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Q1: What is meant by the acronym VET

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Answer: Vocational Education and Training

Q2: What is meant by the phrase “The fundamental principal of proportionate expenditure must never be violated when selecting management and mitigation strategies”

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Answer: In other words don’t throw USD1,000 solution at a USD100 problem

Q3: What is meant by the phrase teleological ethics

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Answer: An action can only be judged by its consequences

Q4: What is meant by the term ‘management by objectives’

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Answer: The setting of objectives to bring about the achievement of the corporate goals

Q5: What is meant by the term delegation

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Answer: The giving of tasks by a manager to a subordinate

Q6: What is meant by the term functional management

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Answer: A system that groups together various jobs and is organized by departments, sections or functions

Q7: What is meant by the term: “negative word of mouth?”

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Answer: When customers tells another about the bad service they received

Q8: What is measurementship

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Answer: Trying to agree low objectives so as to look good later

Q9: What is not a true statement about Risk

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Answer: Risk planning is reactive

Q10: What is not among the tools and techniques of Organizational Planning

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Answer: Staffing management plan

Q11: What is not an example of cost of conformance to quality

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Answer: Legal liabilities

Q12: What is not handled as a constraint in project management

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Answer: Team preferences

Q13: What is not the part of an effective integrated advertising campaign

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Answer: Impact

Q14: What is one of the ways that a contract typically does not end

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Answer: extension

Q15: What is the BCG Matrix ideal for analyzing

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Answer: Companies with more than one division

Q16: What is the common goal that both direct marketers and consumers want

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Answer: all of these.—a. Honest marketing efforts. b. Well-designed marketing efforts. c. Efforts that consumers will appreciate and respond to

Q17: What is the correct statement about strategy

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Answer: All of these—a. A strategy is the means used to achieve ends b. Strategy is concerned with matching external opportunities with corporate resources at acceptable levels of profit and risks c. Strategy is the pattern of an organizations response to its environment overtime d. A strategy for a firm is a long run plan

Q18: What is the critical path through the following network

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Answer: ABDEF

Q19: What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study called

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Answer: Interim analysis

Q20: What is the defining characteristic of experimental research

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Answer: manipulation of the independent variable

Q21: What is the Delphi technique

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Answer: A consensuas technique

Q22: What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design

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Answer: A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last phase

Q23: What is the difference between strategy and tactics

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Answer: Strategy is about overall direction: tactics are about ways of getting there

Q24: What is the document that gives the PM the authority to apply organizational resources

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Answer: The Project Charter

Q25: What is the employment interview best suited to assess

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Answer: personal characteristics

Q26: What is the equation of the labour constraint line for the assembly department in this linear programme

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Answer: 3X + 2Y = 1,500 hours

Q27: What is the equation of the labour constraint line for the welding department in this linear programme

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Answer: 2X + 3Y = 1,500 hours

Q28: What is the factor which will help a project manager gain the maximum support of the assigned project personnel

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Answer: Expertise of the project manager

Q29: What is the final step in the training process

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Answer: evaluating the program’s successes or failures

Q30: What is the first decision a dissatisfied customer will make

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Answer: whether or not to take any external action

Q31: what is the first factor of industrial development

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Answer: Planning

Q32: What is the first step in succession planning

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Answer: identifying and analyzing key jobs

Q33: What is the first step in the comprehensive strategic-management model

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Answer: Developing vision and mission statements

Q34: What is the first step in the marketing research process

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Answer: Defining the problem

Q35: What is the first step in the recruitment and selection process

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Answer: deciding what positions to fill

Q36: What is the foundation for team development

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Answer: Individual development

Q37: What is the full form of IDRA

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Answer: Industrial Development Regulation Act

Q38: What is the general duty outlined under Section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974

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Answer: To ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, the health, safety and welfare at work of all his employees

Q39: What is the initial step in the selection process

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Answer: recruiting

Q40: What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research

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Answer: manipulation of the independent variable

Q41: What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation

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Answer: Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population parameter?

Q42: What is the largest media which we adopt for intensive interaction with respect to direct response

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Answer: Mail

Q43: What is the main function of the financial system

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Answer: Matching savers with investors

Q44: What is the maximum number of member of central advisory council

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Answer: 20

Q45: What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000

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Answer: 400005.20

Q46: What is the meaning of ‘ethnocentriisim’

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Answer: The believe that your own culture is superior

Q47: What is the meaning of upward appraisal

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Answer: Employees rate the performance of their manager

Q48: What is the median of the following set of scores 18, 6, 12, 10, 14

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Answer: 12

Q49: What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000

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Answer: 7

Q50: What is the most appropriate method of categorizing stakeholders

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Answer: Relative power and interest

Q51: What is the MOST correct statement about conflict

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Answer: Conflict can be beneficial

Q52: What is the most effective document to review to learn about the project’s procedure for managing risk

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Answer: a risk management plan

Q53: What is the nature of ‘costs of goods manufactured’

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Answer: It is the total manufacturing cost of materials, labor, and overhead completed during the period

Q54: What is the nature of leadership

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Answer: All of these—a. Leadership is a dynamic process b. Ideal concept c. Leadership is a personal quality d. Working relationship

Q55: What is the objective function (Z) to be maximized in this linear programming problem (where Z is total profit in £s)

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Answer: Z = 100X + 120Y

Q56: What is the opposite of a variable

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Answer: a constant

Q57: What is the planning horizon

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Answer: The time between making a plan and putting it into effect

Q58: What is the preferred method of verifying scope

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Answer: Inspection

Q59: What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical acceptability of a research study

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Answer: Utilitarianism

Q60: What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart

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Answer: To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables

Q61: What is the probability that a project with a mean completion time of 23.9 days and a variance of 6 days will be finished in 26 days

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Answer: 0.8

Q62: What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is your current age?”
1-5
5-10
10-20
20-30
30-40

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Answer: The categories are not mutually exclusiveb. The categories are not exhaustive—Both a and b are problems

Q63: What is the process of splitting a deliverable into smaller more manageable parts called

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Answer: Scope definition

Q64: What is the purpose of a ‘mystery shopper’

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Answer: A person pretends to be a real customer in order to test the service encountered

Q65: What is the purpose of an applicant tracking system

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Answer: assisting employers in attracting screening, and managing applicants

Q66: What is the purpose of dummy actvity in an activityon-arrow diagram

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Answer: Show task that are not necessary(My answer has been C but)

Q67: What is the ratio of receiving to sending information

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Answer: 61percent receiving/39percent sending

Q68: What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from your data during data analysis called

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Answer: Memoing

Q69: What is the role of entrepreneur

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Answer: All of these—a. Contribution in economic development b. Producer of new products c. Removal of poverty d. Dynamic agent

Q70: What is the S-curve in project management

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Answer: The graph that describes the typical growth of earned value during the course of the project

Q71: What is the second step in the training process

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Answer: developing specific training objectives

Q72: What is the Seller’s risk objective in Project procurement Management

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Answer: to minimize risk while maximizing profit potential

Q73: What is the solution to this linear programming problem in terms of the respective quantities of X and Y to be produced if profits are to be maximized

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Answer: X = 150, Y = 400

Q74: What is the source of the supply of loanable funds

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Answer: National saving

Q75: What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem

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Answer: 1

Q76: What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called

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Answer: Standard error

Q77: What is the typical compensation structure for on-demand recruiting services

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Answer: hourly rate

Q78: What is the work breakdown structure typically used for

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Answer: As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the project

Q79: What is unilateral contract

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Answer: a contract that has only one signature

Q80: What items are traded in e-business

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Answer: Any kind of commodity

Q81: What kind of feasibility asks how well the proposed system satisfies the identified system requirements

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Answer: None of these —A). technical feasibilityB). schedule feasibilityC). strategic feasibilityD). economic feasibility

Q82: What kind of feasibility measures cost-effectiveness of a project or solution

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Answer: economic feasibility

Q83: What kind of graph, or graph line best represents the relationship between temperature and aggression

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Answer: As an inverted U

Q84: What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched

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Answer: Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in schools

Q85: What kind of work best illustrates Pye’s concept of ‘workmanship of risk’? Academics

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Answer: Fast food worker

Q86: What leadership style should you employ during the first two weeks of project planning

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Answer: Directing

Q87: What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different history event

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Answer: Selection-history effect

Q88: What might be found in a B2B marketing database? A customer’s profile might contain products and services purchased, past volumes of purchases, and___

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Answer: key contact people

Q89: What might be the responses of listening

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Answer: It will be nonverbal

Q90: What most distinguishes projects from day-to-day operation

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Answer: It brings changes to the organization

Q91: What most often is the limitation when assessing return using cost benefit analysis

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Answer: Difficulty in quantification

Q92: What percentage of communication time do businesspeople spend listening

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Answer: 45percent

Q93: What percentage of each workweek is wasted because of poor communication

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Answer: 15 percent

Q94: What percentage of employers in England have skills-shortage vacancies

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Answer: 7percent

Q95: What percentage of learning on the job comes from informal learning

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Answer: 80

Q96: What percentage of sales is estimated to be the cost of non-quality

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Answer: 12-20percent

Q97: What qualities might customers dislike most in salespeople at Reliable Tool

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Answer: Such qualities may include being deceitful, late, pushy, and unprepared or disorganized

Q98: What rating error occurs when a rater tends to assign only average ratings regardless of the true level of performance

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Answer: central tendency errors

Q99: What screening methods could an organization consider

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Answer: application forms, resume, cover letters, and reference checks

Q100: What should not be part of a risk management plan

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Answer: Individual risks