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Q1: Relationship marketing is

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Answer: developing longterm customer relationship

Q2: Relationships that involve the behaviour of organization members toward customers, suppliers, subordinates, superiors, peers, and others are defined as

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Answer: business relationships

Q3: Reliability is most simply known as which of the following

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Answer: Consistency or stability

Q4: Reliability refers to___

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Answer: The strength of the relationship between the predictor and the criterion

Q5: Religion

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Answer: has some role to play in business

Q6: Remote batch processing has the following characteristic(s)

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Answer: Data is entered online. Data is collected in batches. Data is processed at a later time

Q7: Remote procedure calls (RPCs), message queues and object request brokers are examples of application middleware

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Answer: True – Answer

Q8: Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge generation

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Answer: Rationalism

Q9: Renee has been going to the same dentist for years. However, her employer changed her dental insurance plan, and her dentist was not part of the plan. She had to switch to an approved dentist. Which reason for changing providers does this represent

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Answer: involuntary switching

Q10: Repeat purchasers continue to buy the same brand because of their emotional attachment to it

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q11: Repeat the bad news in the close so it will be clearly understood

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Answer: False – Answer

Q12: Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include___

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Answer: HR staff induction costs

Q13: Replacement of an existing channel by the internet is likely if___

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Answer: Customer access to the Internet is lowValue proposition is improved

Q14: Replication of data refers to the physical duplication of entire tables to multiple locations

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Answer: True – Answer

Q15: Request for quotation (RFQ) is

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Answer: a document that communicates business, technical, and support requirements for an application software package to a single vendor that has been determined as being able to supply that application package and service

Q16: Requests for price increase are received on account of the following reasons :-

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Answer: Increase in cost of raw materials and bought out parts , Changes in tax structure , Added work content

Q17: Required annual reporting on ethics progress should

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Answer: ensure that ethics is firmly on the corporate agenda

Q18: Requirements discovery and management can be significantly accelerated through the use of fact-finding techniques aimed at collecting information about system problems, opportunities, solution requirements, and priorities

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Answer: False – Answer

Q19: Requirements management is the process of identifying and categorizing system requirements

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Answer: False – Answer

Q20: Research hypotheses are___

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Answer: Statements of predicted relationships between variablesc. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted—b and c

Q21: Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research within a stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as___

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Answer: mixed model research

Q22: Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as___

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Answer: mixed method research

Q23: Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study

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Answer: Informed consent

Q24: Research shows that the ending of a report is usually ignored by readers

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Answer: False – Answer

Q25: Research suggests that most firms evaluate their training programs by measuring the reactions of participants

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Answer: Correct – True

Q26: Research suggests that the costs of sales promotions

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Answer: outweigh any benefits

Q27: Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the “same variables but different people” is which of the following

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Answer: replication

Q28: Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as___

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Answer: historical research

Q29: Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-maturation effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by matching experimental and control participants on important variables

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Answer: Correct – True

Q30: Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the following statements is true

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Answer: Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words

Q31: Reshma Ananda, a marketing manager for the Grocery SuperStore retail chain, fired up a computer program that gave her ready access to information about product availability and customer buying that helped her immediately set prices for bananas and cherries. This type of computer program is called___

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Answer: a decision support system

Q32: Residual and secondary risks are outputs from

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Answer: Risk response planning

Q33: Resistance to change arises due to deferring perception, personalities and needs. If the employee perceives the change is unfavorable to them, they resist to the change

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Answer: Correct – True

Q34: Resource leveling allocates scarce resources to critical path activities first

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Answer: Correct – True

Q35: Resource levelling will generally

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Answer: Reduce the overutilization of resources

Q36: Resource planning involves determining what___resources and what___of each should be used and when they would be needed to perform project activities

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Answer: Physical resources, quantities

Q37: Resource planning results in a description of what type of resources are required in what quantities. This plan is then used to support the subsequent process

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Answer: of staff acquisition and/or procurement

Q38: Respondents may not be accustomed to or willing to take the time to tell (or write) a complete story when describing a critical incident

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Answer: Correct – True

Q39: Responding to employees and involving them in decision making referred to as

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Answer: Quality of wok life

Q40: Response development is sometimes referred to as

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Answer: Response planning and risk mitigation

Q41: Response rate is the percentage of people contacted who complete a given questionnaire

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Answer: Correct – True

Q42: Responsibilities for information management need to be defined at this level

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Answer: Partner-level. User-level. Board level. Middle manager level

Q43: Retailers have become concerned that there are already too many brands, with too few differences between them. Thus, Procter and Gamble and other large consumer- product marketers are now pursuing___strategies-weeding out weaker brands and focusing their marketing dollars only on brands that can achieve the number-one or number-two market share positions in their categories

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Answer: megabrand

Q44: Retailers such as Wal-Mart, Kmart, Toys “R” Us, Office Depot, and Disney are among the first businesses to go global

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q45: Retained executive recruiters are paid whether or not they eventually fill the client’s vacant position

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Answer: Correct – True

Q46: Retaining customers is on tenth the cost of acquiring new customers

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Answer: Correct – True

Q47: Revathi Works Private Limited earns a pro?t of Rs.75,000 by selling 25,000 units. The selling price and variable cost per unit is Rs.25 and Rs.10 respectively”. Then the Breakeven point occurs at

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Answer: 20,000 units

Q48: Reviewing relevant background information such as organization charts, process charts, and job descriptions is the___step in doing a job analysis

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Answer: second

Q49: Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the___of the project

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Answer: Detriment

Q50: Risk identification should be done

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Answer: On a regular basis throughout project lifecycle

Q51: Risk is a difficult subject in project management because

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Answer: People tend to believe a risk will not occur until it actually does

Q52: Risk management is defined as the art and science of___risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project

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Answer: Identifying, analyzing and responding to

Q53: Risk Management Plan may include

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Answer: Budgeting, Timing, Thresholds, Methodology

Q54: Risk monitoring and control involves all of the following task except

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Answer: Cotingency planning

Q55: Risks and Triggers are outputs of

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Answer: Risk Identification

Q56: Risks are accepted when

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Answer: You develop a contigency plan to execute should the risk event occur.B. You accept the consequences of the risk.—a and b

Q57: Risks because of implementing a risk response are called

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Answer: Secondary Risks

Q58: Risks that remain after avoidance, transfer and mitigation are also called

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Answer: Residual Risks

Q59: Robert buys bonds. Rachel buys a new truck for her landscaping business. Identify both as savers, investors, both, or neither

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Answer: Robert is a saver. Rachel is an investor

Q60: Robert Louis Stevenson was once quoted as saying that “everyone lives by sellingsomething.”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q61: Robustness of strategic capabilities is more likely when

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Answer: Linkages in the value network are exploited

Q62: Rod wasn’t expecting much from the painters that came to his house. True to form, they did not do a good job and confirmed his low-performance expectations. Rod is most likely experiencing___

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Answer: nonsatisfaction

Q63: Role play is a training method that can be used to reinforce training concepts in a group setting

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Answer: Correct – True

Q64: Role-playing can be defined as an educational or therapeutic technique in which some problems involving human interaction, real or imaginary is presented and then spontaneously acted out

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Answer: Correct – True

Q65: Roles and status need to stabilize before a team can function effectively

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Answer: True – Answer

Q66: Rolex is very selective when choosing the retailers that will sell its watches. The company needs to view its retailer in the same way as it views its end users. The firm needs to determine intermediaries’ needs and construct a channel positioning such that its channel offering is tailored to provide___to these retailers

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Answer: superior value

Q67: Ronald is dissatisfied with a product he has bought. What is the first decision Ronald will make with regard to his dissatisfying situation

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Answer: whether or not to take any external action

Q68: Roshni Ltd___A bulb manufacturing company has earned a reputation in the market because of the long life of its bulb filaments. This is an appropriate example of which of the following quality dimensions’

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Answer: Durability

Q69: RTGS stands for

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Answer: Real Time Gross Settlement

Q70: Safe custody is found in

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Answer: banking service

Q71: Salability is the balance between quality and cost

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Answer: Correct – True

Q72: Sales and fundraising messages are alike in the following ways except

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Answer: both are sent by nonprofit organizations persuading others to donate money or time to help others

Q73: Sales and fundraising messages do not differ

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Answer: False – Answer

Q74: Sales applicants are typically not tested for___

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Answer: accounting skills

Q75: Sales assistants provide technical information and answers to customer’s questions

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q76: Sales efficiency has been greatly improved using sales force automation systems. Salespeople primarily use laptops, handheld computing devices,___, and customer-contact software

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Answer: Web technologies

Q77: Sales force automation systems have been developed for more efficient order-entry transactions and improved customer service

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q78: Sales force automation, customer service and support and enterprise marketing automation are types of which one of the following applications

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Answer: Operational customer relationship management applications

Q79: Sales force compensation should direct the sales force toward activities that are consistent with___

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Answer: All of these—a. overall company strategies b. overall marketing objectives c. overall company objectives d. overall department objectives

Q80: Sales force management is the analysis, planning, implementation, and control of sales force activities

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Answer: Correct – True

Q81: Sales orientation is the view that customers will not ordinarily buy enough of the firm’s products unless there is an aggressive sales campaign

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Answer: Correct – True

Q82: Sales promotion is a promotional tool regarded as

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Answer: below-the-line

Q83: Sales promotions are primarily used to increase sales levels in the

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Answer: short term

Q84: Sales promotions are thought to make consumer purchase decisions

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Answer: simpler

Q85: Sales promotions can encourage people to purchase outside their usual repertoire

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q86: Salespeople and sales managers now realize that perhaps the fastest-growing sales force technology tool is___

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Answer: the Internet

Q87: Salespeople spend more of their time doing administrative tasks than on any other area

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q88: Salespeople spend their time in various ways. On average, which of the following accounts for the majority of the salesperson’s time

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Answer: face-to-face selling

Q89: Salespeople write up their completed activities on

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Answer: call reports

Q90: Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative research

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Answer: Purposive sampling

Q91: Sanction has more than one meaning which of the following is one of them

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Answer: to punishB. to agree and to back the proposal or action—both A and B

Q92: Sandy uses online banking, and her bank charges her USD4.99 per month. However, she has seen ads for a competing bank offering free online banking services. She’d like to switch, but she realized that it might be difficult to do since she has several of her bill payments set up as automatic debits. The cost of changing to another bank represent Sandy’s___

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Answer: switching costs

Q93: Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents interact in Head Start Centers. As she examines her data (videotapes and transcripts), she jots down notes concerning the interactions, generating hypotheses, suggesting relationships among categories of information she is examining and so on. This process of jotting notes as she examines the data is called

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Answer: Memoing

Q94: Saturn uses a database. How might this automobile manufacturer benefit

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Answer: all of these.—a. Saturn can determine the geographic concentration of its customers in Illinois versus Ohio, for example. b. Saturn can determine what features to add to next year’s models. c. Saturn can fine-tune certain marketing offers for specified customer groups

Q95: Savannah works at the front desk at a Marriott Hotel. If a guest has a complaint, she is empowered to make amends up to a certain amount without her supervisor’s approval. Savannah is known as a___

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Answer: front-line employee

Q96: SB&A Consulting plans to do some college recruiting to fill entry-level management positions this year. Which of the following factors is most important for the firm to consider when deciding which colleges to visit

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Answer: reputation

Q97: SBU stands for

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Answer: Strategic business unit

Q98: Schedule variance can be determined by

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Answer: BCWP – BCWS

Q99: Schedule variance for the first half period is

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Answer: A -5000B 5000C 20000D data insufficient to calculate the schedule variance from the given information

Q100: scheduled industries means

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Answer: the industries specified in the I scheduled to the act