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Q1: A product life cycle is a series of phases whose name and number is determined by the organization’s needs regarding control of the project

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q2: A production process has been defined as part of an industrial equipment manufacturing project. The process is intended to produce steel bolts with a length of 20 cm. The acceptable control limits are 19.955 cm and 20.045 cm.
The measurements made at the end of the process yielded the following results:
20.033 cm, 19.982 cm, 19,995 cm, 20.006 cm, 19.970 cm, 19.968 cm, 19.963 cm, 19.958 cm,19.962 cm, 19.979 cm, 19.959 cm.
What should be done

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Answer: The process should be adjusted

Q3: A professor of statistics refutes the claim that the proportion of independent voters in Minnesota is at most 40percent. To test the claim, the hypotheses: assignment mcqshould be used

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q4: A profit-maximizing monopolist

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Answer: Never produces on the inelastic portion of the demand curve because marginal revenue is negative there

Q5: A profit-maximizing monopolist never produces along the___portion of the demand curve because marginal revenue is___there

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Answer: Inelastic; negative

Q6: A profit-maximizing monopolist produces an output level at which

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Answer: Marginal revenue equals marginal cost

Q7: A program is

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Answer: A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

Q8: A program is defined in the PMBOK as

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Answer: A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually

Q9: A program test is a test performed on a subset of a program

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Answer: False – Answer

Q10: A programmed of one-to-one collaboration between a certified external expert and a manager for developing the leadership skills of the latter is called

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Answer: Executive coaching

Q11: A project can be considered to have failed if it

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Answer: Went significantly over budget. does not meet the users’ requirements. does not meet the business requirements. overran significantly on estimated delivery date

Q12: A Project Charter includes

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Answer: The business need for the project

Q13: A project exists outside of the standard line organization

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Answer: Correct – True

Q14: A project has payback period of 1 and a half of years. What does that mean

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Answer: It will take the project one and half years to cover the investment and start generating revenue

Q15: A project has several teams. Team C has missed several deadlines in the past. This has caused team D to have to crash the critical path several times. As the project leader for team D, you should meet with the

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Answer: project manager and the team C leader

Q16: A project is considered successful if the resulting information system is developed at the lowest possible cost

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Answer: False – Answer

Q17: A project is considered to be complete when

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Answer: BCWP, BCWS and EAC are all equalWhen SPI = 1 which means PV and EV are equal, the project is complete. That would mean the answer is A

Q18: A project is defined as

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Answer: A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service

Q19: A project is defined in the PMBOK as

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Answer: A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service

Q20: A project is exceptionally risky might still be undertaken by a firm if they have several other projects underway that are considered more of a sure thing. This approach to project selection is best described by the criterion called

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Answer: desire for portfolio balance

Q21: A project is managed by a project coordinator. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true

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Answer: The performing organization is a weak matrix

Q22: A project kick off meeting is usually conducted to

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Answer: Setup project team and announce the PM assignment

Q23: A Project Management Office is designed to oversee or improve the management of projects without stripping responsibility from the project manager

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Answer: Correct – True

Q24: A project management professional can compare earned value performance data to all of the following project management tools EXCEPT

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Answer: Forecasted final costs and schedule estimates

Q25: A project management team discusses what scope means in a project. All of the following statements are true except

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Answer: The processes, tools, and techniques used by project scope management are mostly depending on the application area

Q26: A project management team has subcontracted work to a service company. The process of ensuring that this service company’s performance meets contractual requirements is called

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Answer: Contract Administration

Q27: A project management team is evaluating the causes that might contribute to unsatisfactory performance and quality. Which of the following statements is not true

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Answer: Special causes are easier to predict and handle than random causes

Q28: A project manager believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value for the customer. The project manager should

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Answer: Call a meeting of the change control boardDiscuss it in the change control board

Q29: A project manager disclosed some crucial information to a prospective seller. Which code of professional conduct did he violate

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Answer: Prevent conflict of interest

Q30: A project Manager has to manage conflict in an organization. All the following could be sources of conflict in an organization except

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Answer: Low position in the organization hierarchy

Q31: A project manager is meeting with a team member and says, “I know you want to become involved in meetings with the customer. Because of your performance on the project so far, I have rearranged things so you can become involved with the customer.” This is an example of

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Answer: Reward power

Q32: A Project Manager is most likely to have the strongest influence in an organization that is

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Answer: Projectized

Q33: A project manager is using a cause and effect diagram with the team to determine how various factors might be linked to potential problems. In what part of the quality management process is the project manager involved

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Answer: Quality planning

Q34: A project manager is using the internal rate of return method to make the final decision on which project to undertake. Which of these four projects have the highest internal rate of return

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Answer: USD12,500 initial outlay with USD10,000 cash inflows during the following five years

Q35: A project manager is working with quality professionals in the quality assurance phase of the project. Which of the following activities is being performed

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Answer: Determining if the right quality standard are being used

Q36: A Project Manager must have good understanding of the mechanics of power and politics to be effective. As defined by Pfeffer, power includes all the following except

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Answer: Ability to handle power struggles and organizational games

Q37: A project manager must publish a project schedule. Activities, start/end times and resources are identified. What should the project manager do next

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Answer: Confirm the availability of the resources

Q38: A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following results: AC: 220,000, PV: 250,000, EV: 220,000

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Answer: CV = 0

Q39: A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following results: EV: 250,000; PV: 200,000; AC 275,000 BAC is 500,000. What is right

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Answer: EAC = 550,000

Q40: A project manager performs Earned Value Analysis and finds the following values: EV: 100,000; PV: 125,000; AC: 100,000

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Answer: The project is behind schedule but on budget

Q41: A project manager that dictates all decisions and does not allow for any participation by the workers would be using which leadership style

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Answer: Autocratic

Q42: A project manager would like to manage his project in such a way that he will be able to identify specific tasks that should be watched and managed more closely than others. The project manager should use which method

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Answer: The critical part method

Q43: A project or phase needs a formal closure when

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Answer: A when the project objectives are met DB when the project/phase is terminated for various reasons—a and b

Q44: A project plan generally includes the following

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Answer: Project Charter, cost estimates, project schedule, required staff, key risks

Q45: A project plan is

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Answer: A formal, approved document used to guide both project execution and project control

Q46: A project screening criterion that allows the company to compare long term versus short term projects, projects with different technologies, and projects with different commercial objectivesis

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Answer: capability

Q47: A project selection model that is broad enough to be applied to multiple projects has the virtue of___

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Answer: comparability

Q48: A project that results in “doing the wrong things well” has ignored the

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Answer: customer satisfaction goal

Q49: A project typically has

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Answer: a defined start and end date

Q50: A project whose acceptance does not prevent or require the acceptance of one or more alternative projects is referred to as —

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Answer: An independent project

Q51: A project with the chance for a big payout may be funded if an important criterion is

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Answer: opportunity

Q52: A project’s critical path is composed of activities A, B, and C. Activity A has a standard deviation of 2, activity B has a standard deviation of 1, and activity C has a standard deviation of 2. What is the standard deviation of the critical path

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Answer: 3 explnation 2sq + 2sq + 1sq = 9. Square root of 9 is 3

Q53: A property or quality the system must have is called a

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Answer: non-functional requirement

Q54: A proposal project requires forming a team of the representatives for sales, project management, technical and support functions

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Answer: Correct – True

Q55: A pull strategy involves the manufacturer using its sales force and trade promotion money to induce intermediaries to carry, promote, and sell the product to the end users

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q56: A push strategy involves the manufacturer using advertising and promotion to persuade consumers to ask intermediaries for the product, thus inducing the intermediaries to order it

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q57: A qualitative research question

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Answer: both a and b are correct

Q58: A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is known as a

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Answer: Probe

Q59: A question on an employment application form that requests the dates of attendance and graduation from various schools may be illegal as it could reflect an applicant’s age

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Answer: Correct – True

Q60: A radar chart is a useful graphic output for comparing different aspects of more than one series or category of data

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Answer: True – Answer

Q61: A RAM is defined as

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Answer: Responsibility assignment matrix

Q62: A rational person who currently subscribes two magazines is trying to decide whether he should subscribe to a third. What should determine his decision

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Answer: The additional cost of the third magazine compared to the additional benefit the person would get from the third magazine

Q63: A recent study of 232 organizations showed that organizations working in teams experience the highest improvement in performance

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Answer: True – Answer

Q64: A recent study showed that 70 percent of all companies use a combination of___to compensate its sales force

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Answer: base salary and incentives

Q65: A recommended way of minimizing unethical behavior is for employees to

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Answer: confront fellow employees about ethical deviations

Q66: A recruiting yield pyramid is the historical arithmetic relationship between all of the following EXCEPT___

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Answer: internal and external candidates

Q67: A referential integrity error will occur when a foreign key value in one table has no matching primary key value in the related table

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Answer: True – Answer

Q68: A regulation is a document that lays down provisions with which compliance is mandatory

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Answer: Correct – True

Q69: A regulatory process of establishing standards to achieve organizational goals, comparing actual performance to the standard and taking corrective action, is known as

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Answer: a. Control

Q70: A relationship between use cases indicating that the use case can not be performed until another use case has been performed is referred to as “depends on” relationship

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Answer: True – Answer

Q71: A relationship in a activity-on-arrow diagram are(is)

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Answer: finish to start

Q72: A relationship that exists between the instances of the same entity is called

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Answer: recursive

Q73: A request from a prospective importer to be informed of the terms and conditions of sale is called as

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Answer: Enquiry

Q74: A research plan___

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Answer: Should be detailedb. Should be given to others for review and commentsc. Sets out the rationale for a research study—all of these

Q75: A research proposal involves interviewing 6 to 10 people in an informal group setting

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q76: A research studies the relation between early reading and later school achievement. She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is IQ. In developing her groups for her study, she pairs each child who was an early reader with a child of the same IQ level who was not an early reader. The control technique she used was

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Answer: Matching

Q77: A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was

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Answer: Explanation

Q78: A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program. He uses a nonequivalent comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his experimental group is greater than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds that in general children who live in the area where he drew his experimental group tend to grow faster cognitively than children who were from the area where he drew his control group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to the internal validity of his study

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Answer: Selection-maturation effect

Q79: A researcher does a study of students’ phenomenological feelings about problem solving. One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. Two subcategories of that category of positive affect are smiles when solves the problem, and shouts hooray when finished. The relation between these subcategories and the overall category of positive affect is

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Answer: Strict inclusion

Q80: A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor readers’ reading achievement. He looks at two different schools. One serves as the control and the other the experimental group. Both schools had reading achievement that was around the 50th percentile. During the time that the mentoring program is in place in the experimental group, a statewide reading initiative is started in randomly selected schools. The experimental, but not the control school is involved in the initiative. At the end of the year, the experimental group does better than the control. From the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity of the study is

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Answer: Selection-history effect

Q81: A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. She interviews 5 girls and 5 boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence, she decides to generate her codes as she scans through her transcriptions of her data. These codes are labeled

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Answer: Inductive codes

Q82: A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools during the 1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no author or copyright date in the book. She examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style. After investigating further, she finds a reference to the book from a teacher’s diary from the 1800s. The diary also mentions an author’s name. After further searching around she is able to identify the author of the book. The investigator was engaged in what process

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Answer: Sourcing

Q83: A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a potential extraneous variable in her study, she picks children to study who are only from low SES homes. The control technique she used in this study was

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Answer: Holding the extraneous variable constant

Q84: A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools. She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She believes that parent involvement has an impact on children by increasing their motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent involvement leads to higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement. Student motivation is what kind of variable in this study

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Answer: Mediating or intervening variable

Q85: A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like they had little control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of control was an invariant part of the students’ experiences suggests that lack of control is___of the “flunking out” experience

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Answer: An essence

Q86: A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His authentification of the object is referred to as

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Answer: External criticism

Q87: A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle snakes as a part of their church activities in several rural churches in Tennessee, Alabama, and Georgia. He makes qualitative observations at several churches but also hands out fairly lengthy instruments that quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ, religiousity, self-esteem, and a political attitudes). He keeps the qualitative and quantitative data separate during analysis. He does some mixing during the discussion of his report about the qualitative and quantitative insights are related. Which design is this

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Answer: Equal-status concurrent design

Q88: A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers are considered

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Answer: Primary sources

Q89: A resource pool description provides

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Answer: What are the resources are available, at what times and in what patterns

Q90: A restaurant chain announces declining revenues. What’s the name of the type of risk that this news raises for holders of this chain’s bonds? What does this news to do the interest rate on this chain’s bonds

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Answer: default risk, The interest rate rises

Q91: A resume is a form of advertising

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Answer: True – Answer

Q92: A retrenchment strategy is used to reduce

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Answer: All of these—a. Technical losses b. Financial losses c. The scale and scope of the business operation

Q93: A return-on-investment calculation computes a dollar value

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Answer: False – Answer

Q94: A review of management processes and the associated documentation is commonly called

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Answer: Audit

Q95: A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the researcher to do which of the following

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Answer: To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interestb. To identify potential methodological problems in the research areac. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest—all of these

Q96: A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called

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Answer: Avoidance

Q97: A risk was identified that “Rebecca” is the only person in the company that has the expertise to complete a critical task on your project.Rebecca advised during the planning phase that she is scheduled for elective surgery at an unknown date. If the hospital calls, she will go on medical leave for 3 months. Of course the hospital calls and Rebacca goes on medical leave. Since the task is on the critical path you need to acquire a consultant as soon as possible. To do this,the project manager

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Answer: Follow the legal requirements setup by the company for using outside services

Q98: A sample mean is a___estimate and we do not know how close it is to the population mean

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Answer: confidence

Q99: A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following

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Answer: Sample meansb. Sample correlationsc. Sample proportions—all of these

Q100: A satisfied buyer is a silent___

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Answer: advertiser