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Q1: What are schemas

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Answer: Cognitive frameworks which are used to organize and interpret information.

Q2: The tendency for people to ‘fill in’ the missing elements of an incomplete picture is the definition of

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Answer: Closure

Q3: Perceptual maps are

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Answer: Visual representations of the marketplace from the customers’ perspective.

Q4: Which of the following situations is likely to increase perceived risk perceptions among consumers

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Answer: Where there are major differences among brands.

Q5: Which of the following is not part of the definition of attitudes

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Answer: Inherited

Q6: The emotional connection a consumer has with an attitude object is termed

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Answer: Affective component

Q7: Which of the following represents the high involvement hierarchy of effects

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Answer: Cognitions -> Affect > Behaviour

Q8: In the uni-dimensionalist view of attitudes, intention to behave

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Answer: Is a consequence of attitude

Q9: If a consumer is seeking to express important aspects of herself through her purchases, in the functional theory of attitudes, this is an example of

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Answer: value-expressive function

Q10: Which of the following could be an attitude object

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Answer: All of the above

Q11: Behavioural intention is

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Answer: The intention to act in some way

Q12: The individual’s perception of relevant or significant others’ beliefs regarding whether the individual should engage in a behaviour is the definition of

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Answer: Normative beliefs

Q13: Which of the following is not a decision rule

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Answer: Algebraic rule

Q14: In the elaboration likelihood model, peripheral processing is when

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Answer: Consumers pay less attention to the persuasive arguments in a message, but instead are influenced by the images used and the emotional connection with the message.

Q15: Which of the following is a definition of personality

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Answer: The combination of the characteristic patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviours that make an individual’s distinctive character.

Q16: According to Freud, the superego

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Answer: Reflects the rules, values, and norms imposed by society, and serves as the person’s conscience.

Q17: Which of the following is not one of the ‘Big-Five’ traits of personality

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Answer: dishonesty

Q18: The symbolic interactionist perspective views the self as

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Answer: Emerging out of the mind, which develops out of social interaction.

Q19: ‘How consumers would like to be seen by significant others’ is the definition of

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Answer: The ideal social self

Q20: Negative possible selves

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Answer: Represent the idea of ourselves in the future that we reject or wish to avoid.

Q21: Symbolic consumption is defined as

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Answer: The tendency of consumers to rely and focus on the meanings attached to goods, beyond their physical properties.

Q22: The VALSTM framework is a form of which type of segmentation system

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Answer: Psychographic

Q23: Which of the following topics might be the focus of motivational research

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Answer: A study for the government health promotion unit trying to understand what drives people to exercise.

Q24: Approach-avoidance conflict is

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Answer: When a desired goal also has negative consequences.

Q25: Contactual reference groups are

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Answer: Close groups with which we interact regularly and where there is a degree of proximity.

Q26: The value-expressive influence of reference groups is

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Answer: When someone buys a particular brand to enhance their image, and because they admire characteristics of people who use the brand.

Q27: Opinion seekers are

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Answer: people who seek opinions and information to help their purchase decision.

Q28: A teenager has lunch in McDonald’s with her friends, even though she doesn’t really like McDonald’s and privately prefers to eat the food at Subway. This is an example of which of the following types of conformity

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Answer: Compliance

Q29: The TV advertisement for Sensodyne toothpaste features a dentist recommending that consumers use this brand of sensitive toothpaste. This is an example of

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Answer: Expert power

Q30: eWord-of-mouth (eWOM) is

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Answer: Any positive or negative statement made by potential, actual, or former customers about a product or company, which is made available to a multitude of people and institutions via the Internet.

Q31: Recent research1 has shown that between 30-40% of parents are shown how to use computers and the internet by their children. This is known as

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Answer: Reverse socialization

Q32: Parental yielding is when

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Answer: A parent is influenced by a child’s request and ‘surrenders’.

Q33: Cultural capital is

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Answer: The knowledge that is accumulated through upbringing and education, consisting of a set of distinctive tastes, skills, knowledge, and practices.

Q34: When companies try and create WOM around their brands, this is called

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Answer: Exogenous WOM

Q35: Which of the following is not part of the definition of culture

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Answer: It is biologically inherited.

Q36: According to Penaloza (1994), there are four main possible outcomes of consumer acculturation. Which of the following is not one of Penaloza’s outcomes

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Answer: Oscillation

Q37: According to Hofstede’s system for classifying cultures, individualism refers to

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Answer: The ways in which individual goals are balanced against collective or group goals.

Q38: What role do myths serve in making sense of culture

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Answer: They express shared emotions and cultural ideals, which can provide people with direction and guidelines about their world.

Q39: A consumer buying a new handbag as a reward for passing her driving test is an example of which type of consumer ritual

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Answer: Self-gift ritual

Q40: Sacred consumption refers to

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Answer: Consumer objects and events that are ‘set apart’ from normal activities, and are treated with some degree of respect or awe.

Q41: Which of the following is not an age-based subcultural grouping

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Answer: Mod-tradi consumers

Q42: Which of the following is a consumption-based subculture

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Answer: All of the above

Q43: Which of the following is not a key aspect of brand community

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Answer: Self-orientation

Q44: In relation to consumer tribes, the social ‘linking value’ is

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Answer: The value that consumers place on the connection with other consumers (through similar consumption) that allows them to create community and express identity.

Q45: Which of the following is not part of the definition of ‘panel data’

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Answer: It tells us why consumers buy.

Q46: Which of the following is the definition of a near-stationary market

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Answer: An established mature market which looks stable over a period of several months or a year.

Q47: Double Jeopardy is

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Answer: the phenomenon whereby brands with smaller market share have fewer buyers and these fewer buyers buy the brand less often.

Q48: ‘The average number of times consumers buy a brand in a time period’ is the definition of

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Answer: Purchase frequency

Q49: Market share is calculated by

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Answer: Dividing the total purchase of the brand by the total purchases of the category

Q50: What is brand loyalty

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Answer: The tendency for people to buy the same brand again, whilst usually also buying other brands

Q51: The Pareto law suggests that

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Answer: 80% of your sales come from 20% of your customers

Q52: The tendency for light buyers to become heavier and heavier buyers to become lighter is known as

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Answer: The law of buyer moderation

Q53: The range of brands that a consumer is likely to have in mind when making a purchase is known as their

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Answer: Brand repertoire

Q54: Loyalty programmes are useful to companies because

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Answer: They provide information that enables companies to target consumers more effectively

Q55: The Fitbug is a device that consumers can wear to track their movements, including their sleeping patterns, in order to improve their overall fitness and well-being. This use of technology is an example of

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Answer: The quantified self

Q56: QR (quick response) codes are widely used in consumer marketing – on which of the following places can such a code be placed

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Answer: All of the above

Q57: Which of the following is a technique used in Neuromarketing research

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Answer: fMRI

Q58: Consumers opting to limit their material consumption in order to raise the quality of their life are known as

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Answer: Voluntary simplifiers

Q59: Which of the following is an example of the ‘access mode of ownership’

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Answer: Watching a film on Netflix

Q60: Borrowed luxury refers to

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Answer: Consumers renting high end luxury goods (e.g. handbags, gowns, shoes) for short periods of time.

Q61: When consumers are acting in ways which violate and disrupt the generally accepted norms of conduct in consumption situations, this is known as

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Answer: Consumer misbehaviour

Q62: Compulsive buying is

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Answer: A form of deviant acquisition behaviour

Q63: In the context of consumer theft, which of the following is not a characteristic of goods typically stolen (CRAVED)

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Answer: Embarrassing

Q64: Which of the following topics might be studied from a transformative consumer research perspective

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Answer: All of the above

Q65: Which of these statements about the number of employment law cases being lodged over the past decade is true

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Answer: They have become increasingly numerous and complex.

Q66: Appeals from the ET to the EAT should be submitted within

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Answer: 42 days

Q67: Which of the following, commencing employment after 6th April 2012, is entitled to claim unfauir dismissal

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Answer: Employees with less than three years’ service

Q68: In which landmark judgment did the EAT establish the test that is used to determine an employer’s reasonableness in handling a misconduct cases in which the dismissed employee contests his or her guilt

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Answer: Burchell 1980

Q69: Which of the following is not an implied duty of the employee

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Answer: To pay wages

Q70: Which of the following is allowed under UK law

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Answer: Positive action.

Q71: Which of the following is incorrect? Annual leave

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Answer: consists of 28 days plus bank holidays.

Q72: The national minimum wage can not be enforced by

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Answer: complaining to the enforcement officer in the local authority.

Q73: Jemima’s partner, Rob, has been employed by his employer for 9 months. He wishes to take ordinary paternity leave. Which of the following will not be a factor his employer will consider

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Answer: Whether he has taken such leave for a previous child.

Q74: Which of the following is incorrect

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Answer: The DPA prevents and employer from recording calls.

Q75: A disclosure about which of the following is not protected as a ‘qualifying disclosure’ under the Public Interest Disclosure Act 1998

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Answer: Incompetence of employer

Q76: Which of these statements about the number of employment law cases being lodged over the past three years is true

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Answer: They have become less numerous but increasingly complex.

Q77: Which of these statements is true

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Answer: The volume of employment legislation has increased over recent years.

Q78: Which of these is not a factor in the development of modern employment law

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Answer: Demand from employers for greater regulation.

Q79: Which of the following statements is generally accepted as being accurate

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Answer: Small businesses find it hardest to cope with employment regulation.

Q80: More serious criminal cases are tried by

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Answer: The Crown Court

Q81: The standard of proof in civil cases (which includes employment cases) is

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Answer: on a balance of probabilities.

Q82: Appeals from the Employment Appeal Tribunal are heard by

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Answer: The Court of Appeal

Q83: John wishes to claim £40,000 for breach of his employment contract. He should bring his action in

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Answer: The County Court

Q84: Appeals from the ET to the EAT can only be based on a question of

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Answer: law

Q85: Independent contractors are

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Answer: workers

Q86: Self employed people have a right to claim in the employment tribunal

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Answer: disability discrimination

Q87: The test for deciding if someone is an employee or not looks at

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Answer: whether the person is obliged to accept the work that is given by his manager.

Q88: On whom is the burden of proof to satisfy the tribunal that the main reason for the dismissal was potentially lawful

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Answer: The employer

Q89: Unfair dismissal is

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Answer: where the reasons for the dismissal or the manner in which it was handled by the employer fall short of the standards expected by the law.

Q90: Which of the following, commencing employment after 6th April 2012, is entitled to claim unfair dismissal

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Answer: Employees with less than three years’ service

Q91: Which of the following is not an automatically unfair reason for dismissal

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Answer: Dismissal for unofficial industrial action.

Q92: Which of the following statements about compensation in unfair dismissal cases is not correct

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Answer: Compensation is paid to compensate claimants for injury to their feelings.

Q93: Which of the following would not usually be regarded as gross misconduct in most forms of employment

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Answer: Making a personal phone call

Q94: In deciding if a dismissal was unfair, the tribunal will, in applying the band of reasonable responses test

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Answer: consider whether the decision to dismiss could be construed as being that of a reasonable employer.

Q95: Which of the following statements about dismissals on grounds of poor performance is true

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Answer: They should be handled in the same way as dismissals on grounds of ordinary misconduct.

Q96: Which of the following statements about mandatory retirement is accurate

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Answer: Employers are free mandatorily to retire employees at the age of 65 provided the policy can be objectively justified with good business reasons.

Q97: Which is not necessarily a redundancy situation

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Answer: A business is restructuring.

Q98: Which of the following is not one of the questions asked by the case of Murray v Foyle meats

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Answer: Is that work set out in his employment contract?

Q99: Which of the following methods of selecting people for redundancy is clearly unlawful

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Answer: Ill health records

Q100: Which of the following statements is true in relation to a situation in which 20 employees are being made redundant at the same time

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Answer: Employers are obliged to consult both individually and collectively.