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Q1: What do the letters EOQ stand for

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Answer: Economic Order Quantity

Q2: The EOQ of an item is calculated using the annual demand together with the___cost and the___cost

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Answer: Ordering and Holding costs

Q3: Goods in transit can be tracked using RFID technology. RFID stands for

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Answer: Radio Frequency Identification

Q4: In a materials processing operation the design capacity is defined as___

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Answer: the theoretical maximum output in a given time.

Q5: In a materials processing operation, the effective capacity of a machine is defined as___

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Answer: the most likely output in a given time.

Q6: Machine utilization can be calculated by dividing___by___

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Answer: Achieved capacity by Design capacity

Q7: Machine efficiency is calculated by dividing___by___

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Answer: Achieved capacity by Effective capacity

Q8: What additional factor does Overall Equipment Effectiveness take into account which makes it more meaningful than efficiency or utilization

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Answer: Quality

Q9: Which of the following is not a factor which makes managing capacity in a customer processing operation (CPO) very challenging

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Answer: Most CPO’s have a constant demand.

Q10: The two main approaches to forecasting are___and___

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Answer: Qualitative and Quantitative

Q11: Adjusting inputs to an operation so that outputs match demand is known as___

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Answer: A chase demand strategy

Q12: Having a ‘happy hour’ in a pub or restaurant is an example of which type of capacity management

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Answer: A demand management strategy

Q13: Revenue management is a technique often used by hotels and airlines to manage demand. It is also known as___

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Answer: Yield management

Q14: The interaction between the customer and the service provider is often referred to as___

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Answer: The service encounter

Q15: Which of these is not one of the four differences between customer processing operations and materials processing operations

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Answer: Homogeneity

Q16: Which of these is not one of the seven characteristics of a service encounter identified by Czepiel et al (1985)

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Answer: Specific role for the employee only

Q17: The organization of customers for processing through a series of service encounters is called a___

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Answer: Queuing system

Q18: Which of the following queuing systems appears the most fair to customers

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Answer: First in First Out (FIFO)

Q19: Which of the following queuing systems appears the least fair to customers

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Answer: Last in First Out (LIFO)

Q20: Joining a queue and then almost immediately leaving the customer thinks it will take too long to disperse is called___

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Answer: Balking

Q21: Joining a queue and then leaving after some time before being served is called___

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Answer: Reneging

Q22: Which of the following is one of the usual responses in the psychology of waiting lines put forward by Maister (1985)

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Answer: Unexplained waits seem longer than explained waits

Q23: Which of these operations are customers often happy to queue for

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Answer: Restaurant

Q24: Which of the following is a definition of quality

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Answer: All of these (and more!)

Q25: A quality criterion which can be measured is called a___

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Answer: Quality variable

Q26: A quality criterion which can be assessed and either accepted or rejected is called a___

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Answer: Quality attribute

Q27: Which of these is a quality variable for a motor car

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Answer: Time to reach a give speed

Q28: Which of these is a quality attribute for a stay in a hotel

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Answer: Comfort of the bed

Q29: In the quality gap model which gap is explained by the gap between the standards set by management for their product or service compared to their understanding of the customers’ needs

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Answer: Specification

Q30: In the quality gap model which gap is explained by the gap between the standard of product or service made and supplied to the customer and that expected by them

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Answer: Delivery

Q31: The 4 costs of quality are external failure costs, internal failure costs, assurance costs and___costs

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Answer: Prevention

Q32: The quality management strategy which is most associated with quality standards such as ISO9000 is___

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Answer: Quality Assurance

Q33: Which of the following is the correct cycle for the implementation of a Six Sigma quality improvement programme

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Answer: Define, Measure, Analyse, Improve, Control

Q34: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a well-designed process

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Answer: Consistency is not easy to maintain at every stage.

Q35: Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-designed process

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Answer: The whole process is robust.

Q36: What is a robust process

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Answer: One that can take small variations.

Q37: According to Value Creation Partners which of the following does not indicate that a process is not working

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Answer: Complexity and exceptions are unlikely to occur.

Q38: The three types of process map are a relationship map, a cross-functional map and a___

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Answer: Process Flowchart map

Q39: In a process flow chart transportation is depicted by___

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Answer: An arrow

Q40: In a process flow chart storage is depicted by___

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Answer: A triangle

Q41: A useful process improvement tool is Pareto Analysis. This is also known as the___

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Answer: 90/10 rule

Q42: A useful process improvement tool to search for the root cause of a problem is the___process

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Answer: 5 Whys

Q43: Technology is widely used in operations. What type of technology interaction is a typical hotel check in

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Answer: No customer interaction with the technology

Q44: Statement “In English law it is never possible to recover damages for pure economic loss”

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Answer: c)Incorrect

Q45: Can a rescuer who suffers a psychiatric illness suffered as a result of helping at the scene of an accident be classed as a primary victim

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Answer: Yes, but only if the rescuer was, or reasonably believed himself to be, in danger of physical injury.

Q46: Statement “The standard of care required by a defendant is an objective test”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q47: Matt, a hypochondriac, attended the hospital complaining of stomach pains. Dr Julie who had seen Matt on numerous other occasions refused to see him. Matt died that night. It was discovered he was suffering from poisoning from which there was no antidote. Is Dr Julie liable in negligence

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Answer: No, because there must be a causal link between the breach of duty by the defendant and the damage suffered by the claimant.

Q48: What is meant by the ‘Eggshell skull’ principle

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Answer: If a victim has a particular susceptibility or weakness and suffers a greater injury than a normal person, the defendant will be liable to the full extent of the claimant’s injuries.

Q49: What does strict liability mean

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Answer: Liability is imposed on a defendant without the claimant having to prove any intention or negligence on the part of the defendant.

Q50: Under the Occupier’s Liability Act 1998 an occupier’s liability for trespassers extends to

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Answer: Liability for death and personal injury.

Q51: Statement “Passengers who get into a car with a drunk driver, who later causes an accident, may have their damages reduced through contributory negligence”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q52: A worker works under a contract for services is true

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Answer: Correct – True

Q53: Statement “In order to bring a complaint for an automatically unfair dismissal an employee has to have been employed for at least twocontinuous years.”

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Answer: Incorrect

Q54: Which organisation has responsibility for all types of discrimination and undertakes formal investigations when it believes that an employer is persistently acting unlawfully in respect of discrimination law

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Answer: Equality and Human Rights Commission.

Q55: Having a policy or practice which is applied equally to everyone, but which it is more difficult for people of a particular protected characteristic to comply with and which cannot be justified, is known as

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Answer: Indirect discrimination.

Q56: What is meant by dual discrimination

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Answer: That a person can bring a claim on the basis that he or she has two or more protected characteristics and that is why he or she has been discriminated against.

Q57: Employers have to provide a safe and healthy place for

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Answer: Employees, Workers and self-employed persons.

Q58: A partner who is entitled to a share of the profits from a partnership is known as

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Answer: An equity partner.

Q59: A Community Interest Company (CIC) can be set up as which of the following

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Answer: A private or public company limited by shares or a private company limited by guarantee.

Q60: An organisation running a business has the following attributes: the assets belong to the organisation, it can create a floating charge over its assets, change in membership does not alter its existence, and members cannot transfer their interests to others. What type of organisation is it

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Answer: A limited liability partnership

Q61: Which of the following statements relating to debentures is incorrect

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Answer: A company may not purchase its own debentures.

Q62: Statement “The statutory minimum age of a director is 18.”

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Answer: Incorrect

Q63: A shareholder who wishes to make a proposal that that a director is dismissed must give the company ‘special notice’ of their proposal prior to the meeting. How many days notice is required for special notice

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Answer: 28

Q64: Where a director acts outside or beyond the powers given to him by the company, all transactions entered into with third parties acting in good faith are deemed to be free of any limitations under the company’s constitution. is true statement

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Answer: Correct – True

Q65: Which of the following meetings are all shareholders invited to?
annual general meeting.
general meeting.
class meeting.
board meeting

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Answer: 1 and 2 only.

Q66: Public companies cannot pass written resolutions is true

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Answer: Correct – True

Q67: Where an individual uses price-sensitive information, which has not been made public, relating to the present or future value of company securities for his own profit is called

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Answer: Insider dealing.

Q68: Where on winding up it is discovered that a company has been trading and at the time the director or directors knew or ought to have known that there was no reasonable prospect of the company avoiding insolvent liquidation it is known as

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Answer: Wrongful trading.

Q69: What is the name used for a person who commences a civil action

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Answer: Claimant

Q70: How many member states are there in the European Union

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Answer: 28

Q71: In England and Wales what is the age of criminal responsibility

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Answer: 10

Q72: What does the doctrine of precedent mean

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Answer: Judges must apply the law set out in relevant decision of previous superior courts and sometimes courts of the same standing.

Q73: In which criminal court does a jury sit in

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Answer: Crown Court

Q74: Statement “Magistrates do not usually have any specific legal qualifications”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q75: In which court may a trial for an indictable offence be heard

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Answer: The Crown Court.

Q76: What type of cases does a county court deal with

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Answer: A range of civil cases.

Q77: When a case has been heard in the High Court an appeal may be made to which court(s)

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Answer: Court of Appeal or Supreme Court.

Q78: Statement “The High Court is divided into three divisions.”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q79: In order to bring an action before a civil court what type of form must a claimant complete

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Answer: A claim form and particulars of claim.

Q80: Which of the following statements in incorrect

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Answer: The parties must have agreed to use the arbitration procedure before a contract is signed.

Q81: Which of the following is not a type of alternative dispute resolution

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Answer: Court proceedings.

Q82: Tribunals underwent a major reform under a 2007 Act of Parliament. What is the Act called

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Answer: Tribunals, Courts and Enforcement Act.

Q83: A statute may be interpreted by judges by using different rules. Which of the following is not a rule of interpretation

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Answer: General Rule.

Q84: Which of the following statements is a definition of the phase ‘ratio decidendi’

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Answer: The legal reason for reaching a decision.

Q85: Statement “A principle of law set down in a case may be overruled by statute”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q86: Which one of the following is not a source of European Union law

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Answer: Statutes.

Q87: What type of document is the European Convention on Human Rights

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Answer: A treaty.

Q88: Which of the following is not a European Union institution

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Answer: European Court of Human Rights.

Q89: Which of the following statements is false

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Answer: The European Parliament proposes and passes all the laws for the European Union.

Q90: In a case before the Supreme court a dispute has arisen about the meaning of an EU treaty section. What action should the Supreme court take

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Answer: Refer the question to the Court of Justice of the European Union for a preliminary ruling.

Q91: Which Article of the European Convention on Human Rights prohibits torture, inhuman or degrading treatment

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Answer: Article 3.

Q92: If the Supreme Court decides that an Act of Parliament is in conflict with the European Convention on Human Rights what does the Human Rights Act 1998 empower the court to do

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Answer: Make a declaration of incompatibility.

Q93: The court stated that the advertisement in Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. was which of the following

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Answer: An offer.

Q94: A contract that is binding on one party but gives the other party the option to set it aside is known as which of the following

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Answer: Voidable contract.

Q95: Dai texts Pip offering to sell his car to her for £2,000. Pip replies offering to buy the car for £1,500. Dai texts back ‘no way’. Pip replies by text stating she will accept the car for £2,000. Which of the following statements is correct

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Answer: Pip’s second statement is an offer to buy the car for £2,000.

Q96: In Pharmaceutical Society of G.B. v Boots Cash Chemist Ltd. It was decided that

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Answer: Goods on display in a self-service store are an invitation to treat.

Q97: When is revocation of an offer effective

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Answer: When it is received by the offeror or his agent.

Q98: The following statements relate to the postal rules, which one is incorrect

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Answer: The postal rules can never be excluded from a contract.

Q99: Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to the withdrawal of an offer

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Answer: An offer may be withdrawn by the offeror or a reliable third party.

Q100: Jake e-mails Ali offering to sell his computer to her for £1,000. Ali replies asking if he will accept a cheque or does he want cash? Ali’s statement will be treated as which of the following

View Answer

Answer: A request for information.
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