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Q1: The main object of Ientral advisory councilDR Act ,1951 is

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Answer: to implemented the industrial policy

Q2: The main objective of a Control Chart is to

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Answer: Determine if a process is “in control”

Q3: the main objective of IDRA is

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Answer: to implement the industrial policy

Q4: The main objective of providing incentives in contracts is to

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Answer: Align the goals of the buyer and seller

Q5: The main purpose of a___is to function as a blueprint for the group’s business operations

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Answer: Business Plan

Q6: The main purpose of risk management planning is to create a plan for dealing with each high priority risk that you have identified in the various phase. A good risk management plan will not contain___

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Answer: a contingency plan to moniter risk and trigger a predetermined response when a potential risk is detected. B. The resources that are needed for your risk management activity. C. What information you need to track and monitor the risk. — all of these

Q7: The main Purpose of the Health and Safety at work Act is to

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Answer: Provide a good framework for health and safety issues within the University

Q8: The main reason for manufacturers to use sales promotions when launching new products is to

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Answer: establish distribution

Q9: The main reason to plan team building activities (e.g. regular status review meeting, off-site team meets etc.) is to

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Answer: Improve Team performance

Q10: The main statute governing health and safety at work is the___

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Answer: The Health and Safety at Work Act 1974

Q11: The main task in analyzing current employees’ training needs is to determine what the job entails, break the job down into subtasks, and then teach each subtask to the employee

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q12: The major advantage of cycle counting is

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Answer: dispensing with the annual physical inventory

Q13: The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the

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Answer: both b and c—s/b—Both—B) functionality to be delivered C) process used to deliver functionality

Q14: The major competencies that are not required to be present in a trainer are___

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Answer: knowledge skills

Q15: The major direct-marketing communications tool in today’s business world is___

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Answer: telephone marketing

Q16: The major focus of___is to match personal goals and opportunities that are realistically available

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Answer: Career planning

Q17: The major forms of direct marketing include personal selling, telephone marketing, direct-mail marketing, catalog marketing, direct-response television marketing, kiosk marketing, and fax marketing

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q18: The major opportunity in an oral presentation lies in your ability to both express your ideas as well as draw ideas from your audience

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Answer: True – Answer

Q19: The major output document of Scope definition is the

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Answer: Hierarchically structured WBS

Q20: The major process groups of project management are

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Answer: Planning, control, initiation, closing, execution

Q21: The major process in project integration do not include

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Answer: Activity sequencing

Q22: The major project scope management processes include

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Answer: Initiation

Q23: The major public policy and ethical issues in direct marketing today are irritation, unfairness, privacy, deception, and fraud

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Answer: Correct – True

Q24: The major reason why Sonja Bergman might not be able to close sales to her clients very well is because she may lack confidence, feel guilty about asking for the order, or fail to recognize the need for the product being sold

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q25: The majority of publically available Internet information sources are

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Answer: unstructured information

Q26: The Management Control School of information management of Marchand et al. (2002) has focus on

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Answer: using information to manage people and link their performance to business performance

Q27: The market have potential customers but no one has offered product to fill the need

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Answer: latent markets

Q28: The marketing concept holds that customers will remain loyal if: Select correct option

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Answer: The customers’ needs are met at a price that represents value for money

Q29: The marketing concept should be central to business strategy because

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Answer: Customers will only spend money with firms that look after their needs

Q30: The marketing department has just discovered that a competitor is offering a new feature, using a new technology, on a product similar to the one being created by your project. They submit a change request that is the result of

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Answer: An external event

Q31: The marketing department has just discovered that most buyers are not willing to pay the extra cost of one of the features planned in your current project. They submit a change request that is a result of

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Answer: An error or omission in defining the scope of the product

Q32: The marketing manager at Massimino and McCarthy, a chain of retail stores that sells men’s clothing, is reviewing marketing research data to try to determine if changes in marketing strategy are needed. Which of the following sources of data would be a secondary data source

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Answer: Looking through the company’s marketing information system to see past sales trends

Q33: The marketing mix consists of product, price, place, promotion, people, process and payment

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q34: The marketing services agencies includes

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Answer: Marketing consulting firmsB. Media firmsC. Marketing research firms—All of above

Q35: The master production schedule is the schedule of production for what level product/material

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Answer: Level 0

Q36: The master production schedule requires all of the following input except

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Answer: all of these are inputs into MSP.—s/b—All of these—a) Projected inventory levels b) Production quantities c) Forecasted demand

Q37: The mathematical model is in the form of expressions and equations that replicate the problem

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Answer: Correct – True

Q38: The maximum output of a system in a given period is called the

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Answer: Design capacity

Q39: The MBA redesign committee presents the results of their five-year project to their bemused Dean. They hope it is not just wishful thinking that they are in the

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Answer: termination phase

Q40: The meaning of a message is not in the actual message but in the mind of the receiver

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Answer: True – Answer

Q41: The meaning of the acronym ‘SHRM’ is___

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Answer: Strategic Human Resource Management

Q42: The meaning of the acronym HRM is___

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Answer: Human Resource Management

Q43: The median is___

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Answer: The middle point

Q44: The Meiorin decision illustrated___

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Answer: the need for the validation of selection procedures

Q45: The mental process to interpret environment as’ per one’s own understanding is known as

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Answer: Perception

Q46: The mental process to interpret environment as’ per one’s own untierstanding is known as

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Answer: Perception

Q47: The messages of a use case can be graphically depicted with a(n)

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Answer: None of these —A). logical use caseB). activity diagramC). composition diagramD). system sequence diagram

Q48: The messages that are of interest to the receiver but are not likely to generate an emotional reaction refers to

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Answer: Neutral message

Q49: The method for calculating earned value should be agreed to before the work begins and it is best to keep the earned value calculation method as simple as possible.What is not a method of reporting earned value

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Answer: Varience analysis

Q50: The method of inbound telephone marketing is to provide a toll-free 1-800 number to receive orders from television and print ads, direct mail, or catalogs

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Answer: Correct – True

Q51: The method of performance appraisal required to correct the tendency of a rater to give consistently high or low ratings to all the employee is

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Answer: Forced choice method

Q52: The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying rival explanations

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Answer: Correct – True

Q53: The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q54: The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called___

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Answer: training

Q55: The Michigan Model emphasis the following functions and their interrelates

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Answer: selection, appraisal, rewards and human resource development

Q56: The middle, not the beginning and ending of a message, has the greatest impact on the audience

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Answer: False – Answer

Q57: The minimum and maximum number of occurrences of one object class for a single occurrence of the related object class is a(n)

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Answer: multiplicity

Q58: The minimum equity position required for all new McDonald’s franchises is an example of

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Answer: A policy

Q59: The mission statement answers which question

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Answer: What is our business?

Q60: The model of personality as learned habits was developed by

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Answer: Dollard and Miller

Q61: The modern image of the salesperson is that of a loner, traveling their territories, trying to put their wares off on unsuspecting buyers

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q62: The money demand curve slopes downward because

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Answer: the higher the interest rate, the lower the opportunity cost of holding money result of price increases

Q63: The more senses are brought into use, the more effective is the learning; 97percent of learning is achieved through simultaneous appeal to the eye and ear

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Answer: Correct – True

Q64: The most aggressive and risky approach to capacity planning is

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Answer: Leading demand with one-step expansion

Q65: The most basic concept underlying marketing is that of

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Answer: human needs

Q66: The most basic level in Kerzner’s project management maturity model is

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Answer: common language

Q67: The most basic level of a product is called the

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Answer: core product

Q68: The most common communication problem during negotiations is that

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Answer: Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said

Q69: The most common example of data entry is the keyboard

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Answer: True – Answer

Q70: The most common medium for computer output is screen

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Answer: False – Answer

Q71: The most common medium for computer outputs is

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Answer: paper

Q72: The most difficult step of the marketing research process is

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Answer: defining the problem

Q73: The most effective persuasive messages are closely connected to an audience’s existing desires and interests

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Answer: True – Answer

Q74: The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the___

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Answer: Mode

Q75: The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the___design

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Answer: Nonequivalent comparison-group

Q76: The most important attribute of information quality that a manager requires is

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Answer: relevance

Q77: The most important criteria in selecting project selection method is

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Answer: Realism

Q78: The most important thing to remember when using project selection models is to be consistent and objective

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Answer: Correct – True

Q79: The most important way that management gets information about its salespeople is through sales reports

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Answer: Correct – True

Q80: The most influential theory of corporate responsibility of the past century is

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Answer: The classical model

Q81: The most likely problem encountered by innovative entrepreneurs in raising finance is

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Answer: The exhaustion of personal equality in R&D

Q82: The most outspoken advocate of the classical view of social responsibility is economist and Nobel laureate,___

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Answer: Milton Friedman

Q83: The most rapid cost estimating technique is

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Answer: Computerized estimating

Q84: The most recent addition to the four criteria of project success is

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Answer: client acceptance

Q85: The multiple product case of determining breakeven in dollars

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Answer: Weights the contribution of each product

Q86: The need-satisfaction approach calls for a quick close since consumers will have already solved their own problem and are looking to exit the sales situation with minimum of difficulty

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q87: The NFL is able to customize their newsletter by___

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Answer: All of these—A) tracking what pieces are clicked on B) providing news about the individual fan’s favorite team C) matching the individual fan’s specific interests D) enabling fans to update their profile

Q88: The nominal interest rate is the

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Answer: interest rate as usually reported by banks

Q89: The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called___

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Answer: Purposive sampling

Q90: The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called

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Answer: business risk

Q91: The northwest corner rule requires that we start allocating units to shipping routes in the: middle cell

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Answer: Upper left-hand corner of the table

Q92: The notion of distinctive competence is consistent with___

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Answer: resource-based theory

Q93: The notion that successful firms tend to be the ones that adapt to influences in their industries is based on___

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Answer: IO theory

Q94: The null and alternative hypotheses divide all possibilities into

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Answer: two non-overlapping sets

Q95: The null hypothesis usually represents

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Answer: the status quo

Q96: The number of degrees of freedom associated with the t test, when the data are gathered from a matched pairs experiment with 12 pairs, is 22

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q97: The number of degrees of freedom for a contingency table with r rows and c columns is rc – 1 , provided that both r and c are greater than or equal to 2

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q98: The number of logical records included in a single read or write operation is known as a blocking factor

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Answer: True – Answer

Q99: The number of people hired for a particular job compared to the number of individuals in the applicant pool is often expressed as

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Answer: Selection ratio

Q100: The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related. This relationship is

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Answer: A spurious relationship