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Q1: A research problem is

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Answer: a statement that may define an opportunity or current marketing situation.

Q2: A research problem is the focus of a research investigation

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Answer: Correct – True

Q3: A research proposal communicates a researcher’s plan for a study

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Answer: Correct – True

Q4: A research report communicates what was actually

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Answer: done in a study, and what resulted

Q5: A research report communicates what was actually done in a study and what resulted

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Answer: Correct – True

Q6: A researcher administers a history aptitude test to a group of middle school students and later compares their test scores with their end-of-the-semester grade in history. This is an example of obtaining evidence of

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Answer: predictive validity

Q7: A researcher conducted an experiment to see if increasing water consumption lessens the visible effects of rosacea, a common skin condition. The dependent variable in this experiment was

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Answer: the visible condition of the skin

Q8: A researcher is studying a speech given by a presidential candidate about education in the U.S. She is comparing what was said to other information. She is engaged in

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Answer: internal criticism

Q9: A researcher who chooses to control an attitudinal threat by building it into the design would most likely use a

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Answer: counterbalanced design

Q10: A researcher who uses follow-up surveys of a sample from a graduating class at 10 year intervals is conducting a

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Answer: panel study

Q11: A researcher would be likely to use a static group design when it is difficult to manipulate the independent variable

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Answer: Correct – True

Q12: A researcher would be most likely to use a static group design when

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Answer: participants cannot be randomized to conditions

Q13: A researcher’s written account of what he hears, sees, experiences, and thinks in the course of collecting and reflecting on data describes her

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Answer: field notes

Q14: A retail store marketing vice president is developing an advertising budget using the objective and task method. She has the objective of clearing slow-moving merchandise from her shelves and is trying to choose between radio and newspaper ads. Which of the following is an advantage of radio relative to newspaper as a means of achieving the objective

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Answer: Better segmentation capability

Q15: A sampling distribution is a distribution of

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Answer: statistics

Q16: A scale on which opposing adjectives are presented is called a

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Answer: semantic differential

Q17: A secondary source is a document prepared by an individual who was not a direct witness to an event, but who obtained his or her description of the event from someone else

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Answer: Correct – True

Q18: A selling format that assumes a presentation consists of information that must be provided in an accurate, thorough, and step-by-step manner to inform the prospect is called a

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Answer: formula selling presentation

Q19: A service quality dimension when individualized attention is provided to customers is

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Answer: empathy

Q20: A service quality where the ability to perform the promised service dependably and accurately is

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Answer: reliability

Q21: A set of overly simplified and often inaccurate beliefs about the typical characteristics of a particular group is called a prototype

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q22: A simple random sample is a sample selected from a population in such a manner that all members of the population have an equal chance of being selected

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Answer: Correct – True

Q23: A simulation is an artificially created situation in which subjects are asked to act out certain roles

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Answer: Correct – True

Q24: A single buyer or purchasing manager is often used to make what type of purchase decision

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Answer: routine

Q25: A single group is exposed to a treatment or event, and its effects are assessed. This describes static-group comparison design

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q26: A skewed distribution is asymmetrical

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Answer: Correct – True

Q27: A small number of people from different departments in an organization who are mutually accountable to a common set of performance goals is called a: A. stakeholder team B. vision team

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Answer: cross-functional team

Q28: A sociometric device is an instrument designed to assess the relationship among members of a group

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Answer: Correct – True

Q29: A standard sequence of behaviors that organizational members follow routinely whenever they encounter a particular type of problem or opportunity is called ___

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Answer: Performance program

Q30: A statistical technique that makes few, if any, assumptions about the nature of the population from which the samples in the study were taken describes a parametric statistical technique

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q31: A straight rebuy is a(n)___while a modified buy is for___

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Answer: Reorder, alteration

Q32: A supplier’s attempt to stipulate to whom and where distributors may resell their products to is known as

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Answer: resale restrictions

Q33: A supply chain is a sequence of firms that perform activities required to

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Answer: create and deliver goods to consumers

Q34: A supply chain is essentially a sequence of linked

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Answer: suppliers and customers

Q35: A systematic sample is a specific group of individuals that is kept on call for repeated study

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q36: A table of random numbers is a table of numbers, listed and arranged in a specific order

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q37: A tall, centralized hierarchy of authority and top-down communication and decision making are characteristics of a (n)

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Answer: Mechanistic structure

Q38: A team in which a significant amount of communication and interaction occurs electronically rather than face to face is referred to as

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Answer: A virtual team

Q39: A team is always a group, but a group is not always a team

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Answer: Correct – True

Q40: A technique that analyzes the relationship between total revenue and total cost to determine profitability is called

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Answer: break-even analysis

Q41: A testing threat to internal validity occurs when a pretest changes scores on a posttest

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Answer: Correct – True

Q42: A textbook is a good example of a secondary source of information

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Answer: Correct – True

Q43: A theory about work motivation that focuses on employees’ perceptions of the fairness of the procedures used to make decisions about the distribution of outcomes is

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Answer: Procedural justice theory

Q44: A two-stage random sample is a sample selected because the individuals have special qualifications of some sort, or because of prior evidence of representativeness

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q45: A useful framework used to assess a company’s investments/divisions is called

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Answer: business portfolio analysis

Q46: A variable that clarifies the application of a relationship is called

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Answer: a moderator variable

Q47: A worker’s personal convictions about what outcomes one should expect from work and how one should behave at work are

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Answer: Work values

Q48: A ___is a collection of organizational members who enjoy each other’s company and socialize with each other (often both on and off the job)

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Answer: Friendship group

Q49: A ___is a collection of people who come together to accomplish a specific goal

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Answer: Task force

Q50: A ___is a group of people working together who possess similar skills or use the same kind of knowledge, tools, or techniques to perform their jobs

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Answer: Function

Q51: A(n) ___is a formal group of members who interact at a high level and work together intensely to achieve a common group goal

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Answer: Team

Q52: A(n)___is a systematic appraisal of the design, quality, and performance of a product

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Answer: Value analysis

Q53: A.C. Nielsen is an example of what kind of company who provides secondary data

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Answer: specialized syndicated trade source provider

Q54: Ability measurement tests are an important part of the selection process and managers should always administer them before extending a job offer

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q55: Absenteeism is affected solely by job satisfaction

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q56: According to a Millward Brown Goldfarb study, which of the following is NOT a Canadian market segment

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Answer: Cosmopolitan Modernists

Q57: According to Bass, transformational leadership occurs when a leader transforms, or changes, his or her followers. One of the three important changes in the followers is

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Answer: Followers are aware of their needs for personal accomplishment and growth.

Q58: According to contingency theory, an organization’s structure needs to be designed to fit or match the set of contingencies – factors or conditions that affect it the most and cause it the most uncertainty

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Answer: Correct – True

Q59: According to Herzberg, a worker could experience job satisfaction and job dissatisfaction at the same time

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Answer: Correct – True

Q60: According to Industry Canada, a product can be labelled “new” for how long

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Answer: twelve months

Q61: According to Maslow’s theory

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Answer: At any particular time only one set of needs motivates behavior.

Q62: According to scientific management theory, there is not one best way to perform each task

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q63: According to social learning theory, learning in organizations is influenced by all of the following except

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Answer: Self-fulfilling prophecy

Q64: According to the “Big Five” model, a person who exhibits specific traits such as trust, tender-mindedness and straightforwardness would be regarded as someone who demonstrates a high level of

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Answer: Agreeableness

Q65: According to the authors, the various research methodologies described in this chapter fall into which three general research categories

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Answer: descriptive, associational, intervention-type

Q66: According to the text, which ethnic subculture likes to be closer to nature and comfortable at home

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Answer: French-Canadian

Q67: According to the text, which of the following influences is considered a reason for the perceived decline in ethical marketing behaviour

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Answer: All of the above.

Q68: According to the Vroom and Yetton model, when and how much leaders should allow their subordinates to participate in decision making depends on

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Answer: All of these—A Aspects of the decision.B The information needed to make a good decisionC The subordinates involved.

Q69: Achieving the best coverage of the target market requires attention to the density type of retail operations to be used. These are three choices

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Answer: intensive, selective, and exclusive

Q70: Action research cannot be carried out by an individual teacher in the classroom

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q71: Action research is conducted by one or more individuals or groups for the purpose of solving a problem or obtaining information in order to inform local practice

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Answer: Correct – True

Q72: Action research results are widely generalizable

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q73: Activities in which managers engage to increase their power and pursue goals that favor their individual goals and activities are called ___

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Answer: Organizational politics

Q74: Advantages of using groups to make decisions include the availability and diversity of members’ skills, knowledge, and expertise; enhanced memory for facts; greater ability to correct errors; and greater decision acceptance

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Answer: Correct – True

Q75: Advertising that promotes a specific brand’s features and benefits is

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Answer: competitive

Q76: Affective commitment exists when workers feel good about the organization and what it stands for

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Answer: Correct – True

Q77: After being shown an ad, respondents are asked whether their previous exposure to it was through reading, viewing, or listening. This is an example of what type of post-test

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Answer: aided recall

Q78: After World War II many of Toyota’s manufacturing managers visited U.S. auto plants of GM and Ford to learn about auto manufacturing

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Answer: Correct – True

Q79: Aggregating prospective buyers into groups is called: A. market categorization

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Answer: market segmentation

Q80: Air freight is costly, but its speed may create savings because of

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Answer: lower inventory.

Q81: Alderfer’s ERG theory is a need theory of work relatedness. Expectancy is one of the needs identified by Alderfer

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q82: All of the behaviors expected of a role occupant are the role occupant’s functions

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q83: All subjects in a research study should be made aware that data collected during research is available to the scientific community at large

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q84: All-channel communication networks are prevalent when there is reciprocal task interdependence

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Answer: Correct – True

Q85: Allowing employees to plan their own work schedules is an example of job enlargement

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q86: Allowing for exploration of causes of group membership is one weakness in causal-comparative research

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Answer: Wrong – False

Q87: Almost all correlational studies revolve around three types of questions. Which of the following is not one of these types of questions

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Answer: How were things done in the past, and how might they be applicable to present-day problems or concerns

Q88: Almost all correlational studies revolve around three types of questions: Is variable X related to variable Y? What is the relationship among a large number of variables and what predictions can be made on them? How well does variable P predict variable C

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Answer: Correct – True

Q89: Almost all research plans include the following components

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Answer: a problem statement, a hypothesis, definitions, a literature review, a sample of subjects, tests or other measuring instruments, a description of procedures, and data analysis

Q90: Although not illegal, this can be reviewed as anti-competition is some situations

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Answer: dual distribution

Q91: An abstract knowledge structure that is stored in memory and makes possible the organization and interpretation of information about a target population is a (n)

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Answer: Schema

Q92: An action item list contains three columns: (1) the task, (2) the name of the person responsible for accomplishing the task, and (3)___

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Answer: The date by which the task is to be finished

Q93: An advantage of publicity is

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Answer: credibility.

Q94: An advantage of single-subject designs is

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Answer: that they can be applied in settings where group designs are difficult to put into play

Q95: An advantage of single-subject designs is that they can be applied in settings where group designs are difficult to put into play

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Answer: Correct – True

Q96: An alliance between Kraft Foods and Starbucks is an example of a

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Answer: strategic channel alliance

Q97: An EAP is a company-sponsored program that provides employees with counseling and other kinds of professional help to deal with stressors such as alcohol and drug abuse, and family problems

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Answer: Correct – True

Q98: An educational psychology student who conducts dissertation research using human participants must obtain formal approval that the research meets ethical guidelines from

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Answer: an institutional, college, or department review board

Q99: An effective sales plan objective should be

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Answer: precise, measurable, and time specific

Q100: An effective short-hand summary of the situation analysis is a: A. BCG analysis

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Answer: SWOT analysis