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Q1: Which of these criteria is not one likely to be used for screening ideas for NPD

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Answer: Concept testing

Q2: Which of these would require a formal approach to innovation

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Answer: A product where a licence or patent is possible

Q3: Which of these would help to encourage dynamic innovation within an organization

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Answer: Deregulated markets

Q4: A project is a process with which of the following characteristics

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Answer: Low volume, high variety

Q5: What are the main features of a project

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Answer: Unique with fixed cost and time constraints

Q6: In which of the four stages in a project would you determine the milestones or significant events

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Answer: Scoping

Q7: In which of the four stages in a project would you determine the work activities required

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Answer: Planning

Q8: In which of the four stages in a project would you carry out the agreed tasks

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Answer: Implementation

Q9: Activities can be drawn in a hierarchical structure called a___

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Answer: Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Q10: A planning chart which considers time, cost and resource allocation to a project is called a___chart

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Answer: Gantt

Q11: Analysing the potential risks in a project is called___

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Answer: Risk assessment

Q12: The situation whereby a number of events build into a crisis is called the___effect

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Answer: Snowball

Q13: A system to ensure that an organization can return to work after a crisis is called___

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Answer: Business continuity planning

Q14: A strategy is a set of plans designed for___competitive advantage

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Answer: Long-term

Q15: An operations strategy is created directly from the___strategy

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Answer: Business strategy

Q16: Competitive advantage is a term most associated with which author

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Answer: Michael Porter

Q17: Firms try to achieve competitive advantage by competing on___

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Answer: Order winners

Q18: Two different viewpoints on operations strategy are the market-driven view and the___based view

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Answer: Resource

Q19: A system designed for competing effectively in a specific marketplace is called a___

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Answer: Business model

Q20: In the business model outlined by Spring and Mason (2010), Network Architecture consists of markets, relationships, capabilities and___

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Answer: Transactions

Q21: In the business model outlined by Spring and Mason (2010), Market Offering consists of activity, access, value and___

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Answer: Artefact

Q22: In the business model outlined by Spring and Mason (2010), Technology consists of core technology, process, product and___

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Answer: Infrastructure

Q23: The operations strategy which refers to service firms distributing their products in many different forms and places is called___

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Answer: Ubiquitization

Q24: Lean production involves___

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Answer: Elimination of all types of waste

Q25: The Japanese term for waste is___

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Answer: Muda

Q26: Which of these is not one of the wastes associated with lean production

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Answer: Revenue

Q27: Lean production relies on a specific throughput rate of the whole operation. This is known as___

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Answer: Takt time

Q28: Reducing unnecessary motion in operations can significantly improve throughput. Making these improvements is known as___

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Answer: Ergonomics

Q29: Which of these is not one of the 5 principles of lean production

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Answer: Push goods through to completion

Q30: One of the tools of lean production is SMED. What does this stand for

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Answer: Single Minute Exchange of Die

Q31: Lean production primarily delivers cost and___to an operation

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Answer: Quality

Q32: Agile manufacturing primarily delivers cost and___to an operation

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Answer: Speed

Q33: Mass customization uses which of these techniques to deliver its order winners

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Answer: Modularity

Q34: Kaizen means___

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Answer: Continuous improvement

Q35: Continuous improvement is primarily concerned with which of these criteria

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Answer: Quality

Q36: Which of these is not one of the ten guiding principles of continuous improvement proposed by Robert Lowson (2002)

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Answer: Operations orientation

Q37: Before improvements can be made to a process there need to be clear procedures and agreed working practices established. These are normally in a written form, called___

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Answer: Standard Operating Procedures

Q38: The improvement tool whereby a list of the most common faults in the process is analysed and then arranged in order of highest occurrence first is called___

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Answer: Pareto analysis

Q39: The improvement technique where a number of ideas are put forward before deciding on a final idea is called___

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Answer: Brainstorming

Q40: Which of the following is not a reason which may prevent the successful adoption of a continuous improvement programme

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Answer: Incentives scheme linked to the programme

Q41: Comparing a firm’s performance measurement against major competitors is known as___

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Answer: Benchmarking

Q42: A technique devised by Kaplan and Norton (1992) to measure performance across four different operating areas is known as___

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Answer: Balanced Scorecard

Q43: A technique for getting ideas for innovation and improvement from other sources outside of an organization, is called___

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Answer: Open Innovation

Q44: The development of an organization’s operation across all 5 continents is called___

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Answer: Globalization

Q45: Moving some part of a firm’s operations outside its home country is called___

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Answer: Internationalization

Q46: If an organization has operations in several different countries across more than one continent according to Bartlett and Ghosal (1989) it is said to be___

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Answer: Multinational

Q47: Which of the following business processes would be introduced as a global approach to integration within an international organization

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Answer: Quality management

Q48: Which of the following business processes would not be introduced as a multinational approach to integration within an international organization

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Answer: Web based development

Q49: Which management approach is most likely where the home country dominates procedures and practices

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Answer: Ethnocentric

Q50: Which management approach is most likely where local expertise from the host country is used to create procedures and practices for the running of the organization locally

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Answer: Polycentric

Q51: Moving some of an organization’s operations from a high-cost economy to a low-cost economy is called___

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Answer: Offshoring

Q52: Expanding internationally by allowing local firms to manage and run your operations using your brand is known as___

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Answer: Franchising

Q53: Which of the following is not one of the many problems regularly associated with globalization

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Answer: Creation of service economies such as call centres

Q54: Statement “In a criminal trial the prosecution must prove the defendant is guilty beyond reasonable doubt”

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Answer: Correct – True

Q55: An order qualifier is___

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Answer: a characteristic of a product or service that a customer expects as a minimum standard.

Q56: Which of the following is an order qualifier for the BBC? (refer to BBC Case Insight on p. 32)

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Answer: It carries out a public service.

Q57: Which of the following is not one of the five internal performance objectives analysed by Neely (2008)

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Answer: Variability

Q58: One of the criteria discussed within cost as an order winner or order qualifier is ‘value added’. This means___

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Answer: a characteristic of a product or service that a customer is willing to pay more for.

Q59: The ability to change a product or service offering to suit customers’ needs is called___

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Answer: Flexibility

Q60: The ability of an organization to consistently meet its promises to the customer is called___

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Answer: Dependability

Q61: What is an Oligopoly

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Answer: A situation where there are many large sellers who have some control over market mechanisms.

Q62: Designing a set of sales and profit targets for a particular product such as a brand of washing powder by trade collaborations is known as___

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Answer: Category management

Q63: Consumer market segmentation can be divided into four categories, geographic, demographic, behavioural and___

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Answer: Psychographic

Q64: In the craft era there were 3 types of operations process; job shop, batch process and___

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Answer: Simple project

Q65: In the mass production era there were 4 types of operations process; complex project, batch production, assembly line and___

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Answer: Continuous flow process

Q66: According to Lowson (2003) the two viewpoints of operations strategy are the market driven view and the___

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Answer: Resource based view

Q67: In a materials processing operation, which of the following process type is associated with the highest volume and lowest variety

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Answer: Continuous process

Q68: In a materials processing operation, which process is associated with the highest variety

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Answer: Project

Q69: In a customer processing operation, which process type has the lowest volume

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Answer: Professional service

Q70: In a customer processing operation, which process is characterized by predictable job content and lower skilled employees

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Answer: Mass service

Q71: In the product life cycle what is the correct order of the main phases

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Answer: Growth, Maturity, Saturation, Decline

Q72: What is the first step in the Service Firm Life Cycle

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Answer: Entrepreneurship

Q73: Licensing out the manufacture of a product to other firms is known as___

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Answer: Franchising

Q74: Which of the following is not a physical factor that can influence the choice of location for an operation

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Answer: Access to customers

Q75: Which of the following is not a socio-economic factor that can influence the choice of location for an operation

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Answer: Transportation networks

Q76: Locating several mobile phone shops in the same part of a town is an example of___

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Answer: Competitive clustering

Q77: The initial decision whether a manufacturer fabricates in-house or uses an outside supplier is known as___

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Answer: A Make-or-Buy decision

Q78: Outsourcing is___

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Answer: Moving the production of goods or services from in-house to an external supplier.

Q79: Which of these is not a major reason to outsource a product or service

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Answer: To increase control of the process

Q80: Which of these layout types is most associated with a mass process

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Answer: Product layout

Q81: Which of these layout types is most associated with a project process

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Answer: Fixed position layout

Q82: Which of these layout types is most associated with a batch processing operation

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Answer: Cell layout

Q83: The physical environment of a service operation is often referred to as the___

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Answer: Servicescape

Q84: A sequence of business and information links is called a___

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Answer: Supply chain

Q85: Supply chains link operators to suppliers in___

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Answer: Tiers

Q86: Activities which are undertaken before the final operation are termed___activities

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Answer: Upstream

Q87: In the automotive supply chain information flows in which direction

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Answer: Both towards the end user and the supplier

Q88: How do automotive companies mainly sell their new products

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Answer: Through retail distributers

Q89: Selecting suppliers and purchasing items is called___

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Answer: Procurement

Q90: The main benefit to an operation of having multiple sourcing is___

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Answer: Continuity of supply

Q91: Which of the following is an advantage of single sourcing

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Answer: Lower administration cost

Q92: When an organization owns its suppliers it is known as___

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Answer: Upstream vertical integration

Q93: Logistics is the term for which activities

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Answer: All of the above

Q94: Inventory is___

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Answer: Any of the above.

Q95: Products which are completed awaiting despatch to a customer are called___inventory

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Answer: Finished Goods

Q96: Partially processed or finished goods which are sent between factories over large distances is called___inventory

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Answer: Pipeline

Q97: Batch production such as baked goods produces___inventory

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Answer: Cycle

Q98: Semi-finished stock is also known as___inventory

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Answer: Work in Process

Q99: Which of these reasons to keep inventory can lead to improved quality

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Answer: It enables the best material to be sorted prior to production.

Q100: Which of these reasons to keep inventory will improve flexibility

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Answer: It helps to deal with short term demands.
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