat addition(Tm)
a) efficiency of Rankine is more if turbine exit temperature(Tmin) is less
b) efficiency of Rankine is less if turbine exit temperature(Tmin) is less
c) efficiency does not depend on turbine exit temperature
d) none of the mentioned

2. Mean temperature of heat addition can be increased by?
a) decreasing the amount of heat added
b) increase the amount of heat added
c) increase condensor pressure
d) decreasing Turbine Inlet Temperature(TIT)

3. Internal irreversibility of Rankine cycle is caused by?
a) fluid friction
b) throttling and mixing
c) expansion and compression process are quite rapid
d) All of the mentioned

4. Which of the following statement is true?
a) efficiency is directly proportional to mean temperature of heat addition
b) efficiency is inversely proportional to mean temperature of heat addition
c) efficiency is exponential function of mean temperature of heat addition
d) efficiency does not depend on mean temperature of heat addition

5. Pulverized coal is
a) coal free from ash
b) non-smoking coal
c) coal which bums For long time
d) coal broken into fine particles

6. What is caking in Power Plants?
a) making cakes of coal out of fine powders
b) a variety of free burning coals
c) coal produced from burning of wood in inert atmosphere
d) in boiler furnace some coals become plastic and form lumps or masses of coal

7. Water gas is a mixture of
a) CO2 and O2
b) O2and H2
c) H2, N2 and O2
d) CO, N2 and H2

8. Critical pressure of water is
a) 1 kg / cm2
b) 100 kg / cm2
c) 155 kg / cm2
d) 217.7 kg / cm2

9. Coal used in power plant is also known as
a) steam coal
b) charcoal
c) coke
d) soft coal

10. The temperature to which air must be cooled in order to become saturated is the
a) minimum temperature
b) dew point temperature
c) wet-bulb temperature
d) freezing point

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. What is the unit of Heat rate?
a) kJ/KW
b) KW/kJ
c) kJ
d) KW

2. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2

3. Rankine efficiency of a Steam Power Plant
a) improves in Summer as compared to that in Winter
b) improves in Winter as compared to that in Summer
c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
d) none of the mentioned

4. Rankine cycle comprises of
a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
d) none of the mentioned

5. In Rankine cycle, the work output from the turbine is given by
a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet

6. Which of the following contributes to the improvement of efficiency of Rankine cycle in a Thermal Power Plant?
a) reheating of steam at intermediate stage
b) regeneration use of steam for heating Boiler feed water
c) use of high pressures
d) all of the mentioned

7. Match the following:

a) Boiler            1. reversible adiabatic expansion of steam
b) turbine           2. constant pressure heat heat addition
c) Condenser         3. reversible adiabatic compression
d) pump              4. constant pressure heat rejection

8. What is the actual turbine inlet temperature in Rankine cycle?
a) 700C
b) 800C
c) 550C
d) 1150C

9. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 90 to 95%

10. A simple Rankine cycle operates the Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet temperature of 350°C and the Condenser at 50 kPa. Assuming ideal operation and processes, what is the thermal efficiency of this cycle?
a) 7.7
b) 17.7
c) 27.7
d) 37.7

11. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat and rejects 60 MW of heat to the surroundings. What is the utilization factor of this co generation cycle neglecting the pump work?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80

Set 2

1. What is the basic principle of regeneration?
a) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to boiler
b) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to turbine
c Steam after coming out of turbine is circulated to boiler
d) Two stage turbine is used

2. Ideal regenerative rankine cycle
a) Increases efficiency
b) Increases work output
c) Increases the heat supplied
d) does not effect efficiency

3. Mean temperature of heat addition is _______ due to Regeneration
a) Decreases
b) not effected
c) Increases
d) varied exponentially

4. Name the coolants commonly used for fast breeder reactors?
a) Liquid metal (Na (or) Na K)
b) Helium (He)
c) Carbon dioxide
d) All of the mentioned

5. Why trash rack is used?
a) To prevent the entry of debris
b) To prevent steam overflow
c) It is used as an insulter
d) Prevents back flow

6. What is the use of surge tank?
a) To store condensate
b) To prevent surging
c) To provide better regulation of water pressure in the system
d) To prevent chocking

7. What is the function of Fore bay?
a) Temporary water storage
b) Steam passage
c) Water flow in penstock
d) condensate storage

8. What is the use of draft tube?
a) To regain kinetic energy
b) To regain potential energy
c) Passage for water
d) Stores energy

9. Is regenerative cycle alone useful?
a) Yes
b) No
c) may be
d) depends on other factors

10. Function of surge tank?
a) Regulation of water pressure
b) Regulation of steam pressure
c) Storage
d) Regulation of lubricants

Set 3

1. Why Reheating of steam is used?
a) to increase efficiency
b) to increase work output
c) to increase Turbine Inlet Temperature
d) to reduce amount of fuel used

2. Reheating of steam
a) decreases steam rate
b) increases steam rate
c) no effect on steam rate
d) none of the mentioned

3. Efficiency of cycle will increase due to Reheating if
a) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is higher than in reheat process
b) mean temperature of heat addition in boiler is lower than in reheat process
c) it will increase without any conditions
d) it will not increase

4. Why don’t we use more than two reheats?
a) not economical
b) increased mechanical stresses
c) net efficiency is decreased
d) all of the mentioned

5. The cycle efficiency in a single reheat plant is influenced by
a) pressure at tubine inlet
b) pressure at which steam is reheated
c) temperature at which steam is reheated
d) temperature at tubine inlet

6. The optimum reheat pressure for the most of the modern power plants is ___________ of the initial steam pressure
a) 0.1-0.5
b) 0.2-0.3
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.25-0.3

7. What is the effect of reheat on steam quality?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) depends on several parameters

8. What should be the dryness fraction at the time of exhaust?
a) 0.88
b) 0.80
c) 0.90
d) 0.75

9. Reheat is preferred for the plants having efficiency greater than
a) 150MW
b) 200MW
c) 100MW
d) 250MW

10. Which one of the following is an advantage of reheat cycle
a) the size of the Low pressure (LP) turbine blades is reduced because specific volume is reduced by 7 to 8%
b) the reheating reduce 4 to 5% fuel consumption with a corresponding reduction in the fuel handling
c) lower steam pressures and temperatures and less costly materials can be used to obtain the required thermal performance
d) all of the mentioned

Set 4

1. How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application
a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
d) all of the mentioned

2. What is the critical pressure of steam?
a) 221.2 bar
b) 220 bar
c) 120 bar
d) 300 bar

3. An air preheater is installed
a) between the economiser and chimney
b) before the superheater
c) before the economiser
d) none of the mentioned

4. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is
a) 5m
b) 4m
c) 3m
d) 2m

5. Which of the following statement is correct ?
a) A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube.
b) A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power.
c) Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler.
d) all of the mentioned

6. The object of producing draught in a boiler is
a) to discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney
b) all of the mentioned
c) to exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber
d) to provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion

7. The natural draught is produced by
a) team jet
b) chimney
c) centrifugal fan
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
a) Water tube boilers are internally fired.
b) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler.
c) La-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler.
d) all of the mentioned

9. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam ?
a) Locomotive boiler
b) Lancashire boiler
c) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
d) Cornish boiler

Set 5

1. What percentage of fuel energy is actually converted to electrical energy?
a) 50%
b) 40%
c) 34%
d) 25%

2. Maximum energy of a power plant is lost in?
a) condensor
b) pump
c) boiler
d) environment

3. The lower is the value of heat rate, __________ is the efficiency.
a) lower
b) higher
c) same
d) depends on further parameters

4. Overall efficiency is the ratio of power available at generator terminals to rate of energy released by combustion of fuel.
a) true
b) false
c) can’t say
d) not true for all conditions

5. The steam from steam generator of a nuclear power plant is best described as
a) superheated steam
b) supercritical steam
c) saturated dry steam
d) saturated wet steam

6. Under certain conditions, the specific enthalpies of dry steam, saturated water and wet steam are 2783 kJ/kg, 1219 kJ/kg and 2750 kJ/kg respectively. Determine the dryness fraction of wet steam.
a) 0.01
b) 0.02
c) 0.021
d) 0.03

7. What includes fixed cost?
a) cost of land, Cost of building, Cost of equipment, Cost of installation
b) interest
c) management cost
d) all of the mentioned

8. Name the major isotope present in steam generated in a Boiling Water Reactor.
a) N-16
b) D-32
c) N-32
d) D-16

9. Efficiency of a power plant is more in summers or winters?
a) summers
b) winters
c) same in both
d) depends on variation

10. What is the mechanical efficiency of turbine?
a) brake output / internal output
b) internal output / brake output
c) blade energy / energy supplied
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of the following function is a wrapper for different lattice plots to visualize the data ?
a) levelplot
b) featurePlot
c) plotsample
d) none of the Mentioned

2. Point out the wrong statement:
a) In every situation, the data generating mechanism can create predictors that only have a single unique value
b) Predictors might have only a handful of unique values that occur with very low frequencies
c) The function findLinearCombos uses the QR decomposition of a matrix to enumerate sets of linear combinations
d) All of the Mentioned

3. Which of the following function can be used to identify near zero-variance variables ?
a) zeroVar
b) nearVar
c) nearZeroVar
d) all of the Mentioned

4. Which of the following function can be used to flag predictors for removal ?
a) searchCorrelation
b) findCausation
c) findCorrelation
d) none of the Mentioned

5. Point out the correct statement:
a) findLinearColumns will also return a vector of column positions can be removed to eliminate the linear dependencies
b) findLinearCombos will return a list that enumerates dependencies
c) The function findLinearRows can be used to generate a complete set of row variables from one factor
d) none of the Mentioned

6. Which of the following can be used to impute data sets based only on information in the training set. ?
a) postProcess
b) preProcess
c) process
d) all of the Mentioned

7. The function preProcess estimates the required parameters for each operation.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following can also be used to find new variables that are linear combinations of the original set with independent components ?
a) ICA
b) SCA
c) PCA
d) None of the Mentioned

9. Which of the following function is used to generate the class distances ?
a) preprocess.classDist
b) predict.classDist
c) predict.classDistance
d) all of the Mentioned

10. The preProcess class can be used for many operations on predictors.
a) True
b) False

Set 2

1. Strain gage is an example of which device?
a) Transducer
b) Voltage follower
c) Integrator
d) Differentiator

2. An instrumentation system does not include
a) Transducer
b) Instrumentation amplifier
c) Automatic process controller
d) Tester

3. Transmission line are used for
a) Output signal
b) Input signal
c) Signal transfer
d) All of the mentioned

4. The length of the transmission lines are
a) Longer than 10 meters
b) Shorter than 10 meters
c) Equals to 10 meters
d) None of the mentioned

5. Why output of transducer is not directly connected to indicator or display?
a) Low level output is produced
b) High level output is produced
c) No output is produced
d) Input is fed directly

6. What are the features of instrumentation amplifier?
a) Low noise
b) High gain accuracy
c) Low thermal and time drift
d) All of the mentioned

7. What is the disadvantage of using LH0036 instrumentation op-amp?
a) Extremely stable
b) Relatively expensive
c) Accurate
d) All of the mentioned

8. What instrument is used to amplify output signal of transducer
a) Peaking amplifier
b) Instrumentation amplifier
c) Differential amplifier
d) Bridge amplifier

9. General purpose op-amps are used in applications as
a) Instrumentation amplifier
b) Differential instrumentation amplifier
c) Inverting instrumentation amplifier
d) Non-inverting instrumentation amplifier

10. In an instrumentation amplifier using transducer bridge, which device measure the change in physical energy
a) Resistive transducer
b) Indicating meter
c) Capacitive transducer
d) Inductor circuit

Set 3

1. Strain gage are used to monitor change in
a) Pressure
b) Torque
c) Displacement
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which type of resistive transducer is most commonly used?
a) Thermistor
b) Photoconductive cell
c) Strain gage
d) All of the mentioned

3. What is the unit of strain gage?
a) Ω/oC
b) Lux
c) Newton / meter2
d) Volts

4. Which type of strain gage has better resolution?
a) Semiconductor strain gage
b) Wire strain gage
c) Wire and Semiconductor strain gage
d) None of the mentioned

5. How a differential instrumentation amplifier using transducer bridge can be used as a temperature controller?
a) Increase room temperature
b) Replaces calibrated meter with relay
c) Change the bridge resistance
d) Replace thermistor by light intensity meter

6. The strain gage elements in the analog weight scale are mounted on a
a) Base of weight platform
b) Hanging weight platform
c) Loading weight platform
d) Varying weight platform

7. What will be the resultant circuit, when the thermistor in the bridge transducer is replaced by a strain gage?
a) Differential input and differential output amplifier
b) Light intensity
c) Analog weight scale
d) None of the mentioned

8.
linear-integrated-circuit-mcqs-instrumentation-amplifier-3-q8
RT1, RT2, RT3, RT4 are unstrained gage resistance. If the resistance change in each gage is 0.3Ω. Choose the correct option?
1. RT1 and RT3 increases by 0.3Ω
2. RT2 and RT4 decreases by 0.3Ω
3. RT1 and RT3 increases by 0.3Ω
4. RT2 and RT4 decreases by 0.3Ω
a) 3 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3

Set 4

1. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++

2. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering
a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2

3. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both Black Box & Functional

4. The 4GT Model is a package of ______________
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
d) None of the mentioned

5. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating ______________
a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators

6. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in graphic notation or small abbreviated language form.
a) True
b) False

7. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in using a 4GT.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for managing structured data?
a) SQL
b) PROLOG
c) C
d) JAVA

9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers
b) Reduction in software development time
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems
d) None of the mentioned

10. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model

Set 5

1. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral

3. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model

4. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental

5. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping

6. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral

7. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False

8. Choose the correct option from given below:
a) Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability of components
b) RAD Model Model facilitates re-usability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability of components
d) None

9. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False

10. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships

2. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned

3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available

4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned

5. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned

6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”

7. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time

8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned

9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned

10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality of the product.
a) True
b) False

Set 2

1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000

2. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model

4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype

5. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product

6. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfix-able & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects

7. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases

8. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases re-usability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases re-usability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required

9. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle

10. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model

Set 3

1. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility

2. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customised
d) None of the mentioned

3. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.
a) True
b) False

4. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
a) key pad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned

5. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) both in time & with acceptable quality

6. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2

7. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment

8. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False

9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Re-usability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews

10. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention

Set 4

1. A reaction has produced 5 moles of water vapor and 10 liter bone dry air at 27oC and 15 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 24%
b) 49%
c) 83%
d) 106%

2. A reaction has produced 1 mole of water vapor and 5 liter of bone dry air at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 100%
b) 104%
c) 115%
d) 169%

3. A reaction has produced 0.4 mole of water vapor and 1 liter of bone dry air at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 85%
b) 143%
c) 178%
d) 200%

4. A reaction has produced 1.5 moles of water and 2 liter of bone dry air at 27oC and 25 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 5%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%

5. A reaction has produced 45 moles of water and 25 liter of bone dry air at 27oC and 25 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 25%
b) 104%
c) 180%
d) 209%

6. 1 mole of CH4 reacts completely with excess air, if 5 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 100%
d) 200%

7. 2 mole of CH4 reacts completely with excess air, if 25 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 45%
b) 80%
c) 95%
d) 143%

8. 0.1 mole of CH4 reacts completely with excess air, if 1 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 25 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 4%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 52%

9. 50 mole of CH4 reacts completely with excess air, if 25 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 25 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 20%
b) 80%
c) 200%
d) 400%

10. 25 mole of CH4 reacts completely with excess air, if 25 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 10%
b) 100%
c) 500%
d) 1000%

11. 0.2 mole glucose reacts completely with excess air, if 5 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 120%
d) 160%

12. 1 mole glucose reacts completely with excess air, if 25 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 5 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 120%
d) 160%

13. 6 mole glucose reacts completely with excess air, if 25 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 20 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 20%
b) 80%
c) 145%
d) 180%

14. 10 mole glucose reacts completely with excess air, if 25 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 30 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 100%
b) 200%
c) 300%
d) 400%

15. 1.5 mole glucose reacts completely with excess air, if 5 liter of bone dry air is produced at 27oC and 30 atm, what is the humidity?
a) 50%
b) 150%
c) 200%
d) 300%

Set 5

1. Which of these states the goal of engineering design analysis ?
a) To understand an engineering design problem
b) To provide an solution for a given problem
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

2. What methods can be followed if designers are out of good SRS or engineering design ?
a) They must do whatever part of product design which remains undone
b) Various approaches and techniques are to be followed to complete
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

3. Why is Modelling one of the best way to carry out analysis ?
a) During analysis, It serves as a good test for understanding
b) Provides further documentation for input to design resolution
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

4. Engineering design activities consists of which of the following ?
a) Studying the SRS
b) Producing new models of the problem
c) Product design models
d) All of the mentioned

5. A generic software engineering design follows which of the activities ?
a) Analysis
b) Architectural Design
c) Finalize Design
d) Analysis & Architectural Design

6. Architectural design stage include which of the following activity ?
a) Generate/Improve detailed design alternatives
b) Select architecture
c) Finalize Design
d) All of the mentioned

7. Detailed design stage include which of the following activity ?
a) Generate / Improve candidate architectures
b) Evaluate candidate architecture
c) Finalize Design
d) None of the mentioned

8. What is Analysis model ?
a) Understanding of design problem
b) Representation of design problem solution
c) Representation of design problem
d) All of the mentioned

9. Which of the following is true ?
a) A class model is representation of objects in a problem or a software solution
b) A object model is representation of classes in a problem or a software solution
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

10. Which of the following is true ?
a) Class Diagram are graphical form of class models
b) Object Diagram are graphical forms of object models
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

11. Which of these are types of class model used in object oriented analysis ?
a) Analysis Class models/ Conceptual Models
b) Design Class Models
c) Implementation Class Models
d) All of the mentioned

12. Which of the following represents the use of Conceptual models during product design?
a) Understanding the problem design
b) Setting Data Requirements
c) Validating Requirements
d) All of the mentioned

13. Which of the following represents the use of Conceptual models during engineering design?
a) Understanding product design
b) Under Girding Engineering Modelling
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

14. What are Design Class Models ?
a) They show classes in a software system
b) They represents attributes,operations, association in abstraction from language
c) They show implementation details
d) All of the mentioned

15. Conceptual models are useful for which of the following reasons ?
a) Understanding problem design
b) Data Requirements and Product design
c) Validating requirements
d) All of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of these truly defines Software design ?
a) Software design is an activity subjected to constraints
b) Software Design specifies nature and composition of software product
c) Software Design satisfies client needs and desires
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which among these is false ?
a) A process is collection of related tasks that transforms set of inputs to set of output
b) A design notation is a symbolic representational system
c) A design heuristic is a rule proceeding guidance, with guarantee for achieving some end
d) Software design method is orderly procedure for providing software design solutions

3. Which of these describes stepwise refinement ?
a) Nicklaus Wirth described the first software engineering method as stepwise refinement
b) Stepwise refinement follows its existence from 1971
c) It is a top down approach
d) All of the mentioned

4. What is incorrect about structural design ?
a) Structural design introduced notations and heuristics
b) Structural design emphasis on procedural decomposition
c) The advantage is data flow representation
d) It follows Structure chart

5. What is solution for Structural design ?
a) The specification model following data flow diagram
b) Procedures represented as bubbles
c) Specification model is structure chart showing procedure calling hierarchy and flow of data in and out of procedures
d) Emphasizing procedural decomposition

6. Which of these are followed by latest versions of structural design?
a) More detailed and flexible processes
b) Regular Notations
c) Wide support by CASE(Computer Aided Software Engineering)
d) Wide support by CASE, More detailed and flexible processes

7. The incorrect method for structural design is?
a) Transition of problem models to solution models
b) Handling of larger and more complex products
c) Designing Object oriented systems
d) More procedural approach

8. What are followed by design task?
a) Choosing specific classes, operations
b) Checking model’s completeness
c) Following design task heuristics
d) All of the mentioned

9. Which of these analysis are not acceptable ?
a) Object oriented design is far better approach compared to structural design
b) Object oriented design always dominates structural design
c) Object oriented design are given more preference than structural design
d) Object oriented uses more specific notations

10. Which these does not represent object oriented design ?
a) It follows regular procedural decomposition in favor of class and object decomposition
b) Programs are thought of collection of objects
c) Central model represents class diagrams that show the classes comprising a program and their relationships to one another
d) Object-oriented methods incorporates Structural methods

Set 2

1. Why does software engineering design shares many design principles?
a) Common design goal of creating high quality design
b) For expansion of product lifetime
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

2. Why are the design principles considered unique?
a) They are characteristic of well constructed programs
b) They are robust
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which among these is the primary goal for software engineering design?
a) To specify the structure of program satisfying software product specification
b) To specify the behavior of program satisfying software product specification
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

4. What is true about good programs?
a) Good program must have certain characteristic at delivery and must be maintainable during time
b) A good program at delivery must satisfy its requirements
c) A good program must conform to its design constraints
d) All of the mentioned

5. What is principle of feasibility?
a) A Design is acceptable only when it is realized
b) Designs that make easier to change are better
c) Designs that can be built for less money, in less time with less risk are better
d) Designs that can meet more stakeholder needs and desired subject to constraints are better

6. Which principle states the following “Designs that make easier to change are better”?
a) Principle of Feasibility
b) Principle of Economy
c) Principle of Changeability
d) Principle of Adequacy

7. What is principle of adequacy?
a) A Design is acceptable only when it is realized
b) Designs that make easier to change are better
c) Designs that can be built for less money, in less time with less risk are better
d) Designs that can meet more stakeholder needs and desired subject to constraints are better

8. What is principle of economy ?
a) A Design is acceptable only when it is realized
b) Designs that make easier to change are better
c) Designs that can be built for less money, in less time with less risk are better
d) Designs that can meet more stakeholder needs and desired subject to constraints are better

9. Which of these does a good design follow?
a) A good design should specify a program that can be built, tested and deployed on time
b) A good design should be concluded in its budget
c) A good design can vary risk
d) A good design should specify a program that can be built, tested and deployed on time and within its budget

10. Which is true among the following ?
a) Design Principles state desirable design characteristics based on meeting stakeholder needs and desires
b) Basic design principles are evaluative criteria that state characteristics of good design
c) Constructive Design principles state desirable engineering design characteristics based on past software development experience
d) All of the mentioned

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in the analysis model?
a) describing the customer complaints
b) establishing a basis for the creation of a software design
c) defining a set of requirements that can be validated once the software is built
d) none of the mentioned

2. A description of each function presented in the DFD is contained in a ________
a) data flow
b) process specification
c) control specification
d) data store

3. Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the system as a consequence of external events?
a) data flow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control specification diagram
d) workflow diagram

4. A data model contains
a) data object
b) attributes
c) relationships
d) all of the mentioned

5. _________ defines the properties of a data object and take on one of the three different characteristics.
a) data object
b) attributes
c) relationships
d) data object and attributes

6. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if there is no explicit need for the relationship to occur or the relationship is optional.
a) modality
b) cardinality
c) entity
d) structured analysis

7. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
a) data flow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control specification
d) workflow diagram

8. A data condition occurs whenever a data is passed to an input element followed by a processing element and the result in control output.
a) True
b) False

9. The __________ enables the software engineer to develop models of the information domain and functional domain at the same time
a) data flow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control specification
d) activity diagram

10. The __________ contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of behavior.
a) data flow diagram
b) state transition diagram
c) control specification
d) workflow diagram

Set 4

1. Which of the following examples is/are models of application architectures?
a) a means of assessing components for reuse
b) a design checklist
c) a vocabulary for talking about types of applications
d) all of the mentioned

2. ERP stands for
a) Enterprise Research Planning
b) Enterprise Resource Planning
c) Enterprise Resource Package
d) Enterprise Research Package

3. Which of the following type describes application architectures?
a) Transaction processing applications
b) Language processing systems
c) Client management systems
d) Transaction processing applications and Language processing systems

4. All the operations in a transaction need to be completed before the database changes are made ________
a) functional
b) available to the users
c) permanent
d) none of the mentioned

5. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as.
a) software-based
b) transaction-based
c) server-based
d) client-based

6. What translates a natural or an artificial language into another representation of that language and, for programming languages also execute the resulting code?
a) ERP systems
b) Transaction-based information systems
c) Language processing systems
d) None of the mentioned

7. Properties of a system such as performance and security are independent of the architecture used.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s)?
a) Model-View-Controller
b) Layered Architecture
c) Client–server
d) All of the mentioned

9. A language-processing systems may translate an XML data description into
a) a machine code
b) an alternative XML representation
c) machine code and alternative XML representation
d) a software module

10. Transaction processing systems may be organized as a _________ architecture with system components responsible for input, processing, and output.
a) Repository
b) Client–server
c) Model-View-Controller
d) Pipe and Filter

Set 5

1. Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system.
a) True
b) False

2. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system.
a) physical
b) logical
c) process
d) all of the mentioned

3. The UML was designed for describing _________
a) object-oriented systems
b) architectural design
c) SRS
d) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design

4. Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting processes at run time?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process

5. Which of the following is an architectural conflict?
a) Using large-grain components improves performance but reduces maintainability
b) Introducing redundant data improves availability but makes security more difficult
c) Localizing safety-related features usually means more communication so degraded performance
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?
a) type of application
b) distribution of the system
c) architectural styles
d) testing the system

7. Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based systems?
a) architecture
b) repository pattern
c) model-view-controller
d) different operating system

9. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
a) model-view-controller
b) architecture pattern
c) repository pattern
d) none of the mentioned

10. Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process

11. Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model?
a) Static structural model
b) Dynamic process model
c) Distribution model
d) All of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of these following sensor is a useful as part of a burglar alarm system for commercial buildings?
a) Movement detector
b) Door sensor
c) Window sensor
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used?
a) Asynchronous communication
b) Observe and React
c) Environmental Control
d) Process Pipeline

3. A monitoring system examines its environment through
a) operating system
b) communication
c) set of sensors
d) none of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is applicable on software radio?
a) Environmental Control
b) Process Pipeline
c) Distributed system
d) None of the mentioned

5. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a high-speed
a) data distributing system
b) data acquisition system
c) data collector system
d) none of the mentioned

6. Monitoring systems are an important class of embedded real-time systems.
a) True
b) False

7. Which of the following is an example of a controller for a car braking system?
a) Observe and React
b) Process Pipeline
c) Environmental Control
d) None of the mentioned

8. ETL stands for
a) Data Extraction Transformation & Loading
b) Data Execution Transformation & Loading
c) Extraction Transformation & Loading
d) Execution Transformation & Loading

9. Control systems may make use of the Environmental Control pattern, which is a general control pattern that includes _________processes.
a) sensor
b) actuator
c) pipeline
d) both sensor and actuator

10. ________ can be associated with a separate processor or core, so that the processing steps can be carried out in parallel.
a) Process Pipeline
b) Environmental Control
c) Observe and React
d) None of the mentioned

Set 2

1. Which of the following is a building block of UML?
a) Things
b) Relationships
c) Diagrams
d) All of the mentioned

2. Classes and interfaces are a part of
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

3.What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component?
a) Use Case
b) Actor
c) Interface
d) Relationship

4. What is a physical element that exists at run time in UML?
a) A node
b) An interface
c) An activity
d) None of the mentioned

5. What can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior?
a) object
b) attribute
c) operation
d) instance

6. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models?
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

7. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages?
a) Activity
b) Sequence
c) Collaboration
d) Class

8. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single use case.
a) True
b) False

9. If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve concurrent processing, you would use a
a) Activity diagram
b) Sequence diagram
c) Statechart diagram
d) Object diagram

10. Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements?
a) Deployment diagram
b) Component diagram
c) Node diagram
d) ER-diagram

11. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models?
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

12. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”a structural relationship that specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another”?
a) Association
b) Aggregation
c) Realization
d) Generalization

13. What refers to the value associated with a specific attribute of an object and to any actions or side?
a) Object
b) State
c) Interface
d) None of the mentioned

Set 3

1. Who was first to proposed the Cleanroom philosophy in software engineering ?
a) Mills
b) Dyer
c) Linger
d) All of the Mentioned

2. How does Cleanroom software engineering differs from the conventional and object-oriented views ?
a) It makes explicit use of statistical quality control
b) It verifies design specification using a mathematically based proof of correctness
c) It relies heavily on statistical use testing to uncover high-impact errors
d) All of the mentioned

3. Cleanroom software engineering complies with the operational analysis principles by using a method called known as
a) box structure specification
b) referential transparency
c) degenerative error correction
d) none of the mentioned

4. What encapsulates state data and services in a manner that is analogous to objects?
a) State box
b) Clean box
c) White box
d) Black box

5. MTTF stands for
a) mean-time-to-function
b) mean-time-to-failure
c) manufacture-time-to-function
d) none of the mentioned

6. The transition functions that are implied by the state box are defined in
a) Yellow box
b) Clear box
c) White box
d) Black box

7. Which of the following is not included in the certification approach?
a) Creation of usage scenarios
b) Specific usage file
c) Generation of test cases from the servers end.
d) Reliability

8. The __________ specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system.
a) Yellow box
b) Clear box
c) White box
d) Black box

9. Which of the following is required for Certification for cleanroom software engineering?
a) Sampling model
b) Component model
c) Certification model
d) All of the mentioned

10. The philosophy of Cleanroom SE focuses on defect removal rather than defect avaoidance.
a) True
b) False

11. Which of the following Cleanroom process teams develops set of statistical test to exercise software after development?
a) Specification team
b) Development team
c) Certification team
d) All of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The ________ is connected to servers (typically powerful workstations or PCs) that play a dual role.
a) Database
b) Software
c) Hardware
d) None of the mentioned

2. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The client sends structured query language (SQL) requests to the server which are transmitted as messages across the net”?
a) File servers
b) Database servers
c) Client servers
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which subsystem implements the requirements defined by the application?
a) UI
b) DBMS
c) Application subsystem
d) None of the mentioned

4. Which test do you infer from the following statement: “The coordination and data management functions of the server are tested.”?
a) Server tests
b) Application function tests
c) Transaction tests
d) Network communication tests

5. Which of the following presentation is explained in the following statement:”An extension of the distributed presentation approach, primary database and application logic remain on the server, and data sent by the server is used by the client to prepare the user presentation.”?
a) Local Presentation
b) Distributed presentation
c) Remote presentation
d) All of the mentioned

6. “A client is assigned all user presentation tasks and the processes associated with data entry”.Which option supports the client’s situation?
a) Distributed logic
b) Distributed presentation
c) Remote presentation
d) All of the mentioned

7. What is used to pass SQL requests and associated data from one component to another?
a) Client/server SQL interaction
b) Remote procedure calls
c) SQL Injection
d) All of the mentioned

8. When a client application invokes a method contained within an object elsewhere in the system, CORBA uses dynamic invocation to
a) obtain pertinent information about the desired method from the interface repository
b) create a data structure with parameters to be passed to the object
c) create a request for the object
d) all of the mentioned

9. Which of the following services is not provided by an object?
a) Activating & Deactivating Objects
b) Security features
c) Files implementing the entities identified within the ERD
d) Registering object implementation

10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”When one object invokes another independent object, a message is passed between the two objects.”?
a) Control couple
b) Application object
c) Data couple
d) Database object

11. CORBA stands for
a) Common Object Request Build Architecture
b) Common Object Request Broker Architecture
c) Common Object Request Break Architecture
d) All of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Which of the following is not a construct?
a) sequence
b) condition
c) repetition
d) selection

2.Which of the following steps is applied to develop a decision table?
a) List all actions that can be associated with a specific procedure
b) List all conditions during execution of the procedure
c) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a set of conditions
d) All of the mentioned

3. _________ is a pidgin(simplified version of a language that develops as a means of communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common)
a) program design language
b) structured English
c) pseudocode
d) all of the mentioned

4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The ability to represent local and global data is an essential element of component-level design.”?
a) Data representation
b) Logic verification
c) “Code-to” ability
d) Automatic processing

5. A software component
a) Implements some functionality
b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces
c) Communicates through its interfaces only
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that would not allow violation of the structured constructs?
a) State transition diagram
b) Box diagram
c) ER diagram
d) None of the mentioned

7. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the condition fails.
a) repeat until
b) condition
c) do while tests
d) if then-else

8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box diagram?
a) functional domain
b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
c) recursion is easy to represent
d) providing a notation that translates actions and conditions

9. The________ is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.
a) Repetition
b) Sequence
c) Condition
d) None of the mentioned

10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “Notation that can be input directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.”?
a) Machine readability
b) Maintainability
c) Structure enforcement
d) Overall simplicity

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of the following is software engineer’s primary characteristics?
a) A collection of useful tools that will help in every step of building a product
b) An organized layout that enables tools to be found quickly and used efficiently
c) A skilled artisan who understands how to use the tools in an effective manner
d) All of the mentioned

2. Database management software serves as a foundation for the establishment of a CASE database (repository) that we call
a) project database
b) system database
c) analysis and design tools
d) prototyping tools

3. What enables a software engineer to define screen layout rapidly for interactive applications?
a) Analysis and design tools
b) Tool kit
c) Screen painters
d) PRO/SIM tools

4. _________tools assist in the planning, development, and control in CASE.
a) Dynamic measurement
b) Data acquisition
c) Test management
d) Cross-functional tools

5. Which tools cross the bounds of the preceding categories?
a) Data acquisition
b) Dynamic measurement
c) Cross-functional tools
d) Simulation

6. Which environment demands specialized testing tools that exercise the graphical user interface and the network communications requirements for client and server?
a) Dynamic analysis
b) Client/Server
c) Re-engineering
d) Test management

7. Which tools are used to modify on-line database systems?
a) Reverse engineering specification tools
b) Code restructuring and analysis tools
c) Test management tools
d) On-line system re-engineering tools

8. Which is the definition of objects in the database that leads directly to a standard approach for the creation of software engineering documents.
a) Document standardization
b) Data integrity
c) Information sharing
d) Data/data integration

9. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “CASE tools and the target applications are isolated from physical storage so they are not affected when the hardware configuration is changed.”?
a) Non-redundant data storage
b) Data independence
c) Data dependence
d) Adhoc data queries and reports

10. Which of the following term is best define by the statement:”Each object is stored only once, but is accessible by all CASE tools that need it.”?
a) Non-redundant data storage
b) Data independence
c) Transaction control
d) Adhoc data queries and reports

Set 2

1. What is testing process’ first goal?
a) Bug prevention
b) Testing
c) Execution
d) Analyses

2. Software mistakes during coding are known as
a) errors
b) failures
c) bugs
d) defects

3. Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases.
a) Mutation analysis
b) Validation
c) Verification
d) Performance analysis

4. Test should be conducted for every possible
a) data
b) case
c) variable
d) all of the mentioned

5. Which of the following is not a part of bug report?
a) Test case
b) Output
c) Software Version
d) LOC

6. Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging?
a) Step Over
b) Step Into
c) Step Up
d) Step Out

7. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a) Yellow box
b) White box
c) Gray box
d) Black box

8. Which is a black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing?
a) Acceptance testing
b) Regression testing
c) Equivalence partitioning
d) Quality assurance

9. Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code?
a) Control structure testing
b) Complex path testing
c) Code coverage
d) Quality assurance of software

10. Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.
a) maintenance
b) design
c) coding
d) documentation

11. Which of the following is a common pointwer problem?
a) Data sharing errors
b) Accessing data elements of the wrong type
c) Attempting to use memory areas after freeing them
d) All of the mentioned

Set 3

1. Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ?
a) Medical Systems
b) Power Systems
c) Library Management
d) Telecommunications

2. What is the term for development process organised such that faults in the system are detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned

3. What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned

4. Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants”?
a) Diverse
b) Documentable
c) Auditable
d) None of the mentioned

5. Which of the following is not a Protection system ?
a) System to stop a train if it passes a red light
b) System to indicate not returning of the library book
c) System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too high
d) None of the mentioned

6. The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be minimized.
a) True
b) False

7. Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ?
a) Different programming languages
b) Different design methods and tools
c) Explicit specification of different algorithms
d) All of the mentioned

8. Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance.
a) True
b) False

9. Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ?
a) Limit the visibility of information in a program
b) Check array bounds
c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned

10. What is a Range check?
a) Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
b) Check that the input falls within a known range
c) Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value
d) None of the mentioned

Set 4

1. A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure

2. An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system users is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure

3. An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as expected by its users is called _____________
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure

4. A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal

5. An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers.What kind of dependability and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal

6. An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is known as
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Hazard severity
d) Mishap

7. which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an accident?
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Accident
d) Damage

8. A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as?
a) Vulnerability
b) Attack
c) Threat
d) Exposure

9. A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ___________ with respect to security systems.
a) risk
b) control
c) attack
b) asset

10. The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. Static Analysis involves executing a program.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ?
a) Formal verification
b) Model checking
c) Automated program analysis
d) All of the mentioned

3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods
a) Concurrent systems can be analysed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock
b) Producing a mathematical specification requires a detailed analysis of the requirements
c) They require the use of specialised notations that cannot be understood by domain experts
d) All of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking?
a) Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
b) Model checking is computationally very inexpensive
c) The model checker explores all possible paths through the model
d) All of the mentioned

5. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Variables declared but never used”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

6. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: “Unreachable code”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

7. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-usage of the results of functions”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

8. Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical systems.
a) True
b) False

9. Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-defined error checking
c) Assertion checking
d) All of the mentioned

10. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Pointer Arithmetic”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned

3. Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned

4. POFOD stands for
a) Possibility of failure of data
b) Probability of failure of data
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand

5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period?
a) POFOD
b) ROCOF
c) AVAIL
d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements

7. To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
a) True
b) False

8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and assessment process is to derive security requirements for the system as a whole.
a) True
b) False

9. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions?
a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

10. Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements

Set 2

1. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?
a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity

2. What type of core-relationship is represented by the symbol in the figure below?
software-engg-mcqs-diagrams-uml-1-q2
a) Aggregation
b) Dependency
c) Generalization
d) Association

3. Which core element of UML is being shown in the figure?
software-engg-mcqs-diagrams-uml-1-q3
a) Node
b) Interface
c) Class
d) Component

4. What type of relationship is represented by Shape class and Square ?
software-engg-mcqs-diagrams-uml-1-q4
a) Realization
b) Generalization
c) Aggregation
d) Dependency

5. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific time?
a) Sequence Diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram

6. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
d) None of the mentioned

7. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be present in the system being modeled.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?
a) Collaboration
b) Sequence
c) Activity
d) None of the mentioned

Set 3

1. Which of the following is a category of a stimuli?
a) Periodic stimuli
b) Software stimuli
c) Hardware stimuli
d) Management stimuli

2. Which of the following activities may be included in a real-time software design process?
a) Platform selection
b) Timing analysis
c) Process design
d) All of the mentioned

3. Which of the following is not a real-time architectural pattern
a) Observe and React
b) Environmental Control
c) Embedded System
d) Process Pipeline

4. RTOS stands for
a) real-life operating system
b) real-time operating system
c) real-time operating software
d) real-life operating software

5. The times by which stimuli must be processed and some response produced by the system is known as
a) Compile time
b) Frequency
c) Deadlines
d) Execution time

6. The switch to backup power must be completed within a deadline of
a) 50 ms
b) 55 ms
c) 70 ms
d) 100 ms

7. An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a _________
a) High-speed data acquisition system
b) Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
c) Both High-speed data acquisition system AND Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
d) None of the mentioned

8. Periodic occur irregularly and unpredictably and are usually signaled using the computer’s interrupt mechanism.
a) True
b) False

9. If you detect power failure by monitoring a voltage level, you have to make more than one observation to detect that the voltage is dropping.
a) True
b) False

10. The average execution time of the power monitor process should be less than
a) 1ms
b) 10ms
c) 100ms
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

2. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast sample of projects.
a) True
b) False

3. COCOMO stands for
a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model

4. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned

5. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which one is not a size measure for software product?
a) LOC
b) Halstead’s program length
c) Function Count
d) Cyclomatic Complexity

7.COCOMO was developed initially by
a) B.Beizer
b) Rajiv Gupta
c) B.W.Bohem
d) Gregg Rothermal

8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned

9. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur

10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model

Set 5

1. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
a) True
b) False

2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False

3. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

4. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.
a) implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned

5. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer
d) None of the mentioned

6. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take short cuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur.
a) True
b) False

7. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.
a) True
b) False

8. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False

9. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False

10. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. What type of fault remains in the system for some period and then disappears?
a) Permanent
b) Transient
c) Intermittent
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?
a) Fault prevention
b) Fault removal
c) Fault tolerance
d) All of the mentioned

3. A system maintaining its integrity while accepting a temporary halt in its operation is said to be in a state of
a) Full Fault Tolerance
b) Graceful Degradation
c) Fail Soft
d) Fail Safe

4. Which of the following Error Detection checks is not a part of Application detection?
a) Hardware checks
b) Timing checks
c) Reversal checks
d) Coding checks

5. Exception handling is a type of
a) forward error recovery mechanism
b) backward error recovery mechanism
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

6. Non-occurrence of improper alteration of information is known as
a) Available Dependability
b) Confidential Dependability
c) Maintainable Dependability
d) Integral Dependability

7. In N-version programming which is the independent generation of N, the value of N is
a) greater than 1
b) less than 1
c) greater than 2
d) less than 2

8. In Log-based fault tolerance, logs of undetermined events are saved and replayed on failure.
a) True
b) False

9. All fault-tolerant techniques rely on
a) Integrity
b) Dependability
c) Redundancy
d) None of the mentioned

10. It is imperative for a communicating processes to reach consistent recovery points to avoid the _________ effect, with backward error recovery mechanism.
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Domino
d) Whirlpool

Set 2

1. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned

2. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility

3. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned

4. Which of the following statements explains portabililty in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned

5. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.
a) True
b) False

6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals

7. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

8. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Installability

9. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) Yes
b) No

10. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability

11. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

Set 3

1. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model

2. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance purposes.
a) True
b) False

3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be
a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identified
d) eliminated and identified

4. .CO poliy in CMM means
a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in Ability to Perform
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform

5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.
a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning

6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing

7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management

8. Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording design reviews and qualification tests?
a) CMM
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9000-3
d) None of the mentioned

9. The CMM emphasizes
a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
d) none of the mentioned

10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics.
a) ISO 9001
b) ISO 9000-4
c) CMM
d) All of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational implementation.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?
a) people
b) product
c) popularity
d) process

3. PM-CMM stands for
a) people management capability maturity model
b) process management capability maturity model
c) product management capability maturity model
d) project management capability maturity model

4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?
a) project control
b) project management
c) project planning
d) project design

5. A software ________ provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established.
a) people
b) product
c) process
d) none of the mentioned

6. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned

7. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?
a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
d) None of the mentioned

8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?
a) asynchronous paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

9. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?
a) Problem solving
b) Organization
c) Motivation
d) Project management

10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm
c) closed paradigm
d) synchronous paradigm

11. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
a) Empirical
b) Heuristic
c) Analytical
d) Critical

Set 5

1. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics

2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code

3. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson

4. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

5. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

6. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box

7. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i

8. SMI stands for
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator

9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False

10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned

11. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality

12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Size and Complexity are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

2. Cost and schedule are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

3. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a
a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric
d) all of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors?
a) Flexibility
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Integrity

5. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
a) maximum number of nodes at any level
b) longest path from the root to a leaf
c) number of modules
d) lines of control

6. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics

7. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

8. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.
a) True
b) False

9. MTTC falls the the category of
a) correctness
b) integrity
c) maintainability
d) all of the mentioned

10. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)].
d) Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)].

Set 2

1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures

2. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent

3. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling

5. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling

6. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?
a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion

7. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion

8. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling.
a) True
b) False

9. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling

10. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed object-oriented design?
a) Designing system architecture
b) Developing design models
c) Specifying interfaces
d) Developing a debugging system

2. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its environment as it is used?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

3. Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the system being developed?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

4. Which of the following come under system control?
a) Reconfigure
b) Shutdown
c) Powersave
d) All of the mentioned

5. We use _________ where various parts of system use are identified and analyzed in turn.
a) tangible entities
b) scenario-based analysis
c) design-based analysis
d) none of the mentioned

6. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships?
a) Sequence model
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model
d) Structural model

7. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?
a) Sequence model
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model
d) Both Sequence and Dynamic model

8. If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message?
a) restart()
b) reconfigure()
c) powerSave()
d) all of the mentioned

9. Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before returning to the Running state?
a) signalStatus()
b) remoteControl()
c) reconfigure()
d) reportStatus()

10. Open source development involves making the source code of a system publicly available.
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed object-oriented design?
a) Designing system architecture
b) Developing design models
c) Specifying interfaces
d) Developing a debugging system

2. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its environment as it is used?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

3. Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the system being developed?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

4. Which of the following come under system control?
a) Reconfigure
b) Shutdown
c) Powersave
d) All of the mentioned

5. We use _________ where various parts of system use are identified and analyzed in turn.
a) tangible entities
b) scenario-based analysis
c) design-based analysis
d) none of the mentioned

6. Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their relationships?
a) Sequence model
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model
d) Structural model

7. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?
a) Sequence model
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model
d) Both Sequence and Dynamic model

8. If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message?
a) restart()
b) reconfigure()
c) powerSave()
d) all of the mentioned

9. Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before returning to the Running state?
a) signalStatus()
b) remoteControl()
c) reconfigure()
d) reportStatus()

10. Open source development involves making the source code of a system publicly available.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects.
a) Objects are abstractions of real-world
b) Objects can’t manage themselves
c) Objects encapsulate state and representation information
d) All of the mentioned

2. What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?
a) Object
b) Class
c) Super Class
d) Sub Class

3. Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name?
a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) All of the mentioned

4. Inherited object classes are self-contained.
a) True
b) False

5. Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD) is true?
a) OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

6. How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages?
a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) Abstract Classes

7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?
a) Easier maintenance
b) Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
c) Objects are potentially reusable components
d) None of the mentioned

8. Which of the following describes”Is-a-Relationship” ?
a) Aggregation
b) Inheritance
c) Dependency
d) All of the mentioned

9. Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as
a) Active Object
b) Passive Object
c) Multiple instance
d) None of the mentioned

10. Objects are executed
a) sequentially
b) in Parallel
c) sequentially & Parallel
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The architecture of object-oriented software results in a series of layered subsystems that encapsulate collaborating classes.
a) True
b) False

2.The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of
a) design model
b) analysis model
c) code levels
d) both design and analysis model

3. Which testing integrates the set of classes required to respond to one input or event for the system?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software?
a) cluster testing
b) thread-based testing
c) use-based testing
d) none of the mentioned

5. __________ methods can be used to drive validations tests
a) Yellow-box testing
b) Black-box testing
c) White-box testing
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is a part of testing OO code?
a) Validation tests
b) Integration tests
c) Class tests
d) System tests

7. The object of ___________within an OO system is to design tests that have a high likelihood of uncovering plausible bugs.
a) Fault-based testing
b) Integration testing
c) Use-based testing
d) Scenario-based testing

8. What refers to the externally observable structure of an OO program?
a) Deep structure
b) Surface structure
c) Core structure
d) All of the mentioned

9. _____________ categorizes class operations based on the generic function that each performs.
a) Category-based partitioning
b) Attribute-based partitioning
c) State-based partitioning
d) None of the mentioned

10. Which of the following is black-box oriented and can be accomplished by applying the same black-box methods discussed for conventional software?
a) Conventional testing
b) OO system validation testing
c) Test case design
d) Both Conventional testing and OO system validation testing

11. In which of the following testing strategies, a smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object?
a) Unit testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) None of the mentioned

12. Which of the following testing types is not a part of system testing?
a) Recovery testing
b) Stress testing
c) System testing
d) Random testing

Set 2

1. “Robustness” answers which of the following description?
a) CASE tools be used to support the process activities
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

2. Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems.
a) True
b) False

3. “Understandability” answers which of the following description?
a) The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the engineers responsible for producing the software product
d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems

4. How many stages are there in process improvement?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

5. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?
a) Process measurement
b) Process analysis
c) Process change
d) None of the mentioned

6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?
a) Informal
b) Managed
c) Methodical
d) Supported

7. The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called
a) Process metric
b) Process analysis
c) Process modelling
d) None of the mentioned

8. It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.
a) True
b) False

9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?
a) Deliverable
b) Activity
c) Condition
d) Process

10. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?
a) Role
b) Exception
c) Activity
d) Process

11. Which of the following is not a part of process change?
a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes
b) Introducing new team members to existing project
c) Introducing or removing deliverable
d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities

12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.
a) True
b) False

13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x?
a) 0
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding costumer complaints

2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False

3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover

4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned

5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high

6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned

7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager

8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management

9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution

10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty

2. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity

3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned

4. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification

5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned

6. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE

7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models

9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands

10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected in schedule changes
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
c) Software Detailed schedule
d) None of the mentioned

3. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as
a) Compartmentalization
b) Defined milestones
c) Defined responsibilities
d) Defined outcomes

4. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
c) Adaptation criteria
d) All of the mentioned

5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
c) Defined Milestone
d) Effort Distribution

6. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project?
a) Degree of Rigor
b) Adaptation criteria
c) Task Set
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria

7. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
a) Concept scoping
b) Preliminary concept planning
c) Technology risk assessment
d) Customer reaction to the concept

8. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff
d) Mission criticality

9. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
a) PERT
b) CPM
c) CMM
d) Both PERT and CPM

10. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as
a) BCWS
b) EVA
c) BAC
d) CBSE

11. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?
a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30
c) 30-40-30
d) 50-30-20

12. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by
a) Henry Gantt
b) Barry Boehm
c) Ivar Jacabson
d) None of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM

2. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned

3. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal

4. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of x and y?
a) 60, 40
b) 70, 30
c) 80, 20
d) No such principle exists

5. What is Six Sigma?
a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection

6. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse

7. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
d) None of the mentioned

8. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.
a) True
b) False

9. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.
a) True
b) False

10. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal

11. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
d) None of the mentioned

12. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.
a) True
b) False

13. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of non-conforming products
d) Servicing

Set 2

1. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram

2. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned

3. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

4. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.
a) True
b) False

5. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned

6. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned

7. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical

8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
a) True
b) False

9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six

10. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable

2. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable

3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other

4. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned

5. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule

7. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces

8. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii

9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct

10. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous

11. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous

12. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned

2. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
i. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii. Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
d) All of the mentioned

3. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.
i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a) iii, i, ii, iv
b) iii, iv, ii, i
c) iii, ii, iv, i
d) ii, iii, iv, i

4. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting

5. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rambaugh)

6. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary

7. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned

8. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceablity
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceablity

9. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process
a) True
b) False

10. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Set 5

1. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a view-point based method ?
a) FODA
b) QFD
c) CORE
d) IBIS

2. ___________ and ____________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE).
a) Functional, Non-Functional
b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
d) All of the mentioned

3. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
a) Requirements are comprehensive
b) NFRs are not given enough importance
c) Role of analyst is passive
d) All of the mentioned

4. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS).
a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
d) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification

5. How is CORE different from IBIS ?
a) Iterative in nature
b) Redundancies are removed
c) It is simple and an easier method to use
d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE

6. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ?
a) FODA
b) CORE
c) IBIS
d) Prototyping

7. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five

8. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE.
a) True
b) False

9. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ?
a) User
b) Tester
c) Scribe
d) Sponsor

10. What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?
a) Context Diagrams
b) DFDs
c) ER model
d) UML diagrams

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned

2. Select the developer specific requirement ?
a) Potability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Potability and Maintainability

3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation

4. FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned

5. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned

6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False

7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD

8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False

9. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False

10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software

Set 2

1. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned

2. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the mentioned

3. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.

4. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False

5. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False

6. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False

7. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100

8. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned

9. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change

10. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned

Set 3

1. In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information that can be extracted from the source code?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) direction level

2. In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of detail that is provided at an abstraction level?
a) interactivity
b) completeness
c) abstraction level
d) directionality

3. The core of reverse engineering is an activity called
a) restructure code
b) directionality
c) extract abstractions
d) interactivity

4. What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every type?
a) GUIs
b) Candidate keys
c) Object model
d) All of the mentioned

5. Forward engineering is also known as
a) extract abstractions
b) renovation
c) reclamation
d) both renovation and reclamation

6. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its
a) GUI
b) Database
c) Source code
d) All of the mentioned

7. Reverse engineering techniques for internal program data focus on the definition of classes of objects.
a) True
b) False

8. Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor to re-engineering a new database model:
a) Build an initial object model
b) Determine candidate keys
c) Refine the tentative classes
d) Discover user interfaces

9. Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing the external manifestation of the existing
a) candidate keys
b) interface
c) database structure
d) none of the mentioned

10. Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called
a) data analysis
b) directionality
c) data extraction
d) client applications

11. Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are equivalent processes of software engineering.
a) True
b) False

12. Transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as
a) Re-factoring
b) Restructuring
c) Forward engineering
d) Both Re-factoring and Restructuring

13. Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering?
a) to reduce maintenance effort
b) to cope with complexity
c) to avoid side effects
d) to assist migration to a CASE environment

Set 4

1. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Investor
c) Production team
d) Project manager

2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk

3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition

4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
b) Product competition
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned

5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

7. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

8. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Organizational restructuring
c) Requirements changes
d) None of the mentioned

9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned

10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ?
a) Platform-level protection
b) Application-level protection
c) Record-level protection
d) All of the mentioned

2. Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist malicious attacks.
a) True
b) False

3. What are security controls ?
a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
d) All of the mentioned

4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is analogous to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) None of the mentioned

5. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) Fault Recovery

6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?
a) Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
b) Risk assessment while the system is being developed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

7. A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as
a) Asset
b) Control
c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned

8. An impersonation of an authorised user is an example of a security threat.
a) True
b) False

9. The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which security concept ?
a) Asset
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control

10. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as
a) Attack
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) is
a) Strongly Coupled
b) Loosely Coupled
c) Strongly Cohesive
d) Loosely Cohesive

2. Which of the following is an essential principle of an architecture?
a) Consistency
b) Reliability
c) Scalability
d) All of the mentioned

3. Arrange the following activities in order to build a SOA.
i. Virtualization through mediation.
ii. Track services with registries.
iii. Govern, secure and manage the services.
iv. Design for interoperability through the adoption of standards.
a) i, ii, iii, iv
b) iii, ii, i, iv
c) ii, iii, i, iv
d) ii, iii, iv, i

4. How is SOA different from OO Architecture ?
a) Strong coupling among objects
b) Communications are prescriptive rather than being descriptive
c) Data is separated from a service or behavior
d) Data and methods are integrated into a single object

5. Which architecture will be built on top of a SOA ?
a) The Application Architecture
b) The Service Architecture
c) The Component Architecture
d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following utilities is not a part of Application Service Layer ?
a) Policy implementation
b) QoS
c) Security
d) Verify invoice

7. Which of the following utilities is not a part of Business Service Layer ?
a) Task centric service
b) Wrapper Services
c) Get account info
d) Entity centric service

8. We can build Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) using Object Oriented (OO) language
a) True
b) False

9. Which architecture describes the various elements that support the implementation of services.
a) The Application Architecture
b) The Service Architecture
c) The Component Architecture
d) None of the mentioned

10. Web Services is not a realization of SOA ?
a) True
b) False

Set 2

1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff

3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned

4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False

6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law

7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement

9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model

11. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. A sociotechnical system is a system that includes
a) people
b) software
c) hardware
d) all of the mentioned

2. Which layer is missing in the sociotechnical system stack as shown below:
software-engg-mcqs-sociotechnical-systems-q2
a) organizational layer
b) application layer
c) physical layer
d) transport layer

3. Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What kind of system the example represents?
a) Complex System
b) Technical computer-based system
c) Sociotechnical System
d) Both Complex and Sociotechnical System

4. Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability

5. Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its operators, and its operating environment?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability

6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely:
a) only software reliability
b) only hardware reliability
c) hardware and software reliability
d) hardware, software and operator reliability

7. There are ________ overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical systems.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic.
a) True
b) False

9. What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system?
a) hardware and software approach
b) management and users approach
c) person and systems approach
d) all of the mentioned

10. Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems.
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. Which of the following is a field related to certification ?
a) Person
b) Process
c) Product
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is a software process certification ?
a) JAVA Certified
b) IBM Certified
c) ISO-9000
d) Microsoft Certified

3. Which standard is followed in aviation industry ?
a) CTRADO-172B
b) RTCADO-178B
c) RTRADO-178B
d) CTCADO-178B

4. How many levels, does the DO-178B certification targeted by RTCADO-178B has ?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

5. Third Party Certification for software standards is based on
a) Ul 1998, Second Edition
b) UT 1998, Second Edition
c) Ul 1992, Second Edition
d) Ul 1996, Second Edition

6. What are the goals to gain Laboratory Accreditation ?
a) Increase availability of testing services through third-party laboratories
b) Increase availability of testing market to encourage development of software testing industry
c) Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing services
d) All of the mentioned

7. National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program approve accreditation in
a) Environmental standards
b) Computers and electronics
c) Product testing
d) All of the mentioned

8. CSTE stands for
a) Certified Software Technology
b) Certified Software Tester
c) Certified Software Trainee
d) None of the mentioned

9. CSQA stands for
a) Certified Software Quality Analyst
b) Certified Software Quality Approved
c) Certified Software Quality Acclaimed
d) None of the mentioned

10. Which of the following companies provide certifications for their own products?
a) CISCO
b) ORACLE
c) Microsoft
d) All of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
c) data
d) all of the mentioned

2. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
a) Baselines
b) Source code
c) Data model
d) None of the mentioned

3. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
a) A single software configuration management team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for each project
c) Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members
d) All of the mentioned

4. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
a) Change control
b) Version control
c) SCIs
d) None of the mentioned

5. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management

7. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
a) Tracking of change proposals
b) Storing versions of system components
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
d) None of the mentioned

8. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
c) Release management
d) Branch management

9. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000
b) CMM
c) CMMI
d) All of the mentioned

10. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
a) System building
b) Release management
c) Change management
d) Version management

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. SCM stands for
a) Software Control Management
b) Software Configuration Management
c) Software Concept Management
d) None of the mentioned

2. When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an
a) hard drive
b) access-controlled library
c) servers
d) access control

3. Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process?
a) CM Planning
b) Executing the CM process
c) CM audits
d) None of the mentioned

4. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
a) True
b) False

5. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time?
a) Version Control
b) Access control
c) CM Process
d) Version Control and Access control

6. Which of the following is not a change management process?
a) Log the changes
b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule
c) Review impact with stakeholders
d) None of the mentioned

7. Configuration management (CM) is needed to deliver product to the client
a) True
b) False

8. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Baseline
b) Cumulative changes
c) CM
d) Change Control

9. How are baselines verified?
a) By reviews
b) By inspections
c) By testing of code
d) All of the mentioned

10. Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?
a) SCM procedures
b) Source code
c) Software design descriptions
d) All of the mentioned

11. SCM controls only the products of the development process.
a) True
b) False

12. CCB stands for
a) Change Control Board
b) Change Control Baseline
c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline
d) None of the mentioned

13. What information is required to process a change to a baseline?
a) Reasons for making the changes
b) A description of the proposed changes
c) List of other items affected by the changes
d) All of the mentioned

Set 2

1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation

2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module

3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm

4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design

5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation

6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators

7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming

8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm

9. In Desigin phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned

10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity

11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world

Set 3

1. Which mechanism is applied to use a design pattern in an OO system?
a) Inheritance
b) Composition
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

2. Design patterns does not follow the concept of software reuse.
a) True
b) False

3. The use of design patterns for the development of object-oriented software has important implications for
a) Component-based software engineering
b) Reusability in general
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is a design pattern?
a) Behavioral
b) Structural
c) Abstract Factory
d) All of the mentioned

5. You want to minimize development cost by reusing methods? Which design pattern would you choose?
a) Adapter Pattern
b) Singleton Pattern
c) Delegation pattern
d) Immutable Pattern

6. You want to avoid multiple inheritance. Which design pattern would you choose?
a) Abstraction-Occurrence Pattern
b) Player-Role Pattern
c) General Hierarchy Pattern
d) Singleton Pattern

7. The recurring aspects of designs are called design
a) patterns
b) documents
c) structures
d) methods

8. Design pattern is a solution to a problem that occurs repeatedly in a variety of contexts.
a) True
b) False

9. Which pattern prevents one from creating more than one instance of a variable?
a) Factory Method
b) Singleton
c) Observer
d) None of the mentioned

10. Facade pattern promotes weak coupling between subsystem and its clients.
a) True
b) False

11. Which design pattern defines one-to-many dependency among objects?
a) Singleton pattern
b) Facade Pattern
c) Observer pattern
d) Factory method pattern

12. Facade pattern couples a subsystem from its clients.
a) True
b) False

13. In factory method pattern, the framework must instantiate classes but it only knows about the abstract classes, which it cannot initiate. How would one solve this problem?
a) encapsulating the knowledge of which document subclass to is to be created and
b) moving this knowledge out of the framework
c) instantiating the application specific documents without knowing their class
d) all of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The two dimensions of spiral model are
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular

2. The Incremental Model is combination of elements of
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

3. Model preferred to create client/server applications is
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model

4. Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development:
a) Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a more structured approach

5. Spiral model was developed by
a) Victor Bisili
b) Berry Boehm
c) Bev Littlewood
d) Roger Pressman

6. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities
b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
d) Re-engineering activities

7. Processes for evolving a software product depend on:
a) Type of software to be maintained
b) Development processes used
c) Skills and experience of the people involved
d) All of the mentioned

8. Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

9. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of_____________
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering

10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a reengineering project.
a) True
b) False

11. The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software.
a) True
b) False

Set 5

1. Software Maintenance includes
a) Error corrections
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) All of the mentioned

2. Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

3. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive

4. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?
a) six
b) seven
c) eight
d) nine

5. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing

6. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.
a) True
b) False

7. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”technique.How many selective retest techniques are there?
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five

8. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version?
a) Coverage
b) Minimization
c) Safe
d) Maximization

9. ______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications.
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness

10. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
b) Precision
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Why is software difficult to build ?
a) Controlled changes
b) Lack of reuseability
c) Lack of monitoring
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is not a conflict in software development team?
a) Simultaneous updates
b) Shared and common code
c) Versions
d) Graphics issues

3. Which of the following lasts for the duration of the project and covers the development process?
a) Monitoring all key parameters like cost, schedule, risks
b) Taking corrective actions when needed
c) Providing information on the development process in terms of metrics
d) All of the mentioned

4. Which of the following is not a typical environment in communication facilitation ?
a) Multiple teams
b) Multiple user groups
c) Multiple fests
d) Multiple locations

5. Which of the following is a software process ?
a) Analysis and design
b) Configuration and management
c) Business modeling
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which of the following is not included in Issues Meetings?
a) Issues gathered the day before
b) Regular schedule of meeting
c) Discussion with business
d) Attendance

7. Which of the following is not a part of Software Configuration Management Basics?
a) Identification
b) Version
c) Auditing and Reviewing
d) Status Accounting

8. What is a collection of software elements treated as a unit for the purposes of SCM?
a) Software Configuration Item
b) Baseline
c) Configuration
d) Configuration Control Board

9. What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Configuration
b) Baseline
c) Software
d) All of the mentioned

10. What is validating the completeness of a product?
a) Identification
b) Software
c) Auditing and Reviewing
d) Status Accounting

11. What is group with the responsibility for reviewing and approving changes to baselines?
a) Software Configuration Item
b) Baseline
c) Configuration
d) Configuration Control Board

12. In many settings PM is a center of communication hub
a) True
b) False

13. What is a specific instance of a baseline or configuration item?
a) Software
b) Configuration
c) Version
d) Status Accounting

Set 2

1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned

2. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group

4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
d) None of the mentioned

5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution

6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing

7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned

8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned

9. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance

10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False

Set 3

1. What are the problems with re-structuring?
a) Loss of comments
b) Loss of documentation
c) Heavy computational demands
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is not a module type?
a) Object modules
b) Hardware modules
c) Functional modules
d) Process support modules

3. Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a) Internal data structures
b) Database structures
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

4. Forward engineering is not necessary if an existing software product is producing the correct output.
a) True
b) False

5. Which of the following is not an example of a business process?
a) designing a new product
b) hiring an employee
c) purchasing services
d) testing software

6. Which of the following is a data problem?
a) hardware problem
b) record organisation problems
c) heavy computational demands
d) loss of comments

7. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
b) when system crashes frequently
c) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete
d) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance

8. Which of the following is not a business goal of re-engineering ?
a) Cost reduction
b) Time reduction
c) Maintainability
d) None of the mentioned

9. Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured?
a) Higher quality programs
b) Reduced maintenance effort
c) Software easier to test
d) All of the mentioned

10. Data re-engineering may be part of the process of migrating from a file-based system to a DBMS-based system or changing from one DBMS to another.
a) True
b) False

11. BPR stands for
a) Business process re-engineering
b) Business product re-engineering
c) Business process requirements
d) None of the mentioned

12. Source code translation is a part of which re-engineering technique?
a) Data re-engineering
b) Re-factoring
c) Restructuring
d) None of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Which of the following is not a phase of “bath tub curve” of hardware reliability?
a) Useful Life
b) Burn-in
c) Wear-out
d) Time

2. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?
a) direct relation
b) inverse relation
c) no relation
d) none of the mentioned

3. How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 11
d) 8

4. Which one of the following is not a software quality model?
a) ISO 9000
b) McCall model
c) Boehm model
d) ISO 9126

5. What is MTTF ?
a) Maximum time to failure
b) Mean time to failure
c) Minimum time to failure
d) None of the mentioned

6. How is software reliability defined?
a) time
b) efficiency
c) quality
d) speed

7. Suitability, Accuracy, Interpolability and security are what type quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?
a) Reliability
b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
d) Usability

8. Time Behavior and Resource Behavior fall under which quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?
a) Reliability
b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
d) Usability

9. NHPP stands for
a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
b) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
c) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
d) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

10. The CMM model is a technique to
a) automatically maintain the software reliability
b) improve the software process.
c) test the software
d) all of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Which one is not a software quality model?
a) ISO 9000
b) McCall model
c) Boehm model
d) ISO 9126

2. How many levels are present in CMM?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six

3. Which level of CMM is for process management?
a) Initial
b) Repeatable
c) Defined
d) Optimizing

4. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a part of
a) maintainability
b) portability
c) efficiency
d) usability

5. Which of the following is not a Probabilistic Model?
a) Error seeding
b) NHPP
c) Input domain
d) Halstead’s software metric

6. Software reliability is defined with respect to
a) time
b) bugs
c) failures
d) quality

7. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting
a) MTTR
b) MTTF
c) MTSF
d) MTBF

8. MTTF stands for
a) Minimum time to failure
b) Mean time to failure
c) Maximum time to failure
d) None of the mentioned

9. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed hardware module.
a) True
b) False

10. IMC Networks is a leading ________ certified manufacturer of optical networking and LAN/WAN connectivity solutions for enterprise, telecommunications and service provider applications.
a) Telco Systems
b) D-Link
c) Arista Networks
d) ISO 9001

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Reuse-based software engineering is a software engineering strategy where the development process is geared to reusing existing software.
a) True
b) False

2. The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at
a) free of cost
b) low cost
c) high cost
d) short period of time

3. Consider the example and categorize it accordingly, “A pattern-matching system developed as part of a text-processing system may be reused in a database management system”.
a) Application system reuse
b) Component reuse
c) Object and function reuse
d) None of the mentioned

4. COTS stands for
a) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems
b) Commercial Off-The-Shelf states
c) Commercial Off-The-System state
d) None of the mentioned

5. COTS product reuse means
a) Class and function libraries that implement commonly used abstractions are available for reuse
b) Shared components are woven into an application at different places when the program is compiled
c) Large-scale systems that encapsulate generic business functionality and rules are configured for an organization
d) Systems are developed by configuring and integrating existing application systems

6. .NET are specific to which platform?
a) Java
b) Mac-OS
c) Microsoft
d) LINUX

7. Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific subsystem or application?
a) Software reuse
b) Object-oriented programming language
c) Framework
d) None of the mentioned

8. “An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in one company and a distributed process in another.” Which category the example belong to?
a) Process specialization
b) Platform specialization
c) Environment specialization
d) Functional specialization

9. What are generic application systems that may be designed to support a particular business type, activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise?
a) COTS-solution systems
b) COTS-integrated systems
c) ERP systems
d) Both COTS-solution and COTS-integrated systems

10. Which of the following is not an advantages of software reuse?
a) lower costs
b) faster software development
c) high effectiveness
d) lower risks

11. ERP stands for
a) Effective Reuse Planning
b) Enterprise Resource Planning
c) Effective Research Planning
d) None of the mentioned

12. Which framework class include standards and classes that support component communication and information exchange?
a) System infrastructure frameworks
b) Middleware integration frameworks
c) Enterprise application frameworks
d) MVC

Set 2

1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned

3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned

4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks

6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment

7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection

8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks

10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk

Set 3

1. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy
d) None of the mentioned

3. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group

4. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
d) All of the mentioned

5. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented?
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.”
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned

6. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
d) All of the mentioned

7. Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated?
a) Error description is unintelligible
b) Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
d) Error description provide enough information to assist in the location of the cause of the error

8. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing

9. Which of the following is not regression test case?
a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions
b) Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change
c) Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed
d) Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function

10. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing

11. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta

12. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) True
b) False

Set 4

1. Which of the following term describes testing?
a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
d) None of the mentioned

2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Yellow box testing
d) Green box testing

3. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
a) Run chart
b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
d) None of the mentioned

4. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
a) Retesting
b) Sanity testing
c) Breadth test and depth test
d) Confirmation testing

5. White Box techniques are also classified as
a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
d) None of the mentioned

6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible

7. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
d) All of the mentioned

8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) All of the mentioned

9. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
d) None of the mentioned

10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
b) User’s end
c) Developer’s & User’s end
d) None of the mentioned

Set 5

1. What do you understand by V&V in software testing?
a) Verified Version
b) Version Validation
c) Verification and Validation
d) Version Verification

2. In static test techniques, behavioral and performance properties of the program are observed.
a) True
b) False

3. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation?
a) Unit Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) Acceptance Testing
d) Regression Testing

4. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modification, in order to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults?
a) Regression Test
b) Smoke Test
c) Alpha Test
d) Beta Test

5. Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?
a) All Statements Coverage
b) Control Structure Coverage
c) Cause-Effect Graphs
d) All Paths Coverage

6. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a
a) Test plan
b) Test case
c) Test document
d) Test Suite

7. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its valid range?
a) Boundary value testing
b) Equivalence class partitioning
c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning
d) Decision tables

8. A white box test scales up well at different granularity levels of testing.
a) True
b) False

9. When does the testing process stops?
a) When resources (time and budget) are over
b) When some coverage is reached
c) When quality criterion is reached
d) Testing never ends

10. Which of the following is not a part of a test design document?
a) Test Plan
b) Test Design Specification
c) Test Case Specification
d) Test Log

11. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as
a) Test case generation
b) Test case design
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

12. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of architectural design.
a) True
b) False

13. PRD stands for
a) Product Requirement Document
b) Project Requirement Document
c) Product Restrictions Document
d) None of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Standard Enforcer is a
a) Static Testing Tool
b) Dynamic Testing
c) Static & Dynamic Testing
d) None of the mentioned

2. Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for
a) Non-Code Source Statement
b) Non Comment Source Sentence
c) Non-Comment Source Statement
d) All of the mentioned

3. Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing standards in a uniform way of many programs?
a) Static Analyzer
b) Code Inspector
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer

4. Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as
a) alpha testing
b) beta testing
c) regression testing
d) none of the mentioned

5. Which of the following testing tools examine program systematically & automatically ?
a) Code Inspector
b) Static Analyzer
c) Standard Enforcer
d) Coverage Analyzer

6. Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs ?
a) Test/File Generator
b) Test Harness System
c) Test Archiving Systems
d) Coverage Analyzer

7. Beta Testing is done by
a) Developers
b) Testers
c) Users
d) All of the mentioned

8. Standard enforcer tool looks at the whole program.
a) True
b) False

9. Debugging Program is a program which runs concurrently with the program under test & provide commands to
a) examine memory & registers
b) stop execution at a particular point
c) search for references for particular variables, constant and registers
d) all of the mentioned

10. Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known as
a) Test File Generator
b) Coverage Analyzer
c) Output Comparator
d) Test Harness System

Set 2

1. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned

2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People

3. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis

4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned

5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned

6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage

7. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors

8. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All of the mentioned

9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
d) All of the mentioned

10. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project

Set 3

1. Object oriented analysis and design can be handled by the one who knows UML.
a) True
b) False

2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include
a) operations only
b) attributes only
c) both operations and attributes
d) none of the mentioned

3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams.
a) They can be used to discover parallel activities
b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back to object models
d) All of the mentioned

4. Constraints can be represented in UML by
a) {text}
b) [text].
c) Constraint
d) None of the mentioned

5. What is an object?
a) An object is an instance of a class
b) An object includes encapsulation of data
c) An object is not an instance of a class
d) All of the mentioned

6. What is an abstract class?
a) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
b) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
d) All of the mentioned

7. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams
a) Generalization
b) Include
c) Extend
d) All of the mentioned

8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about interaction diagrams?
a) Interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal with one main design flow and not multiple variants that can happen
b) Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all of one use case’s functionality across multiple objects
c) Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show iteration and conditional execution for messaging between objects
d) All of the mentioned

9. UML interfaces are used to:
a) specify required services for types of objects
b) program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk
c) define executable logic to reuse across classes
d) define an API for all classes

10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow indicates:
a) Navigability
b) Dependency
c) Association
d) Refers to

Set 4

1. Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
a) Place the user in control
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent
d) All of the mentioned

2. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?
a) Provide for flexible interaction
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c) Show technical internals from the casual user
d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen

3. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?
a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b) Interface design
c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
d) Interface validation

4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant.
a) short-term memory
b) shortcuts
c) objects that appear on the screen
d) all of the mentioned

5. Which of the following option is not considered by the Interface design?
a) the design of interfaces between software components
b) the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information
c) the design of the interface between two computers
d) all of the mentioned

6. A software might allow a user to interact via
a) keyboard commands
b) mouse movement
c) voice recognition commands
d) all of the mentioned

7. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on predefined design principles.
a) True
b) False

8. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image

9. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?
a) design model
b) user’s model
c) mental image
d) system image

10. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?
a) mental image
b) interface design
c) system image
d) interface validation

Set 5

1. CASE stands for
a) Cost Aided Software Engineering
b) Computer Aided Software Engineering
c) Control Aided Software Engineering
d) None of the mentioned

2. CASE tools are used only during the software testing phase.
a) True
b) False

3. Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool?
a) Lower
b) Classic
c) Real
d) Middle

4. What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through maintenance in CASE tools?
a) Database
b) Repository
c) Registers
d) None of the mentioned

5. What kind of support is provided by the Repository Query CASE tool?
a) Editing text and diagrams
b) Display of parts of the design texts
c) Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
d) Display of parts of the design texts AND Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing

6. What kind of support is provided by the Code Generation CASE tool?
a) Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
b) Transformation of design records into application software
c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debugging code
d) Transformation of design records into application software AND Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debugging code

7. Logical design errors can be resolved using both classic and real CASE tools.
a) True
b) False

8. CASE-generated updated documentation enables easier and more reliable identification of software failure causes.
a) True
b) False

9. What kind of support is provided by the Code Editing CASE tool?
a) Management of design documents and software code versions
b) Transformation of design records into application software
c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debugging code
d) None of the mentioned

10. Use of the repository assures automated coding and documentation of corrections.
a) True
b) False

11. Which of the following is a drawback of using CASE tool?
a) Standardization of notations and diagrams
b) Communication between development team member
c) Costs associated with the use of the tool
d) Reduction of time and effort

12. An upper CASE tool is also referred to as a back end CASE.
a) True
b) False

13. CASE tools are mainly used while developing which of the following methodologies?
a) RAD
b) JAD
c) OO Approach
d) All of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which web app attribute is defined by the statement:”A large number of users may access the WebApp at one time”?
a) Unpredictable load
b) Performance
c) Concurrency
d) Network intensiveness

2. Which web app attribute is defined by the statement:”The quality and aesthetic nature of content remains an important determinant of the quality of a WebApp”?
a) Availability
b) Data driven
c) Content sensitive
d) Continuous evolution

3. If the user queries a collection of large databases and extracts information from the webapp, the webapp is categorized under
a) Service oriented app
b) Database access app
c) Portal app
d) Data warehousing app

4. Which process model should be used in virtually all situations of web engineering?
a) Incremental Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Spiral Model
d) None of the mentioned

5. Which analysis is a part of Analysis model of the web engineering process framework?
a) Content Analysis
b) Interaction Analysis
c) Functional Analysis
d) All of the mentioned

6. Web development and software development are one and the same thing.
a) True
b) False

7. Web-based systems are often document-oriented containing static or dynamic content.
a) True
b) False

8. Web-based systems apply the same levels of formal planning and testing used in software development.
a) True
b) False

9. Which of the following statements are incorrect with reference to web-based systems? Web-based systems
a) should be unscalable
b) must be able to cope with uncertain, random heavy demands on services
c) must be secure
d) are subject to assorted legal, social, and ethical scrutiny

10. What category of web-based system would you assign to electronic shopping?
a) Informational
b) Interactive
c) Transaction-oriented
d) Workflow-oriented

11. What category of web-based system would you assign to discussion groups?
a) Collaborative work
b) Online communities
c) Web portals
d) Workflow-oriented

12. W3C stands for
a) World Wide Web Consortium
b) World Wide Web Collaboration
c) World Wide Web Community
d) None of the mentioned

13. Which of the following is a risk associated with using hypertext in web applications?
a) Loss of sense of locality and direction
b) Cognitive overload for users
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

Set 2

1. The user has no control over the contents of a static web page.
a) True
b) False

2. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
a) Word Token
b) Word Count
c) Word Size
d) Word Length

3. How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) No relation
d) All of the mentioned

4. It is expected to have less number of connections for a good web application.
a) True
b) False

5. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is to be built.
a) size
b) complexity
c) effort
d) all of the mentioned

6. Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two or more web pages ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Web Page Similarity
d) Number of Internal Page Links

7. Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ?
a) Content based
b) Link based
c) Usage based
d) Traffic based

8. The static content objects are dependent on the actions of the user.
a) True
b) False

9. Link based measures rely on ___________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages.
a) Embedded
b) Hyperlink
c) Dynamic
d) All of the mentioned

10. Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Number of Inherited Objects
d) Word Count

Set 3

1. Combustor is also called as _________
a) combustion
b) ramjet
c) inlet manifold
d) none of the mentioned

2. Combustor can also be called as __________
a) burner
b) ramjet
c) inlet manifold
d) none of the mentioned

3. Pressure inside the combustor is ________
a) Constant
b) Increases
c) Decreases
d) None of the mentioned

4. In _________ air is directly fed to the nozzle.
a) both of the mentioned
b) burner
c) ramjet
d) none of the mentioned

5. Flow rates are ________ in combustor.
a) high
b) low
c) medium
d) none of the mentioned

6. When 1 kg of jet fuel is produced _______ amount of co2 is released.
a) 3kg
b) 3.2kg
c) 3.4kg
d) None of the mentioned

7. Fuel that was not completely burnt is called as _______
a) Ramjets
b) UHC
c) Emissions
d) None of the mentioned

8. UHC’s are produced at _________ power levels.
a) high
b) medium
c) low
d) none of the mentioned

9. Combustors which doesn’t produce more CO doesn’t emit much UHC.
a) True
b) False

10. CO produced in combustion is eliminated by __________
a) reduction
b) oxidation
c) reduction & oxidation
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. To where does the program control transfers when exception is arised?
a) catch
b) handlers
c) throw
d) none of the mentioned

2. Which key word is used to check exception in the block of code?
a) catch
b) throw
c) try
d) none of the mentioned

3. What will happen when the exception is not caught in the program?
a) error
b) program will execute
c) block of that code will not execute
d) none of the mentioned

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int age = 0;
  6.         try 
  7.         {
  8.             if (age < 0) 
  9.             {
  10.                 throw "Positive Number Required";
  11.             }
  12.             cout << age;
  13.         }
  14.         catch(const char *Message)
  15.         {
  16.             cout << "Error: " << Message;
  17.         }
  18.         return 0;
  19.     }

a) 0
b) error:Positive Number Required
c) compile time error
d) none of the mentioned

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     void PrintSequence(int StopNum)
  4.     {
  5.         int Num;
  6.         Num = 1;
  7.         while (true) 
  8.         {
  9.             if (Num >= StopNum)
  10.                 throw Num;
  11.             cout << Num;
  12.             Num++;
  13.         }
  14.     }
  15.     int main(void)
  16.     {
  17.         try 
  18.         {
  19.             PrintSequence(20);
  20.         }
  21.         catch(int ExNum)
  22.         {
  23.             cout << "Caught an exception with value: " << ExNum;
  24.         }
  25.         return 0;
  26.     }

a) compile time error
b) prints first 19 numbers
c) prints first 19 numbers and throws exception at 20
d) none of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     double division(int a, int b)
  4.     {
  5.         if (b == 0) 
  6.         {
  7.             throw "Division by zero condition!";
  8.         }
  9.         return (a / b);
  10.     }
  11.     int main ()
  12.     {
  13.         int x = 50;
  14.         int y = 2;
  15.         double z = 0;
  16.         try 
  17.         {
  18.             z = division(x, y);
  19.             cout << z;
  20.         }
  21.         catch(const char *msg) 
  22.         {
  23.             cerr << msg;
  24.         }
  25.         return 0;
  26.     }

a) 25
b) 20
c) Division by zero condition!
d) None of the mentioned

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         char* buff;
  6.         try 
  7.         {
  8.             buff = new char[1024];
  9.             if (buff == 0)
  10.                throw "Memory allocation failure!";
  11.             else
  12.                cout << sizeof(buff) << "Byte successfully allocated!"<<endl;
  13.         }
  14.         catch(char *strg)
  15.         {
  16.             cout<<"Exception raised: "<<strg<<endl;
  17.         }
  18.         return 0;
  19.     }

a) 4 Bytes allocated successfully
b) 8 Bytes allocated successfully
c) Memory allocation failure
d) Depends on the size of data type

8. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     void Funct();
  4.     int main()
  5.     {
  6.         try 
  7.         {
  8.             Funct();
  9.         }
  10.         catch(double) 
  11.         {
  12.             cerr << "caught a double type..." << endl;
  13.         }
  14.         return 0;
  15.     }
  16.     void Funct()
  17.     {
  18.         throw 3;
  19.     }

a) caught a double type
b) compile time error
c) abnormal program termination
d) none of the mentioned

9. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <exception>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int main()
  5.     {
  6.         try 
  7.         {
  8.             int * array1 = new int[100000000];
  9.             int * array2 = new int[100000000];
  10.             int * array3 = new int[100000000];
  11.             int * array4 = new int[100000000];
  12.             cout << "Allocated successfully";
  13.         }
  14.         catch(bad_alloc&) 
  15.         {
  16.             cout << "Error allocating the requested memory." << endl;
  17.         }
  18.         return 0;
  19.     }

a) Allocated successfully
b) Error allocating the requested memory
c) Depends on the memory of the computer
d) None of the mentioned

10. What will happen when the handler is not found for exception?
a) calls the standard library function terminate()
b) raise an error
c) executes the remaining block
d) none of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Which header file is used to pass unknown number of arguments to function?
a) stdlib.h
b) string.h
c) stdarg.h
d) none of the mentioned

2. How can you access the arguments that are manipulated in the function?
a) va_list
b) arg_list
c) both va_list & arg_list
d) none of the mentioned

3. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <stdarg.h>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     float avg( int Count, ... )
  5.     {
  6.         va_list Numbers;
  7.         va_start(Numbers, Count);
  8.         int Sum = 0;
  9.         for (int i = 0; i < Count; ++i )
  10.             Sum += va_arg(Numbers, int);
  11.         va_end(Numbers);
  12.         return (Sum/Count);
  13.     }
  14.     int main()
  15.     {
  16.         float Average = avg(10, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9);
  17.         cout << "Average of first 10 whole numbers : " << Average;
  18.         return 0;
  19.     }

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

4. What is the maximum number of arguments or parameters that can be
present in one function call?
a) 64
b) 256
c) 255
d) 16

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <stdarg.h>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int add (int num, ...)
  5.     {
  6.         int sum = 0;
  7.         va_list args;
  8.         va_start (args,num);
  9.         for (int i = 0; i < num; i++) 
  10.         {
  11.             int num = va_arg (args,int);
  12.             sum += num;
  13.         }
  14.         va_end (args);
  15.         return sum;
  16.     }
  17.     int main (void)
  18.     {
  19.         int total = add(8, 1, 2, -1, 4, 12, -2, 9, 7);
  20.         cout << "The result is " << total;
  21.         return 0;
  22.     }

a) 32
b) 23
c) 48
d) compile time error

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <stdarg.h>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     void dumplist(int, ...);
  5.     int main()
  6.     {
  7.         dumplist(2, 4, 8);
  8.         dumplist(3, 6, 9, 7);
  9.         return 0;
  10.     }
  11.     void dumplist(int n, ...)
  12.     {
  13.         va_list p;
  14.         int i;
  15.         va_start(p, n);
  16.         while (n-->0) 
  17.         {
  18.             i = va_arg(p, int);
  19.             cout << i;
  20.         }
  21.         va_end(p);
  22.     }

a) 2436
b) 48697
c) 1111111
d) compile time error

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <stdarg.h>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int flue(char c,...);
  5.     int main()
  6.     {
  7.         int x, y;
  8.         x = flue('A', 1, 2, 3);
  9.         y = flue('1', 1.0,1, '1', 1.0f, 1l);
  10.         cout << x << y;
  11.         return 0;
  12.     }
  13.     int flue(char c,...)
  14.     {
  15.         return c;
  16.     }

a) 6549
b) 4965
c) 6646
d) compile time error

8. Which header file should you include if you are to develop a function that can accept variable number of arguments?
a) varag.h
b) stdlib.h
c) stdio.h
d) stdarg.h

9. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <stdarg.h>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     void fun(std::string msg, ...);
  5.     int main()
  6.     {
  7.         fun("IndiaBIX", 1, 4, 7, 11, 0);
  8.         return 0;
  9.     }
  10.     void fun(std::string msg, ...)
  11.     {
  12.         va_list ptr;
  13.         int num;
  14.         va_start(ptr, msg);
  15.         num = va_arg(ptr, int);
  16.         num = va_arg(ptr, int);
  17.         cout << num;
  18.     }

a) 6
b) 5
c) 8
d) 4

10. What will initialize the list of arguments in stdarg.h header file?
a) va_list
b) va_start
c) va_arg
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. What does your class can hold?
a) data
b) functions
c) both data & functions
d) none of the mentioned

2. How many specifiers are present in access specifiers in class?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

3. Which is used to define the member of a class externally?
a) :
b) ::
c) #
d) none of the mentioned

4. Which other keywords are also used to declare the class other than class?
a) struct
b) union
c) object
d) both struct & union

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class rect
  4.     {
  5.         int x, y;
  6.         public:
  7.         void val (int, int);
  8.         int area ()
  9.         {
  10.             return (x * y);
  11.         }
  12.     };
  13.     void rect::val (int a, int b)
  14.     {
  15.         x = a;
  16.         y = b;
  17.     }
  18.     int main ()
  19.     {
  20.         rect rect;
  21.         rect.val (3, 4);
  22.         cout << "rect area: " << rect.area();
  23.         return 0;
  24.     }

a) rect area:12
b) rect area: 12
c) rect area:24
d) none of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class CDummy
  4.     {
  5.         public:
  6.         int isitme (CDummy& param);
  7.     };
  8.     int CDummy::isitme (CDummy& param)
  9.     {
  10.         if (&param == this)
  11.             return true;
  12.         else
  13.             return false;
  14.     }
  15.     int main ()
  16.     {
  17.         CDummy a;
  18.         CDummy *b = &a;
  19.         if (b->isitme(a)) 
  20.         {
  21.             cout << "execute";
  22.         }
  23.         else
  24.         {
  25.             cout<<"not execute";
  26.         }
  27.         return 0;
  28.     }

a) execute
b) not execute
c) none of the mentioned
d) both execute & not execute

7. Which of the following is a valid class declaration?
a) class A { int x; };
b) class B { }
c) public class A { }
d) object A { int x; };

8. The fields in the class in c++ program are by default
a) protected
b) private
c) public
d) none of the mentioned

9. Constructors are used to
a) initalize the objects
b) construct the data members
c) both initalize the objects & construct the data members
d) none of the mentioned

10. When struct is used instead of the keyword class means, what will happen in the program?
a) access is public by default
b) access is private by default
c) access is protected by default
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

1. What is the return type of the conversion operator?
a) void
b) int
c) float
d) no return type

2. Why we use the “dynamic_cast” type conversion?
a) result of the type conversion is a valid
b) to be used in low memory
c) result of the type conversion is a invalid
d) none of the mentioned

3. How many parameters does a conversion operator may take?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) as many as possible

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class sample1 
  4.     {
  5.         float i, j;
  6.     };
  7.     class sample2 
  8.     {
  9.         int x, y;
  10.         public:
  11.         sample2 (int a, int b) 
  12.         {
  13.              x = a; 
  14.              y = b;
  15.         }
  16.         int result() 
  17.         { 
  18.              return x + y;
  19.          }
  20.     };
  21.     int main () 
  22.     {
  23.         sample1 d;
  24.         sample2 * padd;
  25.         padd = (sample2*) &d;
  26.         cout < result();
  27.         return 0;
  28.     }

a) 20
b) runtime error
c) random number
d) runtime error or random number

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class sample
  4.     {
  5.         public:
  6.         sample(int i) : m_i(i) { }
  7.         public:
  8.         int operator()(int i = 0) const 
  9.         { 
  10.             return m_i + i; 
  11.         }
  12.         operator int () const   
  13.         { 
  14.             return m_i; 
  15.         }
  16.         private:
  17.         int m_i;
  18.         friend int g(const sample&);
  19.     };
  20.     int f(char c)
  21.     {
  22.         return c;
  23.     }
  24.     int main()
  25.     {
  26.         sample f(2);
  27.         cout << f(2);
  28.         return 0;
  29.     }

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) None of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <cmath>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     class Complex
  5.     {
  6.         private:
  7.         double real;
  8.         double imag;
  9.         public:
  10.         Complex(double r = 0.0, double i = 0.0) : real(r), imag(i)
  11.         {}
  12.         double mag()
  13.         {  
  14.             return getMag();
  15.         }
  16.         operator double ()
  17.         {
  18.             return getMag();
  19.         }
  20.         private:
  21.         double getMag()
  22.         {
  23.             return sqrt(real * real + imag * imag);
  24.         }
  25.     };
  26.     int main()
  27.     {
  28.         Complex com(3.0, 4.0);
  29.         cout << com.mag();
  30.         cout << com;
  31.         return 0
  32.     }

a) 5 5
b) 4 5
c) 6 6
d) None of the mentioned

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <string>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     class test
  5.     {
  6.         public:
  7.         operator string () 
  8.         {  
  9.             return "Converted";
  10.         }
  11.     };
  12.     int main()
  13.     {
  14.         test t;
  15.         string s = t;
  16.         cout << s << endl;
  17.         return 0;
  18.     }

a) converted
b) error
c) run time error
d) none of the mentioned

8. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         double a = 21.09399;
  6.         float b = 10.20;
  7.         int c ;
  8.         c = (int) a;
  9.         cout << c ;
  10.         c = (int) b;
  11.         cout << c ;
  12.         return 0;
  13.     }

a) 2110
b) 1210
c) 21
d) None of the mentioned

9. How types are there in user defined conversion?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

10. Pick out the correct syntax of operator conversion.
a) operator float()const
b) operator float()
c) operator const
d) none of the mentioned

Set 3

Here is a listing of online C++ quiz on “Design of Class Hierarchies” along with answers, explanations and/or solutions:

1. Which interface determines how your class will be used by other program?
a) public
b) private
c) protected
d) none of the mentioned

2. Pick out the correct statement about override.
a) Overriding refers to a derived class function that has the same name and signature as a base class virtual function
b) Overriding has different names
c) Overriding refers to a derived class
d) None of the mentioned

3. How many ways of reusing are there in class hierarchy?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

4. How many types of class are there in c++?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class BaseClass 
  4.     {
  5.         int i;
  6.         public:
  7.         void setInt(int n);
  8.         int getInt();
  9.     };
  10.     class DerivedClass : public BaseClass
  11.     {
  12.         int j;
  13.         public:
  14.         void setJ(int n);
  15.         int mul();
  16.     };
  17.     void BaseClass::setInt(int n)
  18.     {
  19.         i = n;
  20.     }
  21.     int BaseClass::getInt()
  22.     {
  23.         return i;
  24.     }
  25.     void DerivedClass::setJ(int n)
  26.     {
  27.         j = n;
  28.     }
  29.     int DerivedClass::mul()
  30.     {
  31.         return j * getInt();
  32.     }
  33.     int main()
  34.     {
  35.         DerivedClass ob;
  36.         ob.setInt(10);       
  37.         ob.setJ(4);          
  38.         cout << ob.mul();    
  39.         return 0;
  40.     }

a) 10
b) 4
c) 40
d) None of the mentioned

6. Pick out the correct statement about multiple inheritance.
a) Deriving a class from one direct base class
b) Deriving a class from more than one direct base class
c) Deriving a class from more than one direct derived class
d) None of the mentioned

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class BaseClass 
  4.     {
  5.         int x;
  6.         public:
  7.         void setx(int n) 
  8.         {
  9.             x = n;
  10.         }
  11.         void showx() 
  12.         {
  13.             cout << x ;
  14.         }
  15.     };
  16.     class DerivedClass : private BaseClass
  17.     {
  18.         int y;
  19.         public:
  20.         void setxy(int n, int m)
  21.         {
  22.             setx(n);      
  23.             y = m;
  24.         }
  25.         void showxy() 
  26.         {
  27.             showx();       
  28.             cout << y << 'n';
  29.         }
  30.     };
  31.     int main()
  32.     {
  33.         DerivedClass ob;
  34.         ob.setxy(10, 20);
  35.         ob.showxy();
  36.         return 0;
  37.     }

a) 10
b) 20
c) 1020
d) None of the mentioned

8. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class BaseClass 
  4.     {
  5.         public:
  6.         virtual void myFunction()
  7.         {
  8.             cout << "1";
  9.         }
  10.     };
  11.     class DerivedClass1 : public BaseClass 
  12.     {
  13.         public:
  14.         void myFunction()
  15.         {
  16.             cout << "2";
  17.         }
  18.     };
  19.    class DerivedClass2 : public DerivedClass1 
  20.     {
  21.         public:
  22.         void myFunction()
  23.         {
  24.             cout << "3";
  25.         }
  26.     };
  27.     int main()
  28.     {
  29.         BaseClass *p;
  30.         BaseClass ob;
  31.         DerivedClass1 derivedObject1;
  32.         DerivedClass2 derivedObject2;
  33.         p = &ob;
  34.         p -> myFunction();
  35.         p = &derivedObject1;
  36.         p -> myFunction();
  37.         p = &derivedObject2;
  38.         p -> myFunction();
  39.         return 0;
  40.     }

a) 123
b) 12
c) 213
d) 321

9. What does inheriatance allows you to do?
a) create a class
b) create a hierarchy of classes
c) access methods
d) none of the mentioned

10. What is the syntax of inheritance of class?
a) class name
b) class name : access specifer
c) class name : access specifer class name
d) none of the mentioned

Set 4

1. What is the use of function call operator?
a) overloading the methods
b) overloading the objects
c) overloading the parameters
d) none of the mentioned

2. Pick out the correct statement.
a) virtual functions does not give the ability to write a templated function
b) virtual functions does not give the ability to rewrite a templated function
c) virtual functions does give the ability to write a templated function
d) none of the mentioned

3. What will happen when the function call operator is overloaded?
a) It will not modify the functions
b) It will modify the functions
c) It will modify the object
d) It will modify the operator to be interpreted

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class Distance
  4.     {
  5.         private:
  6.         int feet;
  7.         int inches;
  8.         public:
  9.         Distance()
  10.         {
  11.             feet = 0;
  12.             inches = 0;
  13.         }
  14.         Distance(int f, int i) 
  15.         {
  16.             feet = f;
  17.             inches = i;
  18.         }
  19.         Distance operator()(int a, int b, int c)
  20.         {
  21.             Distance D;
  22.             D.feet = a + c + 10;
  23.             D.inches = b + c + 100 ;
  24.             return D
  25.         }
  26.         void displayDistance()
  27.         {
  28.             cout  << feet <<  inches << endl;
  29.         }
  30.     };
  31.     int main()
  32.     {
  33.         Distance D1(11, 10), D2;
  34.         cout << "First Distance : ";
  35.         D1.displayDistance();
  36.         D2 = D1(10, 10, 10);
  37.         cout << "Second Distance :";
  38.         D2.displayDistance();
  39.         return 0;
  40.     }

a) First Distance : 1110
Second Distance :30120
b) First Distance : 110
Second Distance :3020
c) First Distance : 1115
Second Distance :30125
d) none of the mentioned

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     void duplicate (int& a, int& b, int& c)
  4.     {
  5.         a *= 2;
  6.         b *= 2;
  7.         c *= 2;
  8.     }
  9.     int main ()
  10.     {
  11.         int x = 1, y = 3, z = 7;
  12.         duplicate (x, y, z);
  13.         cout << x << y << z;
  14.         return 0;
  15.     }

a) 1468
b) 2812
c) 2614
d) none of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     class three_d 
  4.     {
  5.         int x, y, z;
  6.         public:
  7.         three_d() { x = y = z = 0; }
  8.         three_d(int i, int j, int k) { x = i; y = j; z = k; }
  9.         three_d operator()(three_d obj);
  10.         three_d operator()(int a, int b, int c);
  11.         friend ostream &operator<<(ostream &strm, three_d op);
  12.     };
  13.     three_d three_d::operator()(three_d obj)
  14.     {
  15.         three_d temp;
  16.         temp.x = (x + obj.x) / 2;
  17.         temp.y = (y + obj.y) / 2;
  18.         temp.z = (z + obj.z) / 2;
  19.         return temp;
  20.     }
  21.     three_d three_d::operator()(int a, int b, int c)
  22.     {
  23.         three_d temp;
  24.         temp.x = x + a;
  25.         temp.y = y + b;
  26.         temp.z = z + c;
  27.         return temp;
  28.     }
  29.         ostream &operator<<(ostream &strm, three_d op) {
  30.         strm << op.x << ", " << op.y << ", " << op.z << endl;
  31.         return strm;
  32.     }
  33.     int main()
  34.     {
  35.         three_d objA(1, 2, 3), objB(10, 10, 10), objC;
  36.         objC = objA(objB(100, 200, 300));
  37.         cout << objC;
  38.         return 0;
  39.     }

a) 55, 106, 156
b) 55, 106
c) 55, 106, 159
d) none of the mentioned

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include 
  2.     #include 
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     class Complex
  5.     {
  6.         private:
  7.         float real;
  8.         float imag;
  9.         public:
  10.         Complex():real(0), imag(0){}
  11.         Complex operator ()(float re, float im)
  12.         {
  13.             real += re;
  14.             imag += im;
  15.             return *this;
  16.         }
  17.         Complex operator() (float re)
  18.         {
  19.             real += re;
  20.             return *this;
  21.         }
  22.         void display()
  23.         {
  24.             cout << "(" << real << "," << imag << ")" << endl;
  25.         }
  26.     };
  27.     int main()
  28.     {
  29.         Complex c1, c2;
  30.         c2 = c1(3.2, 5.3);
  31.         c1(6.5, 2.7);
  32.         c2(1.9);
  33.         cout << "c2=";c1.display();
  34.         cout << "c2=";c2.display();
  35.         return 0;
  36.     }

a) c2=(9.7,8)
c2=(5.1,5.3)
b) c2=(9,8)
c2=(5,5)
c) c2=(4.7,8)
c2=(2.1,5.3)
d) none of the mentioned

8. In which form does the function call operator can be overloaded?
a) static member function
b) non-static member function
c) dynamis_cast
d) static_cast

9. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int operate (int a, int b)
  4.     {
  5.         return (a * b);
  6.     }
  7.     float operate (float a, float b)
  8.     {
  9.         return (a / b);
  10.     }
  11.     int main ()
  12.     {
  13.         int x = 5, y = 2;
  14.         float n = 5.0, m = 2.0;
  15.         cout << operate (x, y);
  16.         cout << operate (n, m);
  17.         return 0;
  18.     }

a) 119
b) 102.5
c) 123.4
d) none of the mentioned

10. What is the use of functor?
a) It makes the object “callable” like a function
b) It makes the class “callable” like a function
c) It makes the attribute “callable” like a function
d) None of the mentioned

Set 5

1. Which operator works only with integer variables?
a) increment
b) decrement
c) both increment & decrement
d) none of the mentioned

2. How many types are there in increment/decrement operator?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

3. Pick out the correct statement.
a) Increment operator ++ adds 1 to its operand
b) Increment operator ++ adds 2 to its operand
c) Decrement operator ++ subtracts 1 to its operand
d) None of the mentioned

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h> 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int a = 21;
  6.         int c ;
  7.         c = a++;
  8.         cout << c;  
  9.         return 0;
  10.     }

a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 20

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h> 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int x = 5, y = 5;
  6.         cout << ++x << --y << endl;
  7.         return 0;
  8.     }

a) 55
b) 64
c) 46
d) 45

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h> 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int x = 5, y = 5, z;
  6.         x = ++x; y = --y;
  7.         z = x++ + y--;
  8.         cout << z;
  9.         return 0;
  10.     }

a) 10
b) 11
c) 9
d) 12

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>  
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int x = 5, y = 5, z;
  6.         x = ++x; y = --y;
  7.         z = x + ++x;
  8.         cout << z;
  9.         return 0;
  10.     }

a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14

8. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h> 
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int num1 = 5;
  6.         int num2 = 3;
  7.         int num3 = 2;
  8.         num1 = num2++;
  9.         num2 = --num3;
  10.         cout << num1 << num2 << num3;
  11.         return 0;
  12.     }

a) 532
b) 235
c) 312
d) 311

9. Pick out the correct statement
a) Preincrement is faster than postincrement
b) postincrement is faster than preincrement
c) pretincrement is slower than postincrement
d) none of the mentioned

10. Which concepts does the preincrement uses?
a) call by value
b) call by reference
c) queue
d) none of the mentioned

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. which of the following is used to implement the c++ interfaces?
a) absolute variables
b) abstract classes
c) constant variables
d) none of the mentioned

2. What is the ability to group some lines of code that can be included
in the program?
a) specific task
b) program control
c) modularization
d) macros

3. How many types does functions fall depends on modularization?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

4. How many types of modularization are there in c++?
a) 4
b) 3
C) 1
d) none of the mentioned

5. What does the client module import?
a) macro
b) records
c) interface
d) none of the mentioned

6. Identify the correct statement.
a) c++ does not have built-in interfaces
b) c++ does have built-in interfaces
c) c++ have no cocept of interfaces
d) none of the mentioned

7. What is similar to interface in c++
a) methods
b) instance of class
c) pure abstract class
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which of the following implements the module in the program?
a) macro
b) header files
c) macro& header files
d) none of the mentioned

Set 2

Here is a listing of online C++ quiz on “String Class” along with answers, explanations and/or solutions:

1. How many types of representation are in string?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

2. What is the header file for the string class?

a) #include<ios>
b) #include<str>
c) #include<string>
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which is used to return the number of characters in the string?
a) length
b) size
c) both size & length
d) none of the mentioned

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <cstring>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int main ()
  5.     {
  6.         char str1[10] = "Hello";
  7.         char str2[10] = "World";
  8.         char str3[10];
  9.         int  len ;
  10.         strcpy( str3, str1);
  11.         strcat( str1, str2)
  12.         len = strlen(str1);
  13.         cout << len << endl;
  14.         return 0;
  15.     }

a) 5
b) 55
c) 11
d) 10

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <string>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int main ()
  5.     {
  6.         string str ("microsoft");
  7.         string::reverse_iterator r;
  8.         for (r = str.rbegin() ; r < str.rend(); r++ )
  9.             cout << *r;
  10.         return 0;
  11.     }

a) microsoft
b) micro
c) tfosorcim
d) tfos

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.    #include <iostream>
  2.    #include <string>
  3.    using namespace std;
  4.    int main ()
  5.    {
  6.        string str ("nobody does like this");
  7.        string key ("nobody");
  8.        size_t f;
  9.        f = str.rfind(key);
  10.        if (f != string::npos)
  11.            str.replace (f, key.length(), "everybody");
  12.        cout << str << endl;
  13.        return 0;
  14.    }

a) nobody does like this
b) nobody
c) everybody
d) everybody does like this

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <string>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int main ()
  5.     {
  6.         string str ("steve jobs is legend");
  7.         string::iterator it;
  8.         str.erase (str.begin()+ 5, str.end()-7);
  9.         cout << str << endl;      
  10.         return 0;
  11.     }

a) jobs is
b) steve legend
c) steve
d) none of the mentioned

8. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <string>
  3.     using namespace std;
  4.     int main ()
  5.     {
  6.         string str ("Microsoft");
  7.         for (size_t i = 0; i < str.length();)
  8.         {
  9.             cout << str.at(i-1);
  10.         }
  11.         return 0;
  12.     }

a) M
b) Microsoft
c) Micro
d) runtime error

9. What is the output of this program?

  1.    #include <iostream>
  2.    #include <string>
  3.    using namespace std;
  4.    int main ()
  5.    {
  6.        string str ("Ubuntu");
  7.        cout << str.capacity();
  8.        cout << str.max_size();
  9.        return 0;
  10.    }

a) 61073741820
b) 51073741820
c) 6 and max size depends on compiler
d) none of the mentioned

10. Which method do we use to append more than one character at a time?
a) append
b) operator+=
c) data
d) both append & operator+=

Set 3

1. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int i;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         extern int i;
  6.         if (i == 0)
  7.             printf("scope rulesn");
  8.     }

a) scope rules
b) Compile time error due to multiple declaration
c) Compile time error due to not defining type in statement extern i
d) Nothing as i value is not zero being automatic variable

2. What is the output of this C code (without linking the source file in which ary1 is defined)?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main()
  3.     {
  4.         extern ary1[];
  5.         printf("scope rulesn");
  6.     }

a) scope rules
b) Linking error due to undefined reference
c) Compile time error because size of array is not provided
d) Compile time error because datatype of array is not provided

3. What is the output of this C code after linking with source file having definition of ary1?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main()
  3.     {
  4.         extern ary1[];
  5.         printf("%dn", ary1[0]);
  6.     }

a) Value of ary1[0]

b) Compile time error due to multiple definition
c) Compile time error because size of array is not provided
d) Compile time error because datatype of array is not provided

4. What is the scope of an external variable?
a) Whole source file in which it is defined
b) From the point of declaration to the end of the file in which it is defined
c) Any source file in a program
d) From the point of declaration to the end of the file being compiled

5. What is the scope of a function?
a) Whole source file in which it is defined
b) From the point of declaration to the end of the file in which it is defined
c) Any source file in a program
d) From the point of declaration to the end of the file being compiled

6. Comment on the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main()
  3.     {
  4.         int i;
  5.         for (i = 0;i < 5; i++)
  6.         int a = i;
  7.         printf("%d", a);
  8.     }

a) a is out of scope when printf is called
b) Redeclaration of a in same scope throws error
c) Syntax error in declaration of a
d) No errors, program will show the output 5

7. Which variable has the longest scope?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int b;
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         int c;
  6.         return 0;
  7.     }
  8.     int a;

a) a
b) b
c) c
d) Both a and b

8. Comment on the output of this 2 C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h> //Program 1
  2.     int main()
  3.     {
  4.         int a;
  5.         int b;
  6.         int c;
  7.     }
  8.  
  9.     #include <stdio.h> //Program 2
  10.     int main()
  11.     {
  12.         int a;
  13.         {
  14.             int b;
  15.         }
  16.         {
  17.             int c;
  18.         }
  19.     }

a) They are both the same
b) Scope of C is till the end of program
c) All operation in Program 1 can also be performed in Program 2
d) None of the mentioned

Set 4

1. The scope of an automatic variable is:
a) Within the block it appears
b) Within the blocks of the block it appears
c) Until the end of program
d) Within the block it appears & Within the blocks of the block it appears

2. Automatic variables are allocated space in the form of a:
a) stack
b) queue
c) priority queue
d) random

3. Which of the following is a storage specifier?
a) enum
b) union
c) auto
d) volatile

4. Default storage class if not any is specified for a local variable, is auto
a) true
b) false
c) Depends on the standard
d) None of the mentioned

5. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     void foo(auto int i);
  3.     int main()
  4.     {
  5.         foo(10);
  6.     }
  7.     void foo(auto int i)
  8.     {
  9.         printf("%dn", i );
  10.     }

a) 10
b) Compile time error
c) Depends on the standard
d) None of the mentioned

6. Automatic variables are stored in
a) stack
b) data segment
c) register
d) heap

7. What linkage does automatic variables have?
a) Internal linkage
b) External linkage
c) No linkage
d) None of the mentioned

8. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main()
  3.     {
  4.         auto i = 10;
  5.         const auto int *p = &i;
  6.         printf("%dn", i);
  7.     }

a) 10
b) Compile time error
c) Depends on the standard
d) Depends on the compiler

Set 5

Here is a listing of online C quiz on “Basics of Structures” along with answers, explanations and/or solutions:

1. Which of the following are themselves a collection of different data types?
a) string
b) structures
c) char
d) all of the mentioned

2. User-defined data type can be derived by___________
a) struct
b) enum
c) typedef
d) all of the mentioned

3. Which operator connects the structure name to its member name?
a) –
b) <-
c) .
d) Both <- and .

4. Which of the following cannot be a structure member?
a) Another structure
b) Function
c) Array
d) None of the mentioned

5. Which of the following structure declaration will throw an error?
a) struct temp{}s;
    main(){}
b) struct temp{};
    struct temp s;
    main(){}
c) struct temp s;
    struct temp{};
    main(){}
d) None of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct student
  3.     {
  4.         int no;
  5.         char name[20];
  6.     }
  7.     void main()
  8.     {
  9.         struct student s;
  10.         s.no = 8;
  11.         printf("hello");
  12.     }

a) Compile time error
b) Nothing
c) hello
d) Varies

7. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct student
  3.     {
  4.         int no = 5;
  5.         char name[20];
  6.     };
  7.     void main()
  8.     {
  9.         struct student s;
  10.         s.no = 8;
  11.         printf("hello");
  12.     }

a) Nothing
b) Compile time error
c) hello
d) Varies

8. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct student
  3.     {
  4.         int no;
  5.         char name[20];
  6.     };
  7.     void main()
  8.     {
  9.         student s;
  10.         s.no = 8;
  11.         printf("hello");
  12.     }

a) Nothing
b) hello
c) Compile time error
d) Varies

9. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     void main()
  3.     {
  4.         struct student
  5.         {
  6.             int no;
  7.             char name[20];
  8.         };
  9.         struct student s;
  10.         s.no = 8;
  11.         printf("%d", s.no);
  12.     }

a) Nothing
b) Compile time error
c) Junk
d) 8

10. Can the above code be compiled successfully?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct p
  3.     {
  4.         int k;
  5.         char c;
  6.         float f;
  7.     };
  8.     int main()
  9.     {
  10.         struct p x = {.c = 97, .f = 3, .k = 1};
  11.         printf("%fn", x.f);
  12.     }

a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on the standard
d) Depends on the platform

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct p
  3.     {
  4.         int x;
  5.         char y;
  6.     };
  7.     int main()
  8.     {
  9.         struct p p1[] = {1, 92, 3, 94, 5, 96};
  10.         struct p *ptr1 = p1;
  11.         int x = (sizeof(p1) / 3);
  12.         if (x == sizeof(int) + sizeof(char))
  13.             printf("%dn", ptr1->x);
  14.         else
  15.             printf("falsen");
  16.     }

a) Compile time error
b) 1
c) Undefined behaviour
d) false

2. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct p
  3.     {
  4.         int x;
  5.         char y;
  6.     };
  7.     int main()
  8.     {
  9.         struct p p1[] = {1, 92, 3, 94, 5, 96};
  10.         struct p *ptr1 = p1;
  11.         int x = (sizeof(p1) / sizeof(ptr1));
  12.         if (x == 1)
  13.             printf("%dn", ptr1->x);
  14.         else
  15.             printf("falsen");
  16.     }

a) Compile time error
b) 1
c) false
d) Undefined behaviour

3. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct p
  3.     {
  4.         int x;
  5.         char y;
  6.     };
  7.     typedef struct p* q*;
  8.     int main()
  9.     {
  10.         struct p p1[] = {1, 92, 3, 94, 5, 96};
  11.         q ptr1 = p1;
  12.         printf("%dn", ptr1->x);
  13.     }

a) Compile time error
b) 1
c) Undefined behaviour
d) Segmentation fault

4. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct p
  3.     {
  4.         int x;
  5.         char y;
  6.     };
  7.     void foo(struct p* );
  8.     int main()
  9.     {
  10.         typedef struct p* q;
  11.         struct p p1[] = {1, 92, 3, 94, 5, 96};
  12.         foo(p1);
  13.     }
  14.     void foo(struct p* p1)
  15.     {
  16.         q ptr1 = p1;
  17.         printf("%dn", ptr1->x);
  18.     }

a) Compile time error
b) 1
c) Segmentation fault
d) Undefined behaviour

5. Which of the following are incorrect syntax for pointer to structure?
    (Assuming struct temp{int b;}*my_struct;)
a) *my_struct.b = 10;
b) (*my_struct).b = 10;
c) my_struct->b = 10;
d) Both *my_struct.b = 10; and (*my_struct).b = 10;

6. Which of the following is an incorrect syntax to pass by reference a member of a structure in      a function?
    (Assume: struct temp{int a;}s;)
a) func(&s.a);
b) func(&(s).a);
c) func(&(s.a));
d) none of the mentioned

7. Which of the following structure declaration doesn’t require pass-by-reference?
a) struct{int a;}s;
    main(){}
b) struct temp{int a;};
    main(){
        struct temp s;
    }
c) struct temp{int a;};
    main(){}
    struct temp s;
d) none of the mentioned

8. For the following function call which option is not possible?
    func(&s.a); //where s is a variable of type struct and a is the member of the struct.
a) Compiler can access entire structure from the function
b) Individual member’s address can be displayed in structure
c) Individual member can be passed by reference in a function
d) None of the mentioned

9. Comment on the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct temp
  3.     {
  4.         int a;
  5.     } s;
  6.     void change(struct temp);
  7.     main()
  8.     {
  9.         s.a = 10;
  10.         change(s);
  11.         printf("%dn", s.a);
  12.     }
  13.     void change(struct temp s)
  14.     {
  15.         s.a = 1;
  16.     }

a) Output will be 1
b) Output will be 10
c) Output varies with machine
d) Compile time error

10. What is the output of this C code?

  1.  #include <stdio.h>
  2.     struct p
  3.      {
  4.         int x;
  5.         int y;
  6.     };
  7.     int main()
  8.     {
  9.         struct p p1[] = {1, 92, 3, 94, 5, 96};
  10.         struct p *ptr1 = p1;
  11.         int x = (sizeof(p1) / 5);
  12.         if (x == 3)
  13.             printf("%d %dn", ptr1->x, (ptr1 + x - 1)->x);
  14.         else
  15.             printf("falsen");
  16.     }

a) Compile time error
b) 1 5
c) Undefined behaviour
d) false

Set 2

1. Which function is not called in the following program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     void first()
  3.     {
  4.         printf("first");
  5.     }
  6.     void second()
  7.     {
  8.         first();
  9.     }
  10.     void third()
  11.     {
  12.         second();
  13.     }
  14.     void main()
  15.     {
  16.         void (*ptr)();
  17.         ptr = third;
  18.         ptr();
  19.     }

a) Function first
b) Function second
c) Function third
d) None of the mentioned

2. How to call a function without using the function name to send parameters?
a) typedefs
b) Function pointer
c) Both typedefs and Function pointer
d) None of the mentioned

3. Correct syntax to pass a Function Pointer as an argument
a) void pass(int (*fptr)(int, float, char)){}
b) void pass(*fptr(int, float, char)){}
c) void pass(int (*fptr)){}
d) void pass(*fptr){}

4. Which of the following is not possible in C?
a) Array of function pointer
b) Returning a function pointer
c) Comparison of function pointer
d) None of the mentioned

5. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     void first()
  3.     {
  4.         printf("Hello World");
  5.     }
  6.     void main()
  7.     {
  8.         void *ptr() = first;
  9.         ptr++
  10.         ptr();
  11.     }

a) Illegal application of ++ to void data type
b) pointer function initialized like a variable
c) Illegal application of ++ to void data type & pointer function initialized like a variable
d) None of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int mul(int a, int b, int c)
  3.     {
  4.         return a * b * c;
  5.     }
  6.     void main()
  7.     {
  8.         int (*function_pointer)(int, int, int);
  9.         function_pointer  =  mul;
  10.         printf("The product of three numbers is:%d",
  11.         function_pointer(2, 3, 4));
  12.     }

a) The product of three numbers is:24
b) Run time error
c) Nothing
d) Varies

7. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int mul(int a, int b, int c)
  3.     {
  4.         return a * b * c;
  5.     }
  6.     void main()
  7.     {
  8.         int (function_pointer)(int, int, int);
  9.         function_pointer = mul;
  10.         printf("The product of three numbers is:%d",
  11.         function_pointer(2, 3, 4));
  12.     }

a) The product of three numbers is:24
b) Compile time error
c) Nothing
d) Varies

8. What is the output of this C code?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     void f(int (*x)(int));
  3.     int myfoo(int);
  4.     int (*fooptr)(int);
  5.     int ((*foo(int)))(int);
  6.     int main()
  7.     {
  8.         fooptr = foo(0);
  9.         fooptr(10);
  10.     }
  11.     int ((*foo(int i)))(int)
  12.     {
  13.         return myfoo;
  14.     }
  15.     int myfoo(int i)
  16.     {
  17.         printf("%dn", i + 1);
  18.     }

a) 10
b) 11
c) Compile time error
d) Undefined behaviour

Set 3

1. H2 at 27oC with pressure 10 atm and volume 10 liter is passed through a reactor with 6 moles of oxygen, if the limiting reagent reacts completely, how many moles of oxygen is left unreacted?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6

2. N2 with pressure 10 atm and H2 with pressure 30 atm, both with volume 10 liter at 27oC are passed into a reactor, how many moles NH3 is produced?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16

3. CH4 with pressure 10 atm and volume 5 liter at 27oC is passed into a reactor with 50% excess oxygen, how many moles of oxygen is left in the products?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

4. CO with pressure 10 atm at 27oC is passed through a reactor with O2, what is the pressure of CO2 produced if 60% CO reacted?
a) 2 atm
b) 6 atm
c) 10 atm
d) 14 atm

5. Glucose with pressure 10 atm at 27oC is passed through a reactor with O2, what is the temperature of CO2 produced if pressure becomes thrice?
a) 150 K
b) 240 K
c) 300 K
d) 330 K

6. A gas mixture with 6% O2 with pressure 1 atm at 27oC is entered a reactor with rate F, and another stream with pure O2 with 2 atm pressure at 27oC entered the reactor with rate 1 liter/s, product has 10% O2 with same conditions with rate P, what is the value of F?
a) 575.5 liter/s
b) 725 liter/s
c) 895 liter/s
d) 997.5 liter/s

7. A mixture with 60% O2 and 40% H2 with pressure 5 Pa at 27oC at the rate 15 liter/s is passed through a reactor with another stream containing pure H2 with pressure 10 Pa at 27oC at the rate 5 liter/s, what is the fraction of H2 with pressure 5 Pa at 27oC in product?
a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 0.8

8. A gas mixture has 10% CH4 with pressure 5 Pa at 27oC at the rate F, is passed through a reactor with another stream containing 60% CH4 with pressure 5 Pa at -73oC at the rate 10 liter/s, if the percentage of CH4 with pressure 5 Pa at 27oC in product is 80%, what is the value of F?
a) 1 liter/s
b) 1.4 liter/s
c) 2 liter/s
d) 2.6 liter/s

9. A gas mixture with 50% H2 at the rate F is passed through a reactor and it produced a gas mixture with 80% H2 at the rate 15 liter/s, what is the value of F?
a) 5 liter/s
b) 8 liter/s
c) 15 liter/s
d) 24 liter/s

10. A gas mixture with 20% O2 with pressure 100 Pa at 27oC at the rate 50 liter/s is passed through a reactor and products a gas mixture with 40% O2 with pressure 25 Pa at 27oC, what is the rate of product?
a) 50 liter/s
b) 100 liter/s
c) 200 liter/s
d) 400 liter/s

11. A gas mixture with 10% H2 with pressure 15 Pa at 27oC at the rate 20 liter/s is passed through a reactor and products a gas mixture with 30% H2 with pressure 25 Pa at 27oC, what is the rate of product?
a) 4 liter/s
b) 10 liter/s
c) 24 liter/s
d) 30 liter/s

12. A gas mixture with 50% Ar with pressure 80 Pa at 0oC at the rate 5 liter/s is passed through a reactor and products a gas mixture with 80% Ar with pressure 50 Pa at 27oC, what is the rate of product?
a) 5 liter/s
b) 10 liter/s
c) 20 liter/s
d) 40 liter/s

13. A gas mixture with 5% Neon with pressure 10 atm at 27oC is entered a reactor with rate F, and another stream with pure Neon with 8 atm pressure at 27oC entered the reactor with rate 3 liter/s, product has 10% Neon with same conditions with rate P, what is the value of F?
a) 3 liter/s
b) 15 liter/s
c) 48 liter/s
d) 72 liter/s

14. CH4 with pressure 10 atm and volume 10 liter at 27oC is passed into a reactor with 20% excess oxygen, how many moles of oxygen is left in the products?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

15. A gas mixture with 20% Neon with pressure 3 atm at 27oC is entered a reactor with rate F, and another stream with pure Neon with 2 atm pressure at 27oC entered the reactor with rate 5 liter/s, product has 40% Neon with same conditions with rate P, what is the value of F?
a) 3 liter/s
b) 15 liter/s
c) 30 liter/s
d) 45 liter/s

Set 4

1. 10 J of heat and 5 J of work are supplied to the system, what is the change in internal energy?
a) 5 J
b) 10 J
c) 15 J
d) 20 J

2. 15 J of heat is supplied to a system and system does 5 J of work, what is the change in internal energy?
a) 5 J
b) 10 J
c) 15 J
d) 20 J

3. 5 J of heat is taken out of the system and 20 J of work is done on the system, what is the change in internal energy of the system?
a) 5 J
b) 10 J
c) 15 J
d) 20 J

4. 10 J of heat is supplied and 3 J is taken out, if the change in internal energy of the system is 5 J, what is the work done on the system?
a) 2 J
b) – 2 J
c) 5 J
d) – 5 J

5. 5 J of work is done by the system, if the change in internal energy of the system is 10 J, what is the heat supplied to the system?
a) – 5 J
b) 5 J
c) – 15 J
d) 15 J

6. 2 Kg of steam is enclosed in a container with internal energy = 5 J/Kg, then 5 J of heat is supplied to the system, what is the final internal energy?
a) 7.5 J/ Kg
b) 15 J/Kg
c) 22.5 J/Kg
d) 30 J/Kg

7. 5 Kg of steam is enclosed in a container with internal energy = 10 J/Kg, then 25 J of heat is supplied to the system, what is the final internal energy?
a) 5 J/Kg
b) 10 J/Kg
c) 15 J/Kg
d) 20 J/Kg

8. In a 2 stage process Q1 = 5 J, Q2 = 10 J, if the change in internal energy in first stage is 10 J and the total change in internal energy is 20 J, what is the work do done in second stage?
a) 0
b) 5 J
c) 10 J
d) – 5 J

9. In a 3 stage process Q1 = 10 J, Q2= – 15 J, Q3 = 25 J, if ∆E1 = 15J and ∆E3 = 10 J, what is the work done in second stage, if the total ∆E is 30 J?
a) 5 J
b) 10 J
c) 15 J
d) 20 J

10. What is the heat transferred to 2 Kg and 5 m3 of a rigid system, with change in enthalpy 5 J/Kg?
a) 5 J
b) 10 J
c) 15 J
d) 20 J

Set 5

1-4. In a process, CO2 and water is given as feed and the mass fraction is 0.25 and 0.75 respectively. The feed stream is 5 Kg/s and the product stream is 10 Kg/sec.
1. What is the feed stream of CO2 in Kg/s?
a) 0.25
b) 0.50
c) 1.25
d) 1.50

2. What is the feed stream of H2O?
a) 1.75 Kg/s
b) 2.75 Kg/s
c) 3.75 Kg/s
d) 4.75 Kg/s

3. What is the product stream of CO2?
a) 1.25 Kg/s
b) 2.50 Kg/s
c) 3.75 Kg/s
d) 5.00 Kg/s

4. What is the product stream of H2O?
a) 2.5
b) 3.5
c) 7.5
d) 10.5

5. The objective of material balance is to assess the
a) Input-output
b) Conversion efficiency
c) Losses
d) All of the mentioned

6. If feed of 100 tonnes per hour at 5% concentration is fed to a crystallizer, the product obtained at 25% concentration is equal to ___________tonnes per hour.
a) 20
b) 25
c) 35
d) 40

7. In a process, two feed A(400Kg) and B(400 Kg) is given. If the conversion is 50% and A & B converts in equal proportion, what is the weight of the product formed?
a) 200 Kg
b) 400 Kg
c) 600 Kg
d) 800 Kg

8. For a given system, Accumulation = Generation – Consumption, where both the terms are distinct and non-zero, then the system is
a) Steady-state
b) Closed
c) Non-reactive
d) None of the mentioned

9. For a given system, Accumulation = Input – Output, where both the terms are distinct and non-zero, then the system
a) Steady-state
b) Closed
c) Non-reactive
d) None of the mentioned

10. In a steady-state reactive system, 10 molar CH4 and 10 molar O2 are supplied to the system, what is the amount of CO2 produced?
a) 2.5 molar
b) 5 molar
c) 7.5 molar
d) 10 molar

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1-10. For the given inorganic chemical reaction
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Molecular weights of the species HCl, NaOH, NaCl and H2O are 36.5, 40, 58.5 and 18 gms respectively.
1. For producing 1 mole of NaCl , how many moles of NaOH are required? (Consider HCl in excess)
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6.5

2. For producing 1 mole of NaCl , how many moles of HCl are required? (Consider NaOH in excess)
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6.5

3. For producing 1 mole of H2O, how many moles of NaOH are required? (Consider HCl in excess)
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6.5

4. For producing 1 mole of H2O, how many moles of HCl are required? (Consider NaOH in excess)
a) 1
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6.5

5. If HCl is present in excess and the amount of NaOH is doubled, number of moles of NaCl will be ____________
a) Doubled
b) Half
c) Four times
d) None of the mentioned

6. If HCl is present in excess and the amount of NaOH is doubled, number of moles of H2O will be ____________
a) Doubled
b) Half
c) Four times
d) None of the mentioned

7. How many moles of NaCl can be produced with 73 gms of HCl? (Consider NaOH in excess)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned

8. How many moles of H2O can be produced with 73 gms of HCl? (Consider NaOH in excess)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None of the mentioned

9. How many gms of NaCl can be produced with 40 gms of NaOH? (Consider HCl in excess)
a) 50.8
b) 58.5
c) 60.2
d) None of the mentioned

10. How many gms of H2O can be produced with 40 gms of NaOH? (Consider HCl in excess)
a) 18
b) 36
c) 54
d) None of the mentioned

Set 2

1. Where are allocators used?
a) Allocation of memory
b) Deallocation of memory
c) Used for pointers
d) Both Allocation & Deallocation of memory

2. Where are allocators implemented?
a) Template library
b) Standard library
c) C++ code library
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which operator is used to allocate the memory?
a) =
b) +
c) new
d) free

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <memory>
  3.     #include <algorithm>
  4.     using namespace std;
  5.     int main ()
  6.     {
  7.         int numbers[] = {1, 5, 4, 5};
  8.         pair <int*, ptrdiff_t> result = get_temporary_buffer<int>(4);
  9.         if (result.second > 0)
  10.         {
  11.             uninitialized_copy (numbers, numbers + result.second, result.first);
  12.             sort (result.first, result.first + result.second);
  13.             for (int i = 0; i < result.second; i++)
  14.                 cout << result.first[i] << " ";
  15.             return_temporary_buffer (result.first);
  16.         }
  17.         return 0;
  18.     }

a) 1 5 5 4
b) 5 5 4 1
c) 1 4 5 5
d) 1 4 5 2

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <memory>
  3.     #include <string>
  4.     using namespace std;
  5.     int main ()
  6.     {
  7.         string numbers[] = {"steve", "jobs"};
  8.         pair <string*, ptrdiff_t> result = get_temporary_buffer<string>(2);
  9.         if (result.second>0) 
  10.         {
  11.             uninitialized_copy ( numbers, numbers + result.second, result.first );
  12.             for (int i = 0; i < result.second; i++)
  13.                 cout << result.first[i] << " ";
  14.             return_temporary_buffer(result.first);
  15.         }
  16.         return 0;
  17.     }

a) steve
b) jobs
c) jobs steve
d) steve jobs

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <memory>
  3.     #include <string>
  4.     using namespace std;
  5.     int main () 
  6.     {
  7.         pair <string*, ptrdiff_t>
  8.        result = get_temporary_buffer<string>(3);
  9.         if (result.second > 0)
  10.         {
  11.             uninitialized_fill ( result.first, result.first + result.second, 
  12.             "Hai" );
  13.             for (int i=0; i<result.second; i++)
  14.                 cout << result.first[i] ;
  15.             return_temporary_buffer(result.first);
  16.         }
  17.         return 0;
  18.     }

a) Hai
b) HaiHai
c) HaiHaiHai
d) None of the mentioned

7. Which operator is used to deallocate the memory?
a) destroy
b) free
c) empty
d) none of the mentioned

8. Which header file is used to manipulate the allocater?
a) allocater
b) memory
c) object
d) none of the mentioned

9. What is the use of reference member type in allocator?
a) Point to an element
b) Quantities of element
c) Reference to an element
d) None of the mentioned

10. What is the correct syntax for declaring an allocator?
a) template < class T > class allocator;
b) template < class T > class;
c) template class allocator;
d) None of the mentioned

Set 3

1. Which operator is used for input stream?
a) >
b) >>
c) <
d) <<

2. Where does a cin stops it extraction of data?
a) By seeing a blankspace
b) By seeing (
c) By seeing a blankspace & (
d) None of the mentioned

3. Which is used to get the input during runtime?
a) cout
b) cin
c) coi
d) none of the mentioned

4. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main ()
  4.     {
  5.         int i;
  6.         cout << "Please enter an integer value: ";
  7.         cin >> i + 4;
  8.         return 0;
  9.     }

a) 73
b) your value + 4
c) Error
d) None of the mentioned

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <string>
  3.     #include <sstream>
  4.     using namespace std;
  5.     int main ()
  6.     {
  7.         string mystr;
  8.         float price = 0;
  9.         int quantity = 0;
  10.         cout << "Enter price: ";
  11.         getline (cin, mystr);
  12.         stringstream(mystr) >> price;
  13.         cout << "Enter quantity: ";
  14.         getline (cin, mystr);
  15.         stringstream(mystr) >> quantity;
  16.         cout << "Total price: " << price * quantity << endl;
  17.         return 0;
  18.     }

a) 50
b) Depends on value you enter
c) Error
d) None of the mentioned

6. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     #include <ios>
  3.     #include <istream>
  4.     #include <limits>
  5.     using namespace std;
  6.     template <typename CharT>
  7.     void ignore_line ( basic_istream<CharT>& in )
  8.     {
  9.         in.ignore ( numeric_limits<streamsize> :: max(), in.widen ( 'n' ) );
  10.     }
  11.     int main()
  12.     {
  13.         cout << "First input: ";
  14.         cin.get();
  15.         cout << "Clearing cin.n";
  16.         cin.clear();
  17.         ignore_line ( cin );
  18.         cout << "All done.n";
  19.     }

a) First input
b) Clearing cin
c) Error
d) None of the mentioned

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <iostream>
  2.     using namespace std;
  3.     int main( )
  4.     {
  5.         char line[100];
  6.         cin.getline( line, 100, 't' );
  7.         cout << line;
  8.         return 0;
  9.     }

a) 100
b) t
c) It will print what we enter till character t is encountered in the input data
d) None of the mentioned

8. How many parameters are there in getline function?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 2 or 3
d) 3

9. What can be used to input a string with blankspace?
a) inline
b) getline
c) putline
d) none of the mentioned

10. When will the cin can start proceessing of input?
a) After pressing return key
b) BY pressing blankspace
c) After pressing return key & BY pressing blankspace
d) None of the mentioned

Set 4

1. Which one is always faster in writing on C++?
a) Writing to a file
b) Writing to memory
c) Reading from the network
d) None of the mentioned

2. How many tests are available in read and write operations?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

3. What will act as a intermediate between i/o operations and physical file?
a) Memory
b) Ram
c) Stream buffer
d) None of the mentioned

4. What is the output of this program in text files?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main ()
  3.     {
  4.         char buffer[BUFSIZ];
  5.         FILE *p1, *p2;
  6.         p1 = fopen ("myfile.txt", "w");
  7.         p2 = fopen ("myfile2.txt", "a");
  8.         setbuf ( p1 , buffer );
  9.         fputs ("Buffered stream", p1);
  10.         fflush (p1);
  11.         setbuf ( p2 , NULL );
  12.         fputs ("Unbuffered stream", p2);
  13.         fclose (p1);
  14.         fclose (p2);
  15.         return 0;
  16.     }

a) Buffered stream
b) Unbuffered stream
c) Error
d) Buffered & Unbuffered stream

5. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main ()
  3.     {
  4.         FILE * p;
  5.         long size;
  6.         p = fopen ("test.txt", "rb");
  7.         if (p == NULL) 
  8.             perror ("Error opening file");
  9.         else
  10.         {
  11.             fseek (p, 0, SEEK_END); 
  12.             size = ftell (p);
  13.             fclose (p);
  14.             printf (" %ldn", size);
  15.         }
  16.         return 0;
  17.     }

a) 10
b) 20
c) 5
d) Depends upon the file

6. What is the output of this program in the file?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main ()
  3.     {
  4.         freopen ("myfile.txt", "w", stdout);
  5.         printf ("This sentence is redirected to a file");
  6.         fclose (stdout);
  7.         return 0;
  8.     }

a) This sentence
b) This sentence is redirected
c) This sentence is redirected to a file
d) None of the mentioned

7. What is the output of this program?

  1.     #include <stdio.h>
  2.     int main ()
  3.     {
  4.         int n;
  5.         FILE * p;
  6.         char buffer [5];
  7.         p = fopen ("myfile.txt", "w+");
  8.         for ( n = 'A' ; n <= 'D' ; n++)
  9.         fputc ( n, p);
  10.         rewind (p);
  11.         fread (buffer, 1, 5, p);
  12.         fclose (p);
  13.         buffer[3] = '

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