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Q1: Policies based on ABC analysis might include investing

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Answer: More in supplier development for A items

Q2: Policy includes___

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Answer: All of these—a. Positioning b. Operational control c. Growth d. Financing

Q3: Politicians may use the term to state that the level of general knowledge is declining under the current education policy

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Answer: Correct – True

Q4: Popular approaches to project scheduling include

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a. Gantt chart b. PERT c. CPM

Q5: Popular Internet search engines for locating secondary data include

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Answer: all of these are likely to be useful.—s/b—all of these—A. Google B. Ask C. Yahoo D. all of these are likely to be useful

Q6: Positive external trends or changes that provides unique and distinct possibilities for innovating and creating value are called___

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Answer: Threats

Q7: Potential buyers of ABC Corporation bonds are concerned about ABC Corporation declaring bankruptcy. Potential buyers of XYZ Corporation bonds are not concerned that XYZ Corporation may declare bankruptcy. Which of the following statements is correct

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Answer: XYZ Corporation bonds carry less default risk than do ABC Corporation bonds

Q8: Power of investigation are defined under IDR Act 1951

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Answer: sec 16

Q9: Precedence diagramming method (PDM) uses which of the following dependencies

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Answer: Start-to-finish

Q10: Prejudgment is a barrier to listening that is difficult to overcome

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Answer: True – Answer

Q11: Preliminary data collection is a part of the

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Answer: Exploratory research

Q12: Preliminary interview becomes a necessity, when a___of candidates apply for a job

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Answer: large number

Q13: Preparing the Financial plan for your project will require

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Answer: Both Project Management and Industry specific skills

Q14: Presentation technology has made snazzy special effects such as sound, animation, and video so accessible that all speakers should rely on them

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Answer: False – Answer

Q15: Presentism in historical sources___

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Answer: Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in the past

Q16: Preventive (regulatory )measures under IDRA deals with

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Answer: revocation of licence

Q17: Pricing based on area is called as___

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Answer: geographical pricing

Q18: Primary market deals with

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Answer: Fresh hand Securities

Q19: Principles of training evaluation are

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Answer: All of these—a. Clarity b. Reliability c. Validity

Q20: Privacy law for e-mail suggests that the following are mandatory

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Answer: opt-out. opt-in to communications

Q21: Privacy law is intended to protect the personal information about

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Answer: employees.individuals in society

Q22: Problem of penetration of e-business in India is due to___

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Answer: Lack of communication

Q23: Problem solving addresses potential problems on the project

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q24: Procedures that develop and analyze new information to help marketing managers make decisions are called

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Answer: marketing research

Q25: Process framework activities are populated with

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Answer: All of these—a. milestones b. work products c. QA points

Q26: Process management features___with respect to project management

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Answer: greater certainty of performance

Q27: Process management is

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Answer: the activity of documenting, managing, and continually improving the process of systems development

Q28: Process management is the activity of defining, planning, directing, monitoring, and controlling a project

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Answer: False – Answer

Q29: Procurement planning is the process of identifying which project needs can best be met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. When should this effort be accomplished

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Answer: During the scope definition effort

Q30: Procuring an item in staggering deliveries according to the delivery schedule finished to the supplier by the buyer

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Answer: Scheduled Buying

Q31: Producers of strong brands sometimes sell it to dealers only if they will take some or all of the rest of the line. This practice is called full-line forcing or___

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Answer: tying agreements

Q32: Product and process decomposition often occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves

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Answer: Correct – True

Q33: Product documentation is a input to what process

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Answer: Scope verification

Q34: Product documentation is input to what process

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Answer: Scope Verification

Q35: Product is a key element in___At one extreme, it may consist of pure tangible goods or at the other extreme pure services

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Answer: market offering

Q36: Product line___refers to the number of versions offered of each product in the line. Crest toothpaste comes in 13 varieties, ranging from Crest Multicare to Crest Baking Soda formulations

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Answer: depth

Q37: Product mix___refers to the number of different product lines the company carries. Procter and Gamble markets 250 brands organized into many product lines

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Answer: width

Q38: Product planners must design the actual product and find ways to___it in order to create the bundle of benefits that will provide the most satisfying customer experience

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Answer: augment

Q39: Product planners need to think about products and services on three levels. Each level adds more customer value. The most basic level is the___, which addresses the question, “What is the buyer really buying?”

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Answer: core benefit

Q40: Product planners need to think about products and services on three levels. The third level is that the product planners must build on a(n)___around the core benefit and actual product by offering additional consumer services and benefits

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Answer: augmented product

Q41: Product Reviews, Audits and walk-throughs are performed as part of which process

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Answer: Scope Verification

Q42: Product support services identify the product or brand, describe several things about the product, and promote the product through attractive graphics

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q43: Production blocking is a disadvantage of

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Answer: Dialectical inquiry

Q44: Production orientation is about creating the ideal product

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q45: Products and services fall into two broad classes based on the types of consumers that use them. Which is one of these broad classes

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Answer: industrial products

Q46: Products can be further classified according to their tangibility and durability. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of product durability

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Answer: Consumed rapidly

Q47: Professional codes of ethics are binding___

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Answer: To individuals who hold that particular credential or membership

Q48: Professional ethics is

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Answer: A necessary attribute of a profession

Q49: Professional services are characterized by

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Answer: Advisory and problem solving

Q50: Professor X develops a test of emotional intelligence. Which of the following represent convergent and discriminant evidence

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Answer: The test correlates highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is uncorrelated with self-efficacy

Q51: Profits not paid out to stockholders are

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Answer: retained earnings

Q52: Programs that include public health campaigns to reduce smoking, alcoholism, drug abuse, and overeating are examples of the social idea known as social marketing

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Answer: Correct – True

Q53: Project A has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 21 persent. Project C has an IRR of 31 percent. Project D has an IRR of ig percent. Which of these would be the Best project

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Answer: Project C

Q54: Project Cost Management includes all of the following except

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Answer: Resource leveling

Q55: Project cost management must consider the effect of project decisions on the cost of the product created by the project. Your objective to reduce cost and time, improve quality and performance, and optimize decision making can be facilitated using tools like: (select best answer)

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Answer: Value Engineering and Life Cycle Costing

Q56: Project costs are over budget when

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Answer: CPI < 1

Q57: Project director gives an update to the local television network about the project. This is an example for

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Answer: C external communication

Q58: Project execution is very much an integrative process whereby all the work that was planned is actually accomplished. During this integrative process, what is the area that the project manager will spend the least amount of time on

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Answer: Documentation and planning

Q59: Project files, project software, and shared folders are examples of

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Answer: Project management information system

Q60: Project initiation is all of the following except

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Answer: Its inputs are product description, strategic plan, constraints, and assumptions

Q61: Project Integration Management

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Answer: Describes the processes required to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken

Q62: Project Management ensures that

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Answer: system is developed at minimum cost

Q63: Project management entails crossing___and___boundaries

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Answer: functional, organizational

Q64: Project management includes all of the following EXCEPT

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Answer: Vendors

Q65: Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are successful and completed on time

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q66: Project management is organized

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Answer: To achieve a single set of objectives

Q67: Project management is successful only if the project manager and his team are totally dedicated to the successful completion of the project. This requires each team member of the project team and office to have a good understanding of the fundamental project requirements, which include all of the following EXCEPT

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Answer: Project contraction

Q68: Project Management is the art and science of converting abstract into concrete or vision in reality. The realization can be most effective through formula understanding of project management process. What are the 5 management process

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Answer: Initiate, plan, execute, control, and close-out

Q69: Project management maturity models are NOT used to

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Answer: ascertain all stakeholders relevant to a project in the conceptualization phase

Q70: Project Management processes are

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Answer: Concerned with describing and organizing the work of the project

Q71: Project management processes can be organized into

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Answer: Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing

Q72: Project manager must carefully select the appropriate mode when managing conflict. Which of the following modes provide resolution when managing conflict

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Answer: forcing, problem solving

Q73: Project Managers have least power in which organization structure

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Answer: Functional

Q74: Project managers who do not understand the role that their project plays in accomplishing the organization’s strategy tend to make all the following mistakes except

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Answer: All the above are likely mistakes—s/b—All of these—A) Focusing on low priority problems B) Overemphasizing technology as an end in and of itself C) Focusing on the immediate customer

Q75: Project managers working in successful, projectized environments believe that spend what percentage of their time on communications

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Answer: 75-90percent

Q76: Project members may be from

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Answer: all of these.—A) different departments. B) other organizational units. C) one functional area

Q77: Project notebook is a media often used to record

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Answer: C to maintain personal records by the team members

Q78: Project performance is impacted by 4 basic cultures. Which of the following is not one of the 4 basic culture

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Answer: international

Q79: Project portfolio management is typically NOT used to balance

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Answer: human and technical resources

Q80: Project Procurement Management has the following processes

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Answer: Solicitation planning, source selection, contract close-out

Q81: Project Procurement Management includes

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Answer: Procurement planningB. Solicitation planningC. Solicitation—all of these

Q82: Project resources must be expanded on communication only when

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Answer: A the information contributes to project successC the project stakeholders ask for information—a and b

Q83: Project risk is characterized by three factors:___

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Answer: Risk event, risk probability and the amount at stake

Q84: Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of___which will adversely affect project objectives

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Answer: Uncertain occurrences

Q85: Project Risk Management includes all of the following processes except

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Answer: Risk Analysis

Q86: Project Scope Management includes which processes

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Answer: Initiation

Q87: Project scope, goals, schedule, and budget requirements are determined during the system initiation phase of the system development process

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Answer: True – Answer

Q88: Project selection criteria are typically classified as

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Answer: Financial and non-financial

Q89: Project selection criteria cover management concerns such as

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Answer: Financial returnB. Market shareC. Public perception—all of these

Q90: Project selection model come in two general classes:___and___

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Answer: numeric, nonnumeric

Q91: Project Stakeholders are definedas

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Answer: Individuals and organizations who use the project’s productB. Individuals and organizations whose interest may be positively or negatively affected as a result of project execution or successful project completionC. Individuals and organizations who provide the financial resources—all of these

Q92: Project team members who have specific technical expertise on the various aspects of the project have no role in quality control

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q93: Project termination responsibilities include all of the following except

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Answer: Provide project personnel with favorable performance appraisals to ensure their future cooperation

Q94: Projects are initiated in response of

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Answer: Stakeholder’s pressureB. Business needsC. Technological obsolesence—all of these

Q95: Projects are typically authorized as a result of any of the following except

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Answer: Successful RFP bidding

Q96: Projects are___-focused

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Answer: customer

Q97: Projects can be authorized for all the following reasons except

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Answer: Keeping the Project Manager busy

Q98: Projects differ from classic organizational processes because projects are

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Answer: discrete activities

Q99: Projects have a process orientation

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q100: Projects, rather than repetitive tasks, in are now the basis for most value-added business

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Answer: Correct – True