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Q1: Team selling is ideal when customer problems become more complex and customers become larger and more demanding. These teams have the advantages of uncovering problems that an individual would not, and they can develop new opportunities

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Answer: Correct – True

Q2: Team selling is often used to service large, complex accounts

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Answer: Correct – True

Q3: Teamwork at work comes naturally

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q4: Technique used to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management is also called

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Answer: Data Precision Ranking

Q5: Techniques for conducting product analysis include

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Answer: Value engineering

Q6: Techniques for Source Selection include all of the following except

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Answer: Bidder Conferences

Q7: Technological developments are only vital to the concerned organization but also to the entire nation and even to the whole world

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q8: Technology hampers efforts at orienting employees

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q9: Telemarketing has become a major direct marketing tool. Toll-free numbers (800 numbers) are classified as___telephone marketing

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Answer: inbound

Q10: Telemarketing in B2B has increased at the expense of which concept. Select correct option

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Answer: Direct mail

Q11: Telephone marketing now accounts for more than 38 percent of all direct-marketing media expenditures

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Answer: Correct – True

Q12: Telephone surveys are practical if the information needed is not too personal

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Answer: Correct – True

Q13: Term refers to the scheduling of periodic interest rate payments on a bond

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q14: Terms such as “geeks,” “book worms,” “preps,” are known as___terms

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Answer: Emic

Q15: Test marketing is an example of a(n)

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Answer: Experiment

Q16: Tests in which samples are not independent are referred to as matched pairs

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Answer: Correct – True

Q17: Tests of an implementation of the described algorithm showed quickly that there are instances of the constrained assignment problem where the algorithm will cycle

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Answer: Correct – True

Q18: Tests that measure traits, temperament, or disposition are examples of___

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Answer: Personality tests

Q19: That the behavior, actions and role of the individuals are primarily shaped by the cultures of the society is the basic assumption in the

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Answer: System approach

Q20: The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis testing

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Answer: Null

Q21: The “grapevine” in an organization is primarily about personal matters

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Answer: False – Answer

Q22: The “halo effect” refers to the tendency to

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Answer: Move people into project management because they are good in their technical field

Q23: The “identification of when and where an event took place” is known as___

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Answer: Contextualization

Q24: The “rolling wave” or “moving window” advocates the use of WBS decomposition and is used most frequently in the _ process

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Answer: Scope definition

Q25: The “rule of seven” as applied to process control charts means that

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Answer: No Answer

Q26: The “To Complete Performance Index” (TCPI) is calculated by

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Answer: Dividing the budgeted cost of the remaining work by the difference between the estimate at completion and actual costs to date

Q27: The “tool” function of theory is to

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Answer: Suggest new relationships and make new predictions

Q28: The “Tuckman Model” refers to the 4 stage of the team development .What is the correct sequence of stages each team will go through

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Answer: Forming, Storming, Norming and performing

Q29: The “you” attitude refers to speaking and writing in terms of your audience’s wishes, interests, hopes, and preferences

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Answer: True – Answer

Q30: The ‘father’ of Scientific Management is

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Answer: Tom Peterse. Frederick W. Taylor

Q31: The ‘Product Description’ is generally broader than a ‘Statement of Work’. This statement

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Answer: Is True

Q32: The 20-80 rule states___

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Answer: The top 20 percent of customers generate 80 percent of the company’s profits

Q33: The 5 steps of making a work sample study include all of the following except

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Answer: Change the specific time observations to make them convenient

Q34: The ability by the consumer to access information via the Internet, conduct business transactions either by phone, Internet, or in person is an example of a company using what type of marketing channels

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Answer: This is an example of a firm using a hybrid channel to get its products to the “go-to-market.”

Q35: The ability of a business organization to achieve its business goals is affected by whether its behaviour is judged to be right or wrong by

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Answer: society

Q36: The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different conditions determines its

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Answer: Flexibility

Q37: The ability of a shopper of laundry detergents to visit a grocery retailer and see a wide variety of brands, sizes, and units for purchase is an example of what elements of the channel service output

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Answer: This is an example of the product variety and lot sizes channel service outputs

Q38: The ability to interface with users via many different devices (phone, WAP, internet, etc) is called

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Answer: Multiple communication channels

Q39: The ability to order a product online and pick it up at a convenient retail location is an example of the consumers’ expectations for channel integration

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Answer: Correct – True

Q40: The ability to trigger a process in the back office system, e.g. Email Response is BEST described by which of the following

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Answer: Workflow

Q41: The abstract should be about how many words

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Answer: 120

Q42: The acronyms that we use for FUD is: Select correct option

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Answer: Fear, Uncertainty, Doubts

Q43: The act of breaking a system into its component subsystems, processes, and sub-processes is known as

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Answer: None of these —A). compositionB). generalizationC). normalizationD). process modeling

Q44: The act of doing anything that will help to bring future project performance into line with the project plan is called

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Answer: Corrective action

Q45: The act of locating a brand in customers mind over and above other products is

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Answer: production positioning

Q46: The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or publication refers to which of the following professional issues

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Answer: Duplicate publication

Q47: The act of sending a message pretending to be authorized user is called as___

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Answer: Spoofing

Q48: The Action Centered Leadership model was put forward and developed in 1973 by whom

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Answer: Adair

Q49: The activity “Feasibility study” is normally part of which phase of systems development

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Answer: Initiation

Q50: The activity “programme and test” is normally part of which phase of systems development

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Answer: Development

Q51: The activity “Project closedown review” is normally part of which phase of systems development

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Answer: Maintenance

Q52: The activity “requirement determination” is normally part of which phase of systems development

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Answer: Analysis and design

Q53: The activity “User Acceptance Testing” is normally part of which phase of systems development

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Answer: Maintenance. Implementation

Q54: The activity list should include descriptions of activities. This is required to

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Answer: Ensure that the team members understand how the work is to be done

Q55: The actual cost of work performed (ACWP) is the total of___incurred in accomplishing work on the activity during a given period

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Answer: A direct costB indirect costC overhead cost—a and b

Q56: The Ad Council of America has developed dozens of___advertising campaigns, including classics such as “Smoky Bear,” “Keep America Beautiful,” and “Only You Can Prevent Forest Fires.”

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Answer: social

Q57: The administrative role of HR management includes responsibilities for

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Answer: processing benefits claims

Q58: The advantage of CRM

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Answer: Improve overall relationship with customer

Q59: The advantage of external recruiting is that___

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Answer: They are useful for cornpanies too small to have dedicated recruiters

Q60: The advantages of a deductive approach of writing a message are

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Answer: all of these—with customerswith journalistswith competitorsIt becomes easier to navigate through the supporting detailsIt is easy to writeThe first sentence gets the attention

Q61: The advantages of a pure matrix organizational are all of the following EXCEPT

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Answer: Functional manager may be biased according to their own set of priorities

Q62: The advertisement is made in trade mark journal published by

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Answer: government

Q63: The agent of brokers who obtain business for them are-

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Answer: remesiers

Q64: The AIDA plan consists of four phases; the action phase includes

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Answer: specific steps that the audience may take

Q65: The AIDA plan is used in most brief persuasive messages except sales letters

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Answer: False – Answer

Q66: The aim of an information management strategy is to

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Answer: gain value from information resources. improve the quality of information resources. protect information resources. assign appropriate responsibilities for information resources

Q67: The alternative hypothesis is also known as the

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Answer: research hypothesis

Q68: The American Society for Training and Development estimates that approximately 20percent of what employees learn on the job is learned through informal means while the rest is learned through formal training programs

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q69: The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q70: The amount of corporate investment is typically at its highest in the

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Answer: termination phase

Q71: The amount of corporate investment is typically at its lowest in the

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Answer: conceptualization phase

Q72: The amount of revenue a firm receives for the sale of its products minus its costs of production as measured by its accountants is the firm’s

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Answer: earnings

Q73: The amount of salary an individual receives in the home-country becomes the___when calculating compensation

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Answer: base salary

Q74: The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called

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Answer: Total FloatD. Float—c and d

Q75: The amount transferred from the Work-in-Process Inventory account to Finished A. Goods Inventory is equal to the cost of goods

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Answer: Completed during the period

Q76: The analysis and design of information systems is driven from a technical perspective

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q77: The analysis of variance (ANOVA) technique analyzes the variance of the data to determine whether differences exist between the population means

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Answer: Correct – True

Q78: The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group means

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Answer: Two or more

Q79: The Analytical Hierarchy Process elegantly addresses scaling issues in criteria and negative utility in alternative scores

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q80: The Analytical Hierarchy Process is being employed in a project selection decision. One major criteria, cost, receives a weighting value of 40percent, which is split into short-term (50percent), intermediate term (30percent), and long-term (20percent). Which of these statements is best

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Answer: Intermediate-term cost receives a weighting of 12percent

Q81: The Analytical Hierarchy Process is used to decide among three projects that we’ll call A, B, and C. The total score for project A is .650, for project B is .514, and for project C is .321.Which of the following statements is best

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Answer: Project A is twice as good as project C

Q82: The annual call plan shows how sales people spend their time selling, eating, driving, and resting

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q83: The ANOVA test is based on which assumptions?
I. the sample are randomly selected
II. the population variances are all equal to some common variance
III. the populations are normally distributed
IV. the populations are statistically significant

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Answer: II and III only

Q84: The answers the question What do we want to become? whereas answers the question What is our business

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Answer: vision statement; mission statement

Q85: The application of ethical principles rather than actual specified actions would refer to

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Answer: Morality

Q86: The application of information to scan an organisation’s environment is

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Answer: sensing

Q87: The approach to IS Strategy with distributed control and resource is

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Answer: decentralised IS management

Q88: The appropriate analytical technique is determined by

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Answer: Both A and B—A. The research design B. Nature of the data collected

Q89: The appropriate level of safety stock is typically determined by

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Answer: Choosing the level of safety stock that assures a given service level

Q90: The area from which applicants can be recruited is___

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Answer: Labour markets

Q91: The assessment of the external and internal environments is called___analysis

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Answer: SWOT analysis

Q92: The assumption of a closed economy

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Answer: applies to the world economy

Q93: The assumption shared by both trend analysis and ratio analysis is that productivity remains about the same from year to year

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Answer: Correct – True

Q94: The Atkinson model for assessing project success gathers input from all of the project’s stakeholders

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Answer: Correct – True

Q95: The author’s synthesis of all well-known maturity models states that moderate project management maturity is characterized by

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Answer: project management training programs

Q96: The authors take a broad view of leadership and management (L&M) development, including all activities aimed at building ongoing L&M capacity, enabling the organization to meet its objectives, to sustain it and to what else

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Answer: Transform itself

Q97: The average cycle time is a___

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Answer: it depends on the specific job

Q98: The average rate of return is the ratio of the average annual profit (either before or after taxes) to the initial or average investment in the project

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Answer: Correct – True

Q99: The average speaker can deliver about 125-150 words a minute

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Answer: True – Answer

Q100: The average speaker can deliver about 200 words a minute

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Answer: False – Answer