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Q1: Persons who take the procedural steps to set up a company and who make business preparations for the company are known as

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Answer: Promoters.

Q2: Joe and Jamel wish to form a new company, which of the following documents must be lodged with the Registrar of Companies?
1. Memorandum of Association.
2. An application for registration.
3. A statement of compliance.
4. The appropriate fee

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Answer: 1,2,3, and 4

Q3: Under the Companies Act 2006 the document that states the subscribers wish to form a company and have agreed to become members of that company is called

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Answer: The Memorandum of Association.

Q4: What is the internet registry for ‘.uk’ domain names

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Answer: Nominet UK.

Q5: Companies set up under the provisions of the Companies Act 2006 have one major constitutional document called

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Answer: The Articles of Association.

Q6: Will a court permit an alteration of a Company’s articles to be enforced if the alteration is to give the company the power to expel shareholders

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Answer: Yes, provided there is a good reason and it is for the benefit of the company as a whole.

Q7: Which one of the following statements relating to debentures is incorrect

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Answer: A company may not purchase its own debentures.

Q8: Which one of the following is not a right of a shareholder

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Answer: To manage company affairs

Q9: Shares issues without any special rights attached to them are known as

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Answer: Ordinary shares

Q10: What are redeemable shares

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Answer: Shares which when issued carry a right by the company to buy them back.

Q11: What is the legal minimum number of directors for a private limited company

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Answer: 1

Q12: What is a shadow director

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Answer: A person whose directions or instructions the directors of a company follow.

Q13: Which Act gives the court power to disqualify someone from being a director if they have been guilty of fraudulent trading or have been participating in wrongful trading

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Answer: Company Directors Disqualification Act 1986

Q14: Statement “Where a director acts outside or beyond the powers given to him by the company, all transactions entered into with third parties acting in good faith are deemed to be free of any limitations under the company’s constitution.”

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Answer: Correct

Q15: The Companies Act 2006 ss171-177 imposes various duties on directors. Which of the following is not imposed by the Act

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Answer: To attend the minimum of two Board meetings annually.

Q16: Statement “An Auditor cannot be removed before the expiry of his term of office.”

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Answer: Incorrect

Q17: Decisions passed by shareholders are known as

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Answer: Resolutions.

Q18: What is meant by voting by poll

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Answer: Where each shareholder or their proxies present at the meeting use as many votes as their shareholding allows them.

Q19: What percentage of shareholders is needed to pass special resolution

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Answer: Not less than 75%.

Q20: What is a derivative claim

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Answer: Where a shareholder, in place of the company, brings a claim against a director of the company for negligence, default or breach of duty or breach of trust.

Q21: How is voluntary liquidation of a company commenced

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Answer: By a special resolution of shareholders.

Q22: Where an individual uses price-sensitive information, which has not been made public, relating to the present or future value of company securities for his own profit it is called

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Answer: Insider dealing.

Q23: Which of following would not gain copyright protection

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Answer: An unrecorded speech

Q24: What is the duration of copyright protection for a novel

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Answer: 70 years from the end of the calendar year in which the author died.

Q25: Which one of the following actions is not a breach of copyright

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Answer: To purchase a CD and copy it to your laptop for your own private use.

Q26: Which of the following is not one of the three essential elements for a patent to be granted for an invention

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Answer: Be a product.

Q27: Statement “A patent must be registered in order to gain protection.”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q28: The law governing registered trade marks can be found in which Act

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Answer: The Trade Marks Act 1994.

Q29: Which one of the following could not be registered as a trade mark

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Answer: The mark represents the natural or technical shape of the goods.

Q30: Statement “A registered design right only applies to 3 dimensional objects.”

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Answer: Incorrect

Q31: Unless a contract provides otherwise, who is the first owner of a design right created on or after 1 October 2014

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Answer: The designer.

Q32: The tort of passing off is governed by which statute

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Answer: There is no statute that governs the law of passing-off.

Q33: What does OB stand for

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Answer: Organizational Behaviour

Q34: Which of these is a core underlying discipline that informs organizational behaviour

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Answer: Sociology

Q35: What is an academic discipline

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Answer: A field of study

Q36: Which academic discipline is sometimes described as the ‘science of the mind’

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Answer: Psychology

Q37: Which academic discipline is described as ‘the study of humanity’

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Answer: Anthropology

Q38: Which of the following is not an example of bureaucratic functioning in organizations

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Answer: Advertising and marketing brochures

Q39: Which of the following best describes the control and management of workers performed on a personal, face-to-face basis

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Answer: Direct control

Q40: Which of the following best describes the reason for bureaucratic rules and procedures in organizations

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Answer: They are designed to ensure that everyone across the organizational hierarchy is acting in the same way.

Q41: Which of the following does not apply to bureaucratic records and paperwork

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Answer: They are always held in filing cabinets.

Q42: Which of the following is most closely associated with Henri Fayol

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Answer: Classical Management School

Q43: Which of the following best describes Max Weber

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Answer: He was a sociologist who observed the negative effects of bureaucracy in society.

Q44: ‘What might be rational in a formal, technical sense may not be rational in terms of the consequences for people.’ Which of the following of Weber’s concepts best sums up this statement

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Answer: Substantive rationality

Q45: What does Max Weber mean by the ‘iron cage’ of bureaucracy

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Answer: That bureaucracy is so commonplace that hardly any aspects of our lives are beyond its control.

Q46: A ‘jobsworth’ is an example of which of the following dysfunctions of bureaucracy

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Answer: Bureaucratic personality

Q47: What is the main argument of a post-bureaucratic perspective

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Answer: That bureaucracy is too inflexible for the fast-moving and dynamic contemporary world.

Q48: Which of the following best describes the change in the nature of work during the Industrial Revolution

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Answer: Work moved from small-scale independent production to large-scale factory labour in return for a wage.

Q49: What is the basic nature of the capitalist working relationship

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Answer: Workers offer their labour in return for a wage paid by a capitalist.

Q50: Which of the following best described Frederick W. Taylor

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Answer: His main concern was with control over the workforce.

Q51: Which of the following is not an aspect of Taylor’s scientific management

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Answer: Using craft skills

Q52: Which of the following best describes the initial reaction to Taylorism

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Answer: Its adoption was piecemeal, and after some initial hostility it gradually became used more widely.

Q53: The Gilbreths applied their time and motion study to a number of jobs. Which of the following was not one of them

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Answer: Microelectronics

Q54: Which of the following best describes Ford’s assembly line

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Answer: It is more controlling than Taylorism because the moving assembly line controls the pace of work.

Q55: Which of the following is a critique of rational work design put forward by Karl Marx

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Answer: Alienation

Q56: Which of the following best describes Braverman’s (1974) deskilling thesis

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Answer: Rational work design makes workers’ skills redundant.

Q57: In which of the following situations would rational work design function best

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Answer: A stable environment where a standard, simple product is produced.

Q58: Which of the following is a means of categorizing different elements of the organization’s environment

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Answer: PEST analysis

Q59: Contingency theory suggests that an organization’s ideal structure should take account of environmental uncertainty, size and which of the following

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Answer: Technology

Q60: Which of the following is not a feature of the trend towards a post-industrial society? (Bell, 1973)

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Answer: An increase in rational organization

Q61: Manufacturing which uses technology to allow greater flexibility, but also to increase efficiency and the minimization of waste, is termed as what

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Answer: Neo-Fordism

Q62: Which of the following best describes Ritzer’s (2011) ‘McDonaldization of society’

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Answer: More and more organizations in society are managed using similar techniques to McDonalds restaurants.

Q63: How does Ritzer (2011) draw upon Weber’s work to describe the McDonaldized society

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Answer: He agrees with Weber that it creates an iron cage and disenchantment.

Q64: No-frills organizations, where only the basic requirements are provided for a cheaper price, are an example of what

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Answer: Value engineering

Q65: Which of the following best describes the way in which people are controlled by the Panopticon

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Answer: Its design means that people can be watched intermittently, but are unsure exactly when they are being watched.

Q66: The use of Panoptic principles to bring about order and control in organizations can also be described as the use of what

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Answer: Surveillance

Q67: Which of the following terms refers to control over people by monitoring electronic records that are held about them

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Answer: Dataveillance

Q68: Who is most associated with the Hawthorne studies

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Answer: Professor Elton Mayo

Q69: What were the original assumptions that the Hawthorne researchers started with

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Answer: That the optimum lighting levels could be discovered to maximise output

Q70: What was the key finding of the Hawthorne studies

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Answer: The power of the social group in influencing individual behaviour, particularly group norms

Q71: What is human relations movement

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Answer: An academic movement who study the social relations between people and the human factors of management.

Q72: Why could it be said that Elton Mayo did not discover the principles that underpinned human relations through the Hawthorne Studies

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Answer: Mayo had already assumed these findings before he published his interpretation of the experiment.

Q73: According to the chapter how do we learn group norms

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Answer: We pick them up through subtle clues from the group.

Q74: What is the Hawthorne effect

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Answer: Where the act of observing someone changes their behaviour.

Q75: Who were the progressive Taylorists

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Answer: Followers of Taylor who wanted to supplement Taylor’s ideas with industrial democracy

Q76: How did Mayo consider the relationship between workers and management

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Answer: Workers and managers should be in harmony with one another.

Q77: What is the ‘social side’ of the organization

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Answer: A view, in contrast to the rational view, which stresses the social relations and informal dynamics that exist within the organization

Q78: Which of these is not a key feature of a team

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Answer: Working in the same department that is called a team

Q79: What is social loafing

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Answer: A process where individuals in teams work less hard than they would individually.

Q80: Which of the following is a particular benefit of teamwork to the organization asa whole, rather than the individual

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Answer: Transfer of skills and technical expertise

Q81: According to Katzenbach and Smith (1993), why is a high performance team hard to achieve

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Answer: It involves higher levels of trust and commitment.

Q82: In the Belbin Team Role a Shaper is

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Answer: Challenging, dynamic, thrives on pressure. Has the drive and courage to overcome obstacles

Q83: In the Belbin Team Role someone who is creative, imaginative, free-thinking. Generates ideas and solves difficult problems is a

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Answer: Plant

Q84: What is it to be de-individualized? ) Adams and Hogg, 2003)

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Answer: Transformed thinking and the feeling to feel psychologically intertwined with the group

Q85: Tuckman’s stages of team formation go in what order

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Answer: Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

Q86: Why, according to Barker (1993) and Sewell (1998), can teamwork increase management control

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Answer: Team members monitor and control each other’s actions.

Q87: Fill in the missing word in this definition of culture: ‘the basic assumptions and___which are shared by members of an organization’

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Answer: Beliefs

Q88: What, according to management gurus Deal and Kennedy, is the main reason that managers should be interested in transforming their culture

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Answer: It increases a firm’s performance.

Q89: Fill in the missing word: Culture is a form of___management

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Answer: Soft

Q90: Why does the focus on organizational culture, according to Peters and Waterman, produce a new form of worker

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Answer: They love their company and have a shared sense of purpose.

Q91: Deal and Kennedy’s module of culture is a kind of

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Answer: Typology

Q92: What is the surface level of Edger Schein’s cultural iceberg

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Answer: Physical artefacts

Q93: Within Schein’s cultural model what are basic underlying assumptions

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Answer: The unconscious, taken-for-granted assumptions of organizational members

Q94: How, according to Schein, can organizational leaders continue to influence the organization even when they retire

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Answer: Myths and stories about them can influence how staff think.

Q95: What is a mission statement

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Answer: A statement of the organization’s purpose and reason for being.

Q96: According to Linda Smircich, seeing the culture as something the organization is means it is

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Answer: A social process

Q97: Which approach to personality sees personality as something which is measurable

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Answer: Nomothetic

Q98: Which of the following statements would be true of a person with, in Jung’s (1923) terms, an extraverted personality

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Answer: They gain energy from social situations

Q99: Which personality measuring instrument uses four scales and is derived from the work of Jung

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Answer: Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

Q100: Which of the following best describes Keirsey’s (1988) temperament sorter

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Answer: It links Myers-Briggs Type Indicator results to appropriate careers.