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Q1: Which two vital pieces of information can a company obtain from an INITIAL enquiry to a direct marketing campaign

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Answer: Postcode of respondent and source of original advert.

Q2: Bad publicity for a company is more likely to be effectively managed if

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Answer: the company has invested time and effort in developing mutually supportive good relations with the media.

Q3: The potential benefits of Global Integrated Marketing Communications include

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Answer: All of the above

Q4: The development of a creative strategy for an international advertising campaign needs to consider the following issues

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Answer: positioning, appeal, tone, format and music.

Q5: Which of the following are not benefits of exhibitions and trade fairs

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Answer: Monitoring the cost of sales management to ensure marketing budget is maintained.

Q6: Encouraging product trials is the most popular___method used on the Internet

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Answer: sales promotion

Q7: Jimplies that it

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Answer: charges some groups more than others.

Q8: A company entering a new market with low initial prices is most likely to be influenced in the short-term by which type of objectives

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Answer: Market share objectives

Q9: A___strategy offers the flexibility which allows organizations to charge differential prices, according to market conditions, and may offer the best long term pricing solution

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Answer: corridor pricing

Q10: Many organizations new to exporting will use___method which is based on adding up all the costs of production and marketing (direct and indirect costs) and includes shipping and any other charges plus a profit percentage

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Answer: cost plus pricing

Q11: Terpstra and Sarathy (2000) identified three types of risk from exchange rate fluctuations, which are

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Answer: transaction risk, competitive risk and market portfolio risk

Q12: Price escalation is

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Answer: additions to the basic selling price due to all intermediates adding a margin for services.

Q13: Buying forward, trade in options or hedging are all examples of

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Answer: overcoming the problems of currency fluctuations.

Q14: Transfer pricing is due to

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Answer: international marketers transferring goods and services in their organization between different countries.

Q15: Which of the following statements is TRUE? The role of a salesperson___

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Answer: varies between organizations and sectors particularly in terms of the level of complexity involved.

Q16: The length of the sales process

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Answer: varies based on many factors including the complexity of the product and size of the opportunity.

Q17: The nature of personal selling and sales management is undergoing dramatic changes as organizations are increasingly looking to new ideas, sales channels and technologies to

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Answer: All of the above

Q18: It is important for a marketing/sales manager to understand and account for the forces impacting personal selling and sales management. These forces can be categorized into

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Answer: behavioural, technological and managerial.

Q19: The effectiveness of international sales management decisions has a direct impact on the success (and profitability) of an organization seeking to operate in foreign markets. In general, these decisions can be categorized into three areas

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Answer: sales force administration, industrial factors and environmental factors.

Q20: There are generally four major cultural elements affecting sales force recruitment in a foreign market, which are

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Answer: education, ethnic composition, sexual orientation and gender.

Q21: There are no simple guidelines that can be applied universally when it comes to matching salespersons’ characteristics with the job specification. Which of the following best describes a good international sales force

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Answer: Highly adaptable to new situations, sensitive to different cultures, and has the required language skills and ability to work in international teams.

Q22: The salesperson is the key person in establishing relationships with customers. A ‘happy’ salesperson will be motivated to build long term lasting relationships with customers. To achieve this, organizations should adopt a ‘three E’s’ approach

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Answer: empathy with employees, Empowerment and Ethical sales practice.

Q23: Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting successful preparation for international sales negotiations

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Answer: Making judgment using own value system

Q24: Which of the following is an ethical consideration in global negotiations

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Answer: Lee and Carter: Global Marketing Management 3e

Q25: The so-called EPRG framework of management orientations in global marketing refers to

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Answer: ethnocentrism, Polycentrism, Regiocentrism and Geocentrism.

Q26: The___management style sees each host country as unique and sees real differences in these countries to the domestic one

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Answer: polycentric

Q27: Which of the following factors affect the development of a marketing control system?
i. Domestic practices and values
ii. Communication systems
iii. Distance
iv. The product
v. Environmental differences

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Answer: All of the above

Q28: An international marketing control system has four elements, which are

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Answer: performance standards, performance measurement, analysis of deviations and corrective actions.

Q29: A global marketing audit is

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Answer: a technique aimed at evaluating and improving an organization’s global marketing operations.

Q30: Which are the following are examples of traditional marketing control methods?
i. Strategic control
ii. Efficiency control
iii. Financial control
iv. Communication control

View Answer

Answer: i, ii and iii

Q31: Which are the following are examples of non-traditional marketing control methods?
i. Financial ratio
ii. Benchmarking and best practice
iii. Self-assessment
iv. Double loop learning

View Answer

Answer: ii, iii and iv

Q32: Manufacturers today face the dual challenge of trying to fight off the competitive challenge as well as satisfy ever demanding customers. What has been their main strategic response

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Answer: The rationalization of global manufacturing for greater internal operating efficiencies.

Q33: A virtual organizational structure can be defined as

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Answer: a temporary network of company functions which come together to serve a specific purpose and then disappear.

Q34: When screening a strategy for potential implementation problems, which of the following step is NOT included

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Answer: External marketing

Q35: Which of the following is NOT an example of written documents that establish the constitution of the UK

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Answer: The Companies Act 2006.

Q36: Which of the following are features of the constitution:
i) No retrospective laws;
ii) The separation of powers;
iii) Implied repeal;
iv) The rule of law

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Answer: All of the above

Q37: The burden of proof test to establish liability in criminal law is

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Answer: Beyond reasonable doubt.

Q38: Which of the following are sources of the constitution of the United Kingdom:
i) Treaties;
ii) Conventions and customs;
iii) Case law / common law;
iv) Prerogative powers

View Answer

Answer: All of the above

Q39: Supremacy of Parliament provides the power to:
i) Allow individuals to become Members of Parliament even when they have not been subject to a public vote at an election;
ii) Make or repeal any laws;
iii) Make the judiciary subservient to Parliament;
iv) Establish laws that are contrary to the treaties of the European Union

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Answer: ii, iii and iv.

Q40: Which of the following is NOT a form of delegated legislation

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Answer: Public Bills.

Q41: Statement “The Court of Appeal is bound by judgments of the Supreme Court”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q42: Which of the following statements is incorrect

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Answer: There is no difference between the Court of Appeal and the Supreme Court.

Q43: Statement “Tribunals have restricted jurisdiction”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q44: A Directive can be defined as

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Answer: A law that is binding, as to the result to be achieved, upon each Member State to which it is addressed, but shall leave to the national authorities the choice of form and methods.

Q45: A display in a shop window will generally be held to constitute what

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Answer: An invitation to treat.

Q46: Revocation of an offer is effective when:
i) It is posted.
ii) It is communicated to the offeree by the offeror.
iii) It is the intention of the offeror to revoke.
iv) It is communicated to the offeree by a reliable third party

View Answer

Answer: ii and iv.

Q47: Which of the following cases demonstrated that (in the absence of any specific deadline) for acceptance of an offer to be effective, it must be provided within a reasonable time

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Answer: Ramsgate Victoria Hotel v Montefiore (1865-66).

Q48: Which of the following is NOT a recognised possible solution to problems posed by the so-called ‘battle of the forms’, when two contracting business organisations each claim that their terms apply

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Answer: There is no contract at all, because the parties are not in agreement, and there is no matching offer and acceptance.

Q49: Which of the following is NOT necessary for an enforceable contract to exist when supported by past consideration

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Answer: A written contract detailing the expectation of payment is in existence before the commencement of the act.

Q50: How is economic duress evidenced in the agreement to a contract:
i) Evidence of a bad bargain.
ii) Illegitimate pressure.
iii) A false statement that has induced the other party into the contract.
iv) There was no other option for the claimant than to accept the contract

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Answer: ii and iv.

Q51: Jack wanted a fellow director to purchase his shares at a very favourable price. Therefore Jack held a meeting with the director, placed a loaded gun to his head, and told him he would shoot the director if he did not sign a contract for the purchase of Jack’s shares. This is an example of

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Answer: Physical duress, the contract is voidable due to duress.

Q52: Statement “While courts acknowledge conditions and warranties, in practice they largely ignore them and concentrate on the ‘innominate’ or ‘intermediate’ term.”

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Answer: Correct

Q53: Statement “When deciding whether a term is a condition or a warranty the court must consider the entire nature of the contract.”

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Answer: Correct

Q54: Which one of the following statements defines an express contractual term

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Answer: One set out explicitly in words or writing.

Q55: In which Statute is a ‘consumer’ defined for the purposes of the Sale of Goods Act

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Answer: The Unfair Contract Terms Act.

Q56: Which of the following is NOT included in an assessment of damages

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Answer: The sum identified in a penalty clauses.

Q57: In the event that a party who had contracted to sell his/her home to the purchaser subsequently refuses to perform his/her side of the bargain, which of the following remedies would the courts most likely award

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Answer: Specific Performance.

Q58: When will the courts make an order of frustration of contract:
i) When the contract becomes impossible to perform with no fault of either party;
ii) When the contract becomes radically different from that agreed by the parties with no fault of either party;
iii) When the contract becomes too expensive to be profitable;
iv) When the contract cannot be performed in the exact manner specified in the agreement

View Answer

Answer: i and ii.

Q59: In the absence of any specific agreement by the parties, where a contract has been frustrated, but before the frustrating event a valuable benefit (other than a payment of money) has been received by one of the parties, what right does the other party have

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Answer: To share in those benefits.

Q60: A claim for damages due to personal injury must be brought within which of the following time frames, from the date giving rise to the action

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Answer: 3 years.

Q61: When the defence of contributory negligence is raised in a claim of personal injury, and the claimant has suffered damage that would not have occurred if he/she had been wearing their safety belt, the reduction in the award of damages will be

View Answer

Answer: 25%.

Q62: Which of the following will NOT be considered by the courts when assessing whether a defendant’s actions have resulted in a breach of the duty to take reasonable care

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Answer: The remoteness of damage.

Q63: An occupier owes a non-visitor a duty to take reasonable care (with regard to a danger) for their safety where:
i) He/she is aware, or ought reasonably be aware, that the danger exists.
ii) He/she is aware, or has grounds to believe the non-visitor is in the vicinity of the danger and may enter the premises.
iii) The danger must be of a type it is reasonable to expect the occupier to protect against.
iv) The danger led to damage of at least £275

View Answer

Answer: i, ii and iii.

Q64: To establish an employer’s vicarious liability for a tort, which TWO of the following criteria are necessary.
i) Employee status of the original tortfeasor.
ii) The employer must have been directly responsible for the tort.
iii) The employee must have been continuously employed for at least one year.
iv) The tort was committed in the ‘course of employment.’

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Answer: i and iv.

Q65: Which of the following is NOT an example of a business organisation

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Answer: An employee.

Q66: A limited company may be established by three methods. Which is NOT one of these methods

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Answer: By contractual agreement of the members.

Q67: In relation to the ‘veil of incorporation’ that is a feature of a limited company’s separate legal personality, in which of the following circumstances will a court NOT lift the veil to identify the true nature of the relationship:
i) Where the company has been established to commit a fraud.
ii) Where the company has been established to circumvent contractual agreements.
iii) In the interests of justice.
iv) Where two separate legal entities are run as one economic undertaking

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Answer: iii and iv.

Q68: Where a meeting has been properly requested, s. 304 Companies Act 2006 requires the directors of the company to call a meeting within how many days from the date on which he/she became subject to the requirement

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Answer: 21 days.

Q69: A special resolution is required to be moved at a meeting in order to achieve which of the following?
i) To alter the company’s articles.
ii) To re-register the company.
iii) To reduce the company’s share capital.
iv) To alter the company’s name

View Answer

Answer: All of the above

Q70: If an officer or receiver of a company in liquidation has been guilty of fraud in relation to the company, or has breached his/her directors’ duties, or committed an offence of knowingly being a party to fraudulent trading, the court may issue an order disqualifying the director for a maximum term of

View Answer

Answer: 15 years.

Q71: Which of the following are examples of agents:
i) Special agents.
ii) Commercial agents.
iii) Commission agents.
iv) Del credere agents

View Answer

Answer: All of the above

Q72: Which of the following rights apply to an agent:
i) Indemnity from the principal.
ii) Pay (expressly agreed or through implication).
iii) To maintain goods (in certain circumstances).
iv) To take property belonging to the principal where an agreed fee has not been paid

View Answer

Answer: i, ii and iii.

Q73: The Transfer of Undertakings (Protection of Employment) Regulations 2006 consider a ‘relevant transfer’ to include:
i) The transfer of the business between the current owner (the transferor) and the new owner (the transferee).
ii) Contracting-out / out-sourcing (such as where a service previously undertaken by the client is awarded to a new contractor).
iii) Re-tendering (such as where a contract for a service is awarded to a new contractor).
iv) Contracting-in / In-sourcing (such as where a contract with the previous contractor is performed ‘in-house’)

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Answer: All of the above

Q74: To enable a claim for constructive unfair dismissal to succeed, which of the following elements are required:
i) The employee to have followed the statutory grievance procedures.
ii) The employer having breached a fundamental term of the contract and the employee accepting this breach.
iii) The employee having completed a minimum of three years’ continuous service.
iv) The employee having identified to the employer the reason for his/her resignation

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Answer: ii and iv.

Q75: Which of the following is NOT a necessary criterion to qualify for the right to claim unfair dismissal

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Answer: The claimant is under the normal retirement age.

Q76: Which of the following is NOT a potentially fair reason to dismiss as identified in the Employment Rights Act 1996

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Answer: Trade union activities.

Q77: The remedies available for a tribunal to award in successful cases of unfair dismissal include:
i) Compensation.
ii) Reinstatement.
iii) Re-engagement.
iv) Specific performance

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Answer: i, ii and iii.

Q78: Which of the following is NOT a component in establishing the compensation remedy for unfair dismissal

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Answer: The distress award.

Q79: Which of the following are methods available to determine the pay received by a worker when considering conformity with the National Minimum Wage Act 1998:
i) Time Work;
ii) Salaried Work;
iii) Output Work;
iv) Unmeasured Work

View Answer

Answer: All of the above

Q80: An employer is obliged to carry Employers’ Liability Insurance in respect of which category(s) of individual:
i) Employees;
ii) Independent contractors;
iii) Self-employed traders;
iv) Agency workers employed on a casual basis

View Answer

Answer: i only.

Q81: In relation to patents, where an employee creates an invention during the normal course of employment and it relates to his/her duties at work, the intellectual property belongs to which of the following

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Answer: The employer.

Q82: Which of the following is NOT an exception to the rules on Copyright in the Intellectual Property Act 2014

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Answer: Making a copy for a person with a disability which includes a profitable charge for the service.

Q83: For the purposes of copyright law, which of the following is the test of ‘originality’

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Answer: The original expression of an idea.

Q84: The mental test requirement for a secondary infringement of copyright is

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Answer: Knowledge, or that the perpetrator should have known, that the copyright existed and was being infringed.

Q85: According to s. 39(1) of the Patents Act 1977, who owns a patent in the following circumstances

View Answer

Answer: The employer where they were created during the normal course of employment and relating to the employee’s duties at work.

Q86: The constitution of the UK may be found

View Answer

Answer: In statutes; common law; customs and conventions.

Q87: When interpreting the Human Rights Act 1998, the judiciary must interpret it consistently with:
i) The European Convention of Human Rights;
ii) The Court of Justice of European Union;
iii) Judgments of the Crown Court;
iv) Judgments of the European Court of Human Rights

View Answer

Answer: i and iv.

Q88: The three organs of the State that must be kept separate from the undue influence of each other does NOT include

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Answer: The political parties in Parliament.

Q89: The UK’s constitution may be described as being

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Answer: Dualist.

Q90: The case Entick v Carrington established the constitutional principle that

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Answer: The State can only act when it has authority to do so.

Q91: A suspect’s absolute right to silence was removed in which law

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Answer: The Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994.

Q92: When interpreting legislation transposed from the EU or with a Human Rights dimension, which of the following approaches will the judiciary most commonly take

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Answer: The common practice of the courts is to adopt the purposive approach to statutory interpretation.

Q93: Which part of the judgment establishes the precedent that is to be followed by lower courts

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Answer: The Ratio Decidendi.

Q94: The supremacy of Parliament established through the ‘Glorious Revolution’ occurred in which year

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Answer: 1688

Q95: The committee stage of the legislative process refers to which committee

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Answer: A standing committee.

Q96: Judge-made law is referred to as

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Answer: Common law.

Q97: Following the judgment in which of the following cases were the courts allowed to look to sources such as Hansard when interpreting legislation

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Answer: Pepper v Hart.

Q98: Which of the following is the highest form of law in England

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Answer: Legislation.

Q99: When a claim is initiated in the courts, which of the following is NOT one of the available tracks

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Answer: The Slow Track.

Q100: The most senior judge in both the criminal and civil jurisdictions is

View Answer

Answer: The Lord Chief Justice.