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Q1: Which of the following statements about redundancy payments is incorrect

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Answer: Employees can sometimes claim a redundancy payment if they leave before their notice period has been completed.

Q2: Which of the following is not a prerequisite of a contract being formed

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Answer: The contract should be in writing.

Q3: Implied terms

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Answer: can be deemed to be present because of implied agreement.

Q4: Which of the following is not an express term

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Answer: Duty to maintain mutual trust and confidence

Q5: An implied term

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Answer: can be implied if it is necessary in the business sense to give efficacy to the contract.

Q6: Which of the following is not an implied duty of the employer

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Answer: To provide an hour for lunch

Q7: Which of the following is untrue? Wrongful dismissal

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Answer: has to relate to unreasonable behaviour on the part of the employer.

Q8: Which of the following would not benefit from bringing a wrongful dismissal claim as opposed to an unfair dismissal one

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Answer: A person who is dismissed with proper notice because of poor performance, but who does not accept the employer’s reasons.

Q9: Which of the following is not an essential ingredient in a successful claim for constructive dismissal

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Answer: The employee must have been employed by the employer for three years.

Q10: Which of the following is not a ground for claiming discrimination

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Answer: Being overweight

Q11: Which of the following is generally unlawful in the UK

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Answer: Discrimination against someone who is clinically depressed.

Q12: Which of the following is not an argument commonly deployed by critics of discrimination laws

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Answer: Discrimination law fails to deter employers from discriminating unfairly.

Q13: What is being described here

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Answer: Formal equality

Q14: Michaela wishes to bring an action for sex discrimination. How long does she have to bring a claim from the date of the discriminatory act

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Answer: 3 months

Q15: Which of the following is not an element of establishing direct sex discrimination

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Answer: Which can be justified

Q16: In cases of direct sex discrimination a comparator has to

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Answer: Share all the relevant circumstances and attributes of the claimant

Q17: Which of the following is not an occupational requirement

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Answer: Female sales person on a make up counter

Q18: Which statement in relation to indirect discrimination is not true

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Answer: Indirect discrimination has to have a motive

Q19: The Equality Act 2010 permits

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Answer: discrimination against ex-offenders

Q20: The comparator for a civil partner or married person is

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Answer: a person who is not married or a civil partner irrespective of that person’s sex.

Q21: Which of the following is an untrue statement

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Answer: An employer cannot refuse to allow someone who has had gender reassignment surgery to wear a skirt, even if women in the organisation are have to wear trousers.

Q22: A pregnant woman who is discriminated against does not need a comparator

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Answer: True

Q23: Which of the following is a true statement

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Answer: An employer can deploy the ‘material factor’ defence against a claim for equal pay.

Q24: Which of the following statements concerning the introduction of equal value principles after 1983 is true

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Answer: The pay gap between men and women narrowed.

Q25: Which of the following will not generally be accepted as the basis of a material factor defence in an equal pay case brought by a woman

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Answer: The male comparator asked for a higher salary on his appointment.

Q26: Which of the following statements about remedies in equal pay cases is accurate

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Answer: There is no cap on the amount of compensation that can be won.

Q27: The Part Time Workers (Prevention of Less Favourable Treatment) Regulations apply to

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Answer: workers

Q28: The Fixed-Term Employees (Prevention of Less Favourable Treatment) Regulations 2002 apply to

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Answer: employees only

Q29: Which of the following statements about the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974 is incorrect

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Answer: Employers should not take account of the costs of reducing risks when health and safety risks are identified.

Q30: Which of the following statements about union-appointed health and safety representatives is not accurate

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Answer: Managers can play a role in selecting the reps.

Q31: Which of the following is not a requirement of the COSHH regulations

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Answer: To send managers on an HSE approved training programme.

Q32: What are the two types of notice that health and safety inspectors can issue when they are unhappy with what they find at an employers’ premises

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Answer: Prohibition notices and improvement notices.

Q33: What type of personal injury claim is most common in the UK

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Answer: Negligence

Q34: What term is used to describe the doctrine where by an employer is held legally responsible for injuries sustained at work even if wholly blameless

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Answer: Vicarious liability

Q35: Under which type of claim is it necessary to show that an employee has suffered ‘oppressive and unacceptable’ treatment ‘of an order which would sustain criminal liability’

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Answer: Protection from Harassment Act

Q36: On average what proportion of damages won in personal injury claims is spent on legal fees

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Answer: 1%

Q37: Which of the following does not appear in the Working Time Regulations 1998

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Answer: 1 hour for lunch

Q38: The Working Time Regulations 1998 do not apply to

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Answer: Self employed

Q39: Which of the following statements about annual leave entitlements is incorrect?

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Answer: consists of 28 days plus bank holidays.

Q40: The basic adult rate of the national minimum wage

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Answer: applies to all workers over the age of 22 (with some exceptions).

Q41: For the purposes of the national minimum wage, pay includes

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Answer: tips

Q42: The national minimum wage cannot be enforced by

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Answer: complaining to the enforcement officer in the local authority.

Q43: It is unlawful to make deductions from wages in the following circumstances

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Answer: for misconduct if there is no clause in the contract allowing this.

Q44: Which of the following is not a condition of taking time off for ante-natal care

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Answer: The woman must give the employer a week’s notice of the appointment.

Q45: Jemima is pregnant, and expecting a baby in 15 weeks’ time. She has been with her current employer for two months, and is intending to take her full entitlement of maternity leave. How many weeks can she take

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Answer: 26 weeks ordinary and 26 weeks additional.

Q46: Jemima, on the facts above, will be paid during her maternity leave in the following way

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Answer: State maternity allowance of £128.73 (at time of writing) for 39 weeks.

Q47: Jemima’s partner, Rob, has been employed by his employer for 9 months. He wishes to take a few days’ paid leave at the time of the baby’s birth. Which of the following will not be a factor his employer will consider

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Answer: Whether he has taken such leave for a previous child.

Q48: Which of the following is untrue in the case of parental leave

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Answer: Up to 18 weeks can be taken each year.

Q49: Which of the following is untrue in the case of the right to request flexible working

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Answer: the Employer must grant the request.

Q50: Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the Human Rights Act

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Answer: The HRA has had a huge effect on employment law.

Q51: Which of the following is not a right under the Data Protection Act

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Answer: The right not to have personal data kept for more than one month

Q52: To whom does the DPA not apply

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Answer: Self employed

Q53: An employer

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Answer: must take care in writing any reference that is provided.

Q54: Which of the following statements about the TUPE regulations is correct

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Answer: Continuity of service continues after a transfer has taken place

Q55: What is being described here:
‘The transfer from one controlling body to another of an organised grouping of resources’

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Answer: A standard transfer

Q56: What is the position in unfair dismissal law when an employee is dismissed soon after a TUPE transfer for an economic, technical or organisational reason

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Answer: Potentially fair

Q57: What is the maximum level of a protective award made when consultation with employees or their unions has not taken place ahead of a TUPE transfer

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Answer: 13 weeks’ pay

Q58: Who is responsible for determining whether or not a body should be ‘listed’ as a trade union

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Answer: The Certification Officer

Q59: What term is used to describe a situation in which an organisation makes being a member of a union is a condition of employment

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Answer: Closed shop

Q60: Which of the following statements about the rights of union officials in organisations which recognise unions is incorrect

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Answer: They have a right to be provided with basic office facilities.

Q61: To what extent is it true to state that “workers” have much less extensive protection than “employees” when they are dismissed for a trade union reason

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Answer: It was true until 2004, it is now untrue.

Q62: Which of the following statements about the legal status of collective agreements in the UK is accurate

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Answer: They are rarely legally enforceable.

Q63: Which of the following areas of collective employment law is the Central Arbitration Committee responsible for adjudicating

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Answer: Recognition and derecognition of trade unions.

Q64: In order to force an employer to recognise a trade union, what must be achieved by a union in a secret ballot

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Answer: A majority of votes plus 40% of the total electorate.

Q65: What percentage of an organisation’s employers must make a formal request if an employer is to implement the Information and Consultation of Employees Regulations 2004

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Answer: 0%

Q66: Which of the following torts, if breached during a period of industrial action, does not give trade unions any immunity from legal action

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Answer: Defamation

Q67: Which of the following types of industrial action is entirely lawful and will not generally be suspended by a court

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Answer: Action to protest about the allocation of work

Q68: During which of the following types of industrial action is it generally unlawful for an employer to dock workers’ pay

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Answer: Working to contract

Q69: How long after an official industrial dispute has begun is it sometimes lawful for an employer to dismiss the employees who are taking action

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Answer: 12 weeks

Q70: In the PEST framework for environmental analysis what does the letter E stand for

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Answer: Economic

Q71: Analyzing processes of change in the business environment involves conceptualizing it as

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Answer: Dynamic

Q72: The performance of business in the private sector is conventionally measured in terms of

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Answer: Profitability

Q73: What key word can be used to describe the basic economic problem that all societies face

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Answer: Scarcity

Q74: In which year was the National Minimum Wage (NMW) introduced in the UK

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Answer: 1999

Q75: What is a PLC

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Answer: Public limited company

Q76: What does the term ‘third sector’ refer to

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Answer: The voluntary sector

Q77: The idea that consumers are in charge of the economic system because their preferences drive business decisions about what to produce is referred to as

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Answer: Consumer sovereignty

Q78: A multi-national corporation (MNC) is defined by

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Answer: Carrying out production in more than one country

Q79: In SWOT analysis the ‘O’ stands for

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Answer: Opportunities

Q80: The ‘I’ in BRIC stands for

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Answer: India

Q81: Which of the following is not part of the opportunity cost of a university education for a full time student

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Answer: Cost of food

Q82: Which of the following perspectives tends to put more faith in the free operation of markets as a way of bringing about economic efficiency

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Answer: The neo-classical view

Q83: Which of the following statements best describes what economists mean by the term “scarcity”

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Answer: When unlimited needs and wants exist and yet resources are limited.

Q84: Which one of the following statements relating to scarcity is most likely to be associated with a socialist/marxist perspective

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Answer: Even if we accept that at the global level there is scarcity, the real pressing problem is that inequality means that resources are used to satisfy the needs of the rich at the expense of the poor. We thus have a world where there is abundance for the few and poverty for many.

Q85: If the demand for a good is relatively price inelastic and its price rises the revenue will

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Answer: Rise

Q86: If a 10% rise in price causes a 5% fall in the quantity demanded

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Answer: The price elasticity of demand is -0.5

Q87: Which of the following options is not an example of “market failure”

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Answer: Failure of a firm to maximize its profits

Q88: Which of the following is an example of a primary form of business activity

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Answer: Forestry

Q89: Which of the following statements is most likely to be true

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Answer: As incomes rise the percentage of total income spent on agricultural goods in general tends to fall.

Q90: Which three global economic institutions were established as a result of the Bretton Woods negotiations in 1944

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Answer: The World Bank, the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and the IMF

Q91: The BRICS acronym refers to which of the following group of countries

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Answer: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

Q92: The economic policies as practiced by President Reagan in the USA and Prime Minister Thatcher in the UK are most best associated with

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Answer: The Washington Consensus

Q93: A business is more likely to be able to exercise monopoly power if it operates in a market in which the demand is

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Answer: Highly price inelastic

Q94: Which of the following statements best describes what economists mean by a merit good

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Answer: Goods that it is felt people should own or have access to irrespective of ability to pay

Q95: If as a result of a fall in price the revenue of a business was to increase, then we can conclude that the market in which the business operates is

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Answer: Price elastic in relation to demand

Q96: Productivity is measured by

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Answer: Total output/total input

Q97: What is meant by the term ‘economies of scale’

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Answer: That as markets grow in size businesses can adapt production techniques to meet increased demand and in the process lower average costs.

Q98: Which of the following factors did Adam Smith feel were key to explaining economic growth

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Answer: All of the above

Q99: The Division of Labour refers to

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Answer: The idea that if production can be broken down into specific tasks, with workers specializing in each task, then productivity can be increased. This is because each worker can become more efficient in their particular task.

Q100: The economist Robert Gordon sees the development of capitalism as occurring in three stages that he labels IR1, IR2 and IR 3. Which technology is most closely associated with IR2

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Answer: The widespread availability of indoor plumbing