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Q1: A scannable resume conveys the same information as a printed one

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Answer: True – Answer

Q2: A scatter chart is useful for showing the relationship between two or more series or categories of data measured at uneven intervals of time

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Answer: True – Answer

Q3: A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor readers improve their reading performance. The children in the program are at the 4th percentile at pretest. At posttest they are around the 20th percentile. While it is possible that the program made the difference, another reason for the change in scores could be

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Answer: Regression artifact

Q4: A scope change control defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed. It includes

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Answer: Paperwork, tracking systems, and appropriate approval level for authorizing changes

Q5: A scope change control system

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Answer: Defines the procedures by which the project scope may be changed

Q6: A scope change is

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Answer: Any change to the agreed upon project scope as defined by the approved WBS

Q7: A scope change is defined as

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Answer: Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the work breakdown structure

Q8: A scope management plan describes

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Answer: How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project

Q9: A search engine is a computer program that helps find information

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Answer: Correct – True

Q10: A search engine is typically used to help change raw data into more useful information

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q11: A search engine may make it easier for a marketing manager to get information from the Internet, but it would not be useful on an intranet

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q12: A security measure to enable accidentally or deliberately deleted data to be resurrected is

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Answer: backup/restore

Q13: A security measure to stop unauthorized access to documents is

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Answer: network access control

Q14: A selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the benefit of

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Answer: comparability

Q15: A self-oriented team member is an asset to a team

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Answer: False – Answer

Q16: A sensational___may grab attention and produce pleasing aesthetics, but it does not necessarily make the product perform better

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Answer: style

Q17: A sentence beginning “There is” can probably be shortened

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Answer: True – Answer

Q18: A sequence diagram is a useful tool for discovering and/or documenting class behaviors and responsibilities

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Answer: True – Answer

Q19: A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as___

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Answer: Carryover effect

Q20: A series of consecutive points on the same side of the average is called

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Answer: Run

Q21: A server that hosts services for e-mail, calendaring, and other work group functionality is known as a(n)

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Answer: groupware server

Q22: A service encounter includes

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a. Face-to-face interaction b. Customers and a building c. Customers and advertising

Q23: A service is

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Answer: primary activityB. complementary activityC. not a physical product—all of these

Q24: A set of data organized in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q25: A set of manual files made available to all team members is called

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Answer: An information retrieval system

Q26: A set of modeling conventions that is used to specify or describe a software system in terms of objects is

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Answer: None of these —A). data flow diagramB). attribute object diagramC). entity relationship diagramD). data modeling diagram

Q27: A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called___

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Answer: Research ethics

Q28: A short-term benefit of an information audit is: “Quick___and efficiency gains from making information more available and usable.”

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Answer: financial

Q29: A sign used to identify and distinguish goods is

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Answer: trade mark

Q30: A significant difference between independent estimates and proposed pricing could mean that

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Answer: The SOW was not adequateC. The prospective seller either misunderstood or failed to respond fully to the SOW.—b or c

Q31: A significant part of decision making skills is not in knowing and practicing good decision making techniques

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q32: A simple scoring model assigns___to the criteria used to evaluate projects

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Answer: weights

Q33: A simple scoring model for project evaluation requires

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Answer: score values assigned to each criterion in terms of its rating

Q34: A simple scoring model is used to decide among three projects that we’ll call A, B, and C. The total score for project A is 30, for project B is 20, and for project C is 10. Which of the following statements is best

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Answer: Project A is better than project B for this company at this point in time

Q35: A simplified scoring model addresses all the weakness of a checklist model for project screening

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Answer: Correct – True

Q36: A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what

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Answer: A-B-A design

Q37: A situation analysis

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Answer: can be very informative, but takes little timecan help define the problem

Q38: A situation analysis is a formal study of what information is already available in the problem area

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q39: A six-month moving average forecast is better than a three-month moving average forecast if demand

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Answer: is rather stable

Q40: A small manufacturing firm has just experienced a rapid drop in sales. The marketing manager thinks that he knows what the problem is and has been carefully analyzing secondary data to check his thinking. His next step should be to

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Answer: conduct informal discussion with outsiders, including intermediaries, to see if he has correctly defined the problem

Q41: A small software firm is seeking several permanent employees with experience in the semiconductor industry and advanced degrees in computer science. The firm is a small one and cannot afford to pay a traditional recruiting firm a fee of 30percent per each hire’s salary. Instead, this firm should consider using a(n)___

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Answer: on-demand recruiting service

Q42: A soft drink concentrate producer makes 20 percent margin on its regular soda and 25 percent on its diet version of the same drink. The soft drink bottler’s, however, are required to sell both the regular and diet versions to the retailers at the same price. This is a classic example of___

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Answer: channel conflict

Q43: A software developer communicates to the tester about the readiness of a component. This is an example of

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Answer: B horizontal communication

Q44: A solicited job application letter is written when you

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Answer: Know the company is not hiring

Q45: A special DM called nature will be used as a universal way to model uncertainties

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Answer: Correct – True

Q46: A specific satisfier for a need is called a___

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Answer: Want

Q47: A specification of how the user moves from window to window, interacting with the application programs to perform useful work is called

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Answer: user dialog

Q48: A specified demographic group for which an advertising message is designed , is know as

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Answer: Target Audience

Q49: A spider web diagram is useful for

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Answer: showing company performance on a number of criteria simultaneously

Q50: A spin box is a screen-based control that consists of a single-line text box followed immediately by two small buttons

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Answer: True – Answer

Q51: A staffing management plan includes all of the following except

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Answer: Documentation on who has the authority to make decisions

Q52: A stage theory approach has been used in analyzing career development across a lifetime. Models have been produced which have proved to be influential in literature and practice. That said, the stage developmental approach is not without its critics, why

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Answer: All of these—s/b—All of these—a. The approach is reflective of middle class males in the mid to late 20th century in westernized societies b. The approaches are gender biased even with changes evident in the last two decades c. Working opportunities have become far less predictable undermining the stage approach

Q53: A standard systems development process is purchased or developed at Level 3 of the Capability Maturity Model (CMM)

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Answer: True – Answer

Q54: A statement of the quantitative research question should

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Answer: Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the researcher will addressb. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods, measures, and materials c. Specify the variables of interest—all of these

Q55: A statement that makes it clear what business a company is in is called a

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Answer: mission statement

Q56: A statistical package is likely to be used with quantitative research, but not with qualitative research

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Answer: Correct – True

Q57: A statistical relation of X and Y is insufficient evidence for inferring causality

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Answer: Correct – True

Q58: A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as___

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Answer: One-way analysis of variance

Q59: A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically significant is called the___

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Answer: t-test for correlation coefficients

Q60: A steering committee is comprised of system owners, IT managers, system designers, and system builders, all of whom determine which requests and projects get approved and scheduled

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Answer: False – Answer

Q61: A stock index is

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Answer: an average of a group of stock prices

Q62: A stock’s dividend yield is the

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Answer: dividend as a percentage of the price per share

Q63: A strategy is a company’s

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Answer: Game plan

Q64: A strategy is a set of decision making rules which guides and links the human and other resources of an organization and with the challenges and risk posed by

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Answer: Outside world

Q65: A strategy which aims to produce a perfect product which will suit everybody is called

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Answer: Product orientation

Q66: A strategy which aims to produce the maximum amount of goods at the lowest possible price is called

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Answer: Production orientation

Q67: A strong set of reasons for companies to use direct marketing is that it is an easy, private, and convenient way for customers to shop

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Answer: Correct – True

Q68: A structured definition defining data objects and the relationship between them together with attributes, and acceptable values is

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Answer: a data dictionary

Q69: A structured interview is generally used after the screening stage

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Answer: False – Answer

Q70: A structured process by which people become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is called___

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Answer: apprenticeship training

Q71: A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed is called

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Answer: Check list

Q72: A Student object class and a Teacher object class may be subtypes of a Person object class

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Answer: True – Answer

Q73: A study in which randomly selected groups are observed and the results are analyzed without explicitly controlling for other factors is called

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Answer: an observational study

Q74: A sub game perfect equilibrium is a Nash equilibrium that

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Answer: involves only credible threats

Q75: A subtype is an object class whose instances store attributes and behaviors that are unique to it as well as those inherited from a supertype class

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Answer: True – Answer

Q76: A successful orientation should achieve which of the following

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Answer: The new employee should feel welcome

Q77: A successful resume conveys seven qualities that employers seek; which of the following is not one of them

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Answer: All these are qualities that employers seek—Showing signs of career progressHaving personal standards of excellenceBeing flexible and willing to try new thingsBeing paid a salary commensurate with your abilities and responsibilities

Q78: A successful TQM program incorporates all of the following except

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Answer: Centralized decision making authority

Q79: A summary activity in a network logic diagram is often referred to as a

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Answer: Hammock

Q80: A supply chain view of a firm sees markets as destination points and amounts to a linear view of the flow. The company should first think of the target market, however, and then design the supply chain backward from that point. This view is called___

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Answer: demand chain planning

Q81: A synopsis and an executive summary are the same thing: a brief preview (one page or less) of a report’s most important points

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Answer: False – Answer

Q82: A system in which the components of an information system are distributed to multiple locations in a computer network is known as a

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Answer: distributed system

Q83: A system of partnerships and alliances that a firm creates to source, augment, and deliver its offering is called a demand chain

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q84: A system sponsor is

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Answer: senior managers or board members who have bought into the e-business initiative

Q85: A system that has little or no links to its environment is called a closed system

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Answer: Correct – True

Q86: A system that keeps track of each withdrawal or addition to inventory continuously is

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Answer: A perpetual inventory system

Q87: A system that triggers ordering on a uniform time basis is called a

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Answer: Fixed-period system

Q88: A system used to analyse different types of corporate data sets, typically about sales, customers and financial performance

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Answer: Business Intelligence system

Q89: A system used to facilitate internal communication with employees

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Answer: Corporate information portal intranet

Q90: A table containing records that describe business events is

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Answer: transaction file

Q91: A tall structure is characterized with

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Answer: Wide span of control

Q92: A task of developing a technical blueprint and specifications for a solution that fulfills the business requirements is undertaken in the following phase of the system development process

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Answer: system design

Q93: A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager

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Answer: Arrange for the team member to get training

Q94: A technique for identifying individuals uniquely is

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Answer: biometric identification

Q95: A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called

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Answer: Arbitration

Q96: A technique for strategic analysis involving review of level of Internet access in target market is___

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Answer: SWOT analysis

Q97: A technique that organizes data into groups to form non-redundant, stable, flexible, and adaptive entities is

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Answer: normalization

Q98: A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called___

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Answer: Probability proportional to size or PPS

Q99: A temporal event is triggered by a temporal action

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Answer: False – Answer

Q100: A term of similar meaning to CSR is

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Answer: TBL