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Q1: 81% of users find new websites by using

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Answer: Search engines

Q2: What do search engines value the most when ranking your website

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Answer: What other websites link to yours

Q3: What is search engine optimization

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Answer: A mixture of having the right links and the right text

Q4: What is viral marketing

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Answer: 1. Piggybacking your message on someone else’s2. Word-of-mouth by e-mail

Q5: How many search engines make up over 90% of search traffic

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Answer: 4

Q6: What is a blog

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Answer: An online journal, diary or series of postings

Q7: Which of the following is not something that Kotler and Fox (1985) cite as a key benefit that marketing can offer higher education

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Answer: Improvement in research ranking of institution

Q8: What is the U.S. equivalent of the U.K.’s further education colleges

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Answer: Community colleges

Q9: The Local Management of Schools initiative places financial control of a school with

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Answer: Headteachers and governors

Q10: Which of the following information sources are not employed by Ofsted school inspectors

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Answer: All of the above

Q11: CRM can assist an educational institution in

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Answer: Cross-selling individuals additional educational opportunities

Q12: In the context of higher education what is meant by the term massification

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Answer: The rapid growth in the student population

Q13: Which of the following is NOT a barrier to achieving a market orientation in higher education

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Answer: The low marketing budgets of H.E. institutions

Q14: In the context of student buying behaviour – what is meant by the term pre-search behaviour

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Answer: Passively registering the existence of information about their educational choices

Q15: What did Bussell identify as the key source of information utilized by parents in selecting a primary school

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Answer: Local grapevine

Q16: Which of the following did Petch not identify as a criteria used by parents to compare between the schooling options available

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Answer: Quality of school meals

Q17: According to Parasuraman et al., which of the following is not a cause of perceptions of poor quality service

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Answer: Gap between management perception and advertised service

Q18: The healthcare of the American poor is looked after through which of the following

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Answer: Medicaid

Q19: The difficulty of marketing due to the key decision maker not being the patient is referred to as the challenge of___

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Answer: Derived demand

Q20: SPACE stands for

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Answer: Strategic Position and Action Evaluation

Q21: Which of the following is NOT a SPACE dimension

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Answer: Technological ability

Q22: An example of a strategy of related diversification would be

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Answer: A hospital deciding to provide additional care services for the local community it serves

Q23: Harvesting involves

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Answer: Managing decline by generating as much surplus cash as possible

Q24: Prospectors are organisations that

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Answer: Are always ready to take advantage of new opportunities

Q25: Reactors are organizations that

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Answer: Will only change direction when forced to do so

Q26: Which of the following is not suggested by Porter as a broad approach to positioning/competitive advantage

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Answer: Technology leadership

Q27: Social entrepreneurship can be defined as which of the following

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Answer: All of the above

Q28: According to the Cemex case study, why did the company focus their efforts around low-income homebuilders

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Answer: In times of economic crises, sales to low-income reduced less than sales to middle and upper-income individuals

Q29: Which of the following traditional marketing elements do not apply to social entrepreneurship efforts

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Answer: None of these—Marketing mixPublic relationSale Promotion

Q30: According to the text, which of the following is a drawback to the social enterprise model

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Answer: Decreasing the social capital of the society

Q31: According to Budinich (2005), which of the following might be involved in encouraging companies to target poorer consumers

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Answer: Designing products and services that tap the wealth of the poor

Q32: Why does Pearson (2002) argue that trade is better than aid at alleviating poverty

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Answer: Aid can promote dependence

Q33: Social entrepreneurs act as change agents by

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Answer: All of the above

Q34: Which of the following has NOT been identified (by research) as a personal characteristic that entrepreneurs need to succeed

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Answer: Tenacity

Q35: Which of the following is NOT one of Sharir and Lerner’s eight characteristics of successful social ventures

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Answer: The capital base at the completion stage

Q36: How do entrepreneurial foundations differ from foundations with a more traditional approach to philanthropy

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Answer: They work with the grantee to achieve desired outcomes

Q37: In the United States, which of the following statements is true

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Answer: Churches account for the highest percentage of volunteering

Q38: Which of the following should be included in volunteer job descriptions

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Answer: Salary

Q39: According to a Gallup poll, which of the following characteristics describe those who had above-average levels of volunteering

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Answer: Those who had volunteered previously

Q40: According to Widmer (1985), which of the following is not an incentive to participate in nonprofit boards

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Answer: Ideological incentives

Q41: Statement “50% of people who volunteer do so because they were asked”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q42: Which of the following is NOT a source of potential volunteers

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Answer: Guidestar

Q43: Which of the following is NOT something an organization should look to include in a volunteer recruitment message

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Answer: The urgent need for volunteers

Q44: In the context of values – which of the following statements is true

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Answer: Females place a greater value on a sense of accomplishment than males

Q45: Which of the following is NOT identified by Wymer and Starnes as a common cause of turnover

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Answer: Excessive supervision

Q46: According to Scanlan (2002) which of the following is NOT a characteristic of individuals willing to take on a leadership role

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Answer: A willingness to take on vague tasks

Q47: Which of the following is not necessary for an exchange to be considered a marketing exchange

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Answer: The exchange must be involuntary

Q48: Which of the following are typical objections to public sector marketing

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Answer: All of the above

Q49: CCT stands for

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Answer: Compulsory Competitive Tendering

Q50: According to Laing (2003), which of the following is not a characteristic of public services

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Answer: Fiscal accountability to the public

Q51: According to West (2004), which of the following is the fourth stage of e-government

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Answer: Interactive democracy

Q52: According to Koster (1991) which of the following should not be regarded as a marketing exchange

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Answer: A convicted criminal sweeping the streets as part of their community sentence

Q53: Statement “Public service are targeted to reduce costs”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q54: NPSM is characterized by

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Answer: Competition

Q55: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of CCT

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Answer: It shifts responsibility for service provision to private providers

Q56: Which of the following is NOT one of the four categories of public sector marketing activity proposed by Buurma (2001)

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Answer: Promoting an area of responsibility

Q57: The study of consumer behaviour is mainly concerned with

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Answer: understanding how individuals or groups acquire, use and dispose of products, services, ideas or experiences.

Q58: Sumptuary laws are

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Answer: laws that attempt to regulate expenditure, with a view to restraining excessive consumption.

Q59: Use value is

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Answer: the value of a good to the consumer in terms of the usefulness it provides.

Q60: Conspicuous consumption is

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Answer: the use of goods to gain social recognition.

Q61: According to Rachel Bowlby (2000), which of the following is true

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Answer: Going shopping can be a leisure activity, as well as a functional activity.

Q62: According to Freud

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Answer: people’s behaviour is often determined by irrational and unconscious motives.

Q63: Consumer activists campaign to ensure that

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Answer: producers and retailers recognise their responsibility to the consumer in producing goods that are safe, fair, and of the value promised.

Q64: According to postmodernist theory

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Answer: consumers explore different and separate identities to match the fragmenting markets and the proliferation of products available to them.

Q65: The positivist approach to studying consumers

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Answer: emphasizes the objectivity of the consumer as a rational decision maker.

Q66: From your understanding of behavioural economics, which of the following sets of words best describe the reflective mode of thinking

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Answer: Controlled, effortful, slow, conscious, deductive

Q67: Norms are

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Answer: The informal rules that govern behaviour

Q68: Experiential consumption helps us to understand

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Answer: The sensory and hedonic aspects of consumption

Q69: A consumer culture theory study, exploring how personal grooming practices have changed over the last 50 years, is most likely to fall into which of the following CCT themes

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Answer: The socio-historic patterning of consumption

Q70: Thinking about adoption of new technology, early adopters tend to be

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Answer: People who genuinely enjoy the process of discovering new technologies and likely to embrace new social technologies before most people do.

Q71: The launch of iPhone 6 is an example of

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Answer: A continuous innovation

Q72: According to Prensky

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Answer: A digital immigrant is an individual who was born before the existence of digital technology and adopted it to some extent later in life.

Q73: Which of the following is an example of priming

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Answer: Asking children what their favourite superhero would eat, to encourage them to eat healthier food.

Q74: Social network sites (SNSs) are important to marketers because

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Answer: All of the above

Q75: Mobile technology affects consumer behaviour in which of the following ways

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Answer: It facilitates the use of location-based services

Q76: Involvement is

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Answer: The perceived relevance of a purchase to the consumer.

Q77: Active learning is when

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Answer: Consumers engage in extensive information search to acquire knowledge before purchasing.

Q78: The inept set is

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Answer: Those brands that the consumer may have come across during their search or from previous experience but would not consider for this decision.

Q79: Ego involvement occurs when

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Answer: Consumers perceive products or brands as relevant to their personal interests.

Q80: Which of the following is not a suitable strategy for increasing involvement with brands so that consumers have positive associations with them

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Answer: Raising the price

Q81: Problem recognition is

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Answer: When the consumer recognises that there is a difference between his/her actual and some ideal state.

Q82: In decision-making, evaluative criteria

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Answer: Are the factors we use to compare alternative offerings.

Q83: Attributions

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Answer: Relate to the process whereby a person explains the causes of a behaviour.

Q84: According to Tauber (1972), which of the following is not a personal motive for shopping

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Answer: Status and authority

Q85: If a dentist appears in an advertisement for toothpaste, this acts as what type of choice heuristic

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Answer: Persuasion heuristic

Q86: Behavioural learning

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Answer: Is concerned with learning as a response to changes in our environment.

Q87: Pairing two conditioned stimuli is the definition of

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Answer: Higher-order conditioning

Q88: A consumer has a positive brand feeling towards Schweppes tonic water, so when she sees Schweppes lemonade packaged in a similar bottle with the distinctive Schweppes logo, she feels positively towards it and buys it. This is an example of

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Answer: Stimulus generalization

Q89: A consumer has a headache, takes two Nurofen tablets, and finds that his headache eases considerably. In learning terms, this is an example of

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Answer: Negative reinforcement

Q90: Which of the following is an example of a fixed interval schedule

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Answer: Net-a-porter.com’s biannual 50% sale

Q91: The information processing approach can be summarised as follows

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Answer: Exposure – Attention – Comprehension – Acceptance/Rejection – Retention

Q92: The memory we have of significant events and experiences in our lives, such as weddings, festivals, and graduation, is a form of

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Answer: Episodic memory

Q93: A day-after recall test, used by market researchers to assess how much consumers can remember of an advertisement watched on the television the previous night, is designed to measure

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Answer: Explicit memory

Q94: Which of the following is an example of observational learning

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Answer: A child watching a parent paying with a credit card at a store checkout

Q95: The first stage in the perception process is

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Answer: Exposure to stimuli

Q96: Perceptual defence is

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Answer: When a consumer inhibits perception of potentially threatening or unpleasant stimuli.

Q97: What does ‘need-for-touch’ mean in marketing terms

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Answer: Actively seeking information through touch.

Q98: The minimum amount of stimulation that can be picked up by our senses is

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Answer: The absolute threshold

Q99: Which of the following is a definition of just noticeable difference (JND)

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Answer: The minimum change in a stimulus to be noticed by the majority of people.

Q100: Adaptation is

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Answer: The extent to which people’s awareness of a stimulus diminishes over a period of time.