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Q1: A decision made at the business level of a firm would be

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Answer: How to compete in a given market

Q2: At corporate level, the scope of an organization relates to

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Answer: The breadth of the portfolio of SBUs

Q3: Substantial changes to the range of offerings or the markets served or both are known as

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Answer: Diversification

Q4: ‘Synergy’ can best be explained by which of the sums below

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Answer: 2+2=5

Q5: The Boston Group Portfolio Matrix is used to assess

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Answer: The balance of the portfolio of businesses

Q6: The parenting fix matrix is used to assess whether

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Answer: The businesses are a good fit with the parent company

Q7: In the parenting fix matrix , a business that the parent understands but doesn’t add any value to is known as

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Answer: A ballast business

Q8: When evaluating a strategic option a firm can test the option against the criteria of suitability, feasibility and acceptability. Suitability in this context means

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Answer: The strategy is consistent with the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats identified in the strategic analysis

Q9: Ansoff’s growth vector matrix is used for

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Answer: Analysing the different strategic directions an organization can pursue

Q10: In Ansoff’s matrix, ‘product development’ involves going in the direction of

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Answer: New products to present markets

Q11: Horizontal integration is where

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Answer: A firm takes over a competitor

Q12: Conglomerate diversification is another name for

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Answer: Unrelated diversification

Q13: Which of the following statements is true when describing the merits of related and unrelated diversification

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Answer: The evidence on diversification strategies is contradictory

Q14: What did Peters and Waterman (1982) mean when they implored businesses to ‘stick to the knitting’

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Answer: Corporations should strip down to core activities

Q15: Theodore Levitt (1983) was a proponent of which view

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Answer: Global convergence

Q16: A cement producer would be advised to follow which of the following international strategies

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Answer: None of these —a) A Global strategyb) A Transnational strategyc) A local strategy

Q17: Porter has designed a framework to help understand why certain countries achieve global competitive advantage in certain industries. It also helps internationalizing firms to make location decisions. The framework is called

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Answer: Porter’s Diamond

Q18: In terms of Porter’s Diamond model, a demand condition as applied to the chocolate industry in Belgium would be

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Answer: Belgian consumers are particularly discerning about chocolate

Q19: If pressures to adapt to local tastes are high and pressures to lower costs are low, a firm should follow which international strategy

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Answer: Multi-domestic

Q20: Which of the following products is arguably most suited to a global strategy

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Answer: Luxury watches

Q21: Douglas and Wind argued that price-based worldwide strategies are not sustainable because

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Answer: Price-based strategies are easily imitated

Q22: With reference to the global convergence/divergence debate, Hofstede (1997) argued that

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Answer: There is no evidence that cultures of different countries are converging

Q23: There are three tools for achieving global competitive advantage. These are national differences, economies of scale and

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Answer: Economies of scope

Q24: A strategy that can exploit local differences and achieve global efficiencies is called

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Answer: Transnational

Q25: The ‘Icarus paradox’ describes a situation where

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Answer: A firm becomes the victim of its own success

Q26: The geographic grouping known as the triad consists of

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Answer: Japan, Europe and USA

Q27: Ghemawat (2005) argues that globalization is more accurately described as

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Answer: Regionalization

Q28: Administrative heritage includes elements such as

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Answer: A firm’s configuration, management style and values

Q29: The three objectives of the transnational organization are efficiency, responsiveness and

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Answer: Learning

Q30: The use of rules, policies and procedures to coordinate employees are appropriate in

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Answer: stable environments

Q31: Alfred Chandler produced classic work on the study of organizational structures. He was of the view that

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Answer: Strategy determines structure

Q32: If a person is unsure what their role within the organization should be, they are experiencing

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Answer: Role ambiguity

Q33: Bartlett and Ghoshal (1990) distinguish between an organization’s anatomy, physiology and psychology. The anatomy is the organization’s

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Answer: Structure

Q34: Which type of organizational structure most closely describes Benetton

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Answer: A networked structure

Q35: Bartlett and Ghoshal argue that process is more important than structure. They identified three processes that form an organization’s

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Answer: Core organizational processes

Q36: The core organizational processes as identified by Bartlett and Ghoshal are entrepreneurial processes, competence-building processes and

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Answer: Renewal processes

Q37: Goold and Quinn suggest there are three main reasons for strategic control systems. These are coordination, motivation and

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Answer: Intervention

Q38: In which type of situation do Goold and Quinn consider strategic control systems to be most valuable

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Answer: Stable environment, objectives easy to measure

Q39: An organization adjusts its pricing in response to falling customer demand. This is an example of which type of learning

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Answer: Single-loop learning

Q40: According to Collins and Poras, what separates visionary organizations from merely good organizations is that

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Answer: They are not prepared to change their core values

Q41: Ouchi identified the Theory Z organization. A Theory Z organization is one which

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Answer: Is based on trust

Q42: Collins studies a number of firms to distinguish ‘great’ firms from ‘good’ firms. Great firms understood three things – ‘what can you be best in the world at’, ‘what drives your economic engine’ and

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Answer: What are you deeply passionate about

Q43: Collins uses the ‘hedgehog concept’ to distinguish great companies from good companies. What does the hedgehog concept mean

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Answer: Being best at a particular thing

Q44: According to Greiner, in his five phases of growth model, what type of crisis follows phase 1 (growth through creativity)

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Answer: Crisis of leadership

Q45: Leadership is defined as

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Answer: Bringing about change

Q46: Collins and Porras found that successful organizations use BHAGs to motivate and inspire. What are BHAGs

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Answer: Big Hairy Audacious Goals

Q47: Which of the following activities is most likely to be a leadership activity

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Answer: Formulating strategy

Q48: Cyert (1990) argues that leaders perform three broad functions. These are

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Answer: Organizational, interpersonal, decision

Q49: Senge identifies three distinct leadership roles. These are

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Answer: Designer, teacher, steward

Q50: Organizations that are good at developing relevant capabilities to respond to a changing context are known as

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Answer: Learning organizations

Q51: Emotional intelligence is manifest in self-awareness, self-regulation, empathy, social skills and

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Answer: Motivation

Q52: Daniel Goleman groups leadership attributes into three areas. These are emotional intelligence, technical skills and

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Answer: Cognitive skills

Q53: What does Goleman say regarding whether emotional intelligence can be learned

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Answer: It can only be learned with effort

Q54: Macoby (2000) identifies a particular type of leader who can be very effective but also potentially destructive. What type of leader is this

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Answer: Narcissistic

Q55: In the research conducted by Groysgerg et al, what type of leadership did they argue to be the most portable between organizations

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Answer: Strategic human capital

Q56: A country that measures high on power distance would have which of the following characteristics

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Answer: People are accepting of unequal distribution of power

Q57: What fifth dimension was added later to Hofstede’s framework of culture

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Answer: Long-term orientation

Q58: Kets de Vries describes Richard Branson and Percy Barnevik as what type of leaders

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Answer: Charismatic

Q59: According to Cadbury (2002), corporate governance is an issue of power and

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Answer: Accountability

Q60: The OECD argues that corporate governance problems arise because

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Answer: Ownership and control is separated

Q61: The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales considers argue that one particular stakeholder group should have primacy over all other groups. Which stakeholder group are they referring to

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Answer: Shareholders

Q62: An organization that is owned by shareholders but managed by agents on their behalf is conventionally known as the modern

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Answer: Corporation

Q63: The modern corporation has four characteristics. These are limited liability, legal personality, centralized management and

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Answer: Transferability

Q64: What makes a corporation distinct from a partnership

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Answer: If the members of a corporation die, the corporation remains in existence providing it has capital

Q65: The term ‘asymmetry of information’ means information in a corporation is

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Answer: Not equally transparent to all stakeholders

Q66: The view that sees profit maximization as the main objective is known as

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Answer: Shareholder theory

Q67: Who is the most famous exponent of shareholder theory

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Answer: Milton Friedman

Q68: The key protagonist of stakeholder theory is

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Answer: R. E Freeman

Q69: Where an organization takes into account the effect its strategic decisions have on society, this is known as

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Answer: Corporate social responsibility

Q70: Which intervention resulted from the Enron scandal

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Answer: The Sarbannes-Oxley Act

Q71: Executive pay in the UK was reviewed by

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Answer: The Greenbury Committee

Q72: Kakabadse and Kakabadse (2001) argue that existing corporate governance models in general are

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Answer: Increasing social inequalities

Q73: In Japan, some corporations operate within the philosophy of ‘kyosei’. The term ‘kyosei’ means

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Answer: Living and working for the common good

Q74: Operations Management is a___process

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Answer: transformation

Q75: Which of these Managers would be least likely to be considered in an operations management role within an organization

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Answer: Financial Risk Manager

Q76: There are 5 basic organizational forms, simple, functional, divisional, conglomerate and___

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Answer: hybrid

Q77: Organizing budget hotels within a chain by geographical location is an example of which type of organizational form

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Answer: Divisional

Q78: Which of these would an operations manager not be responsible for

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Answer: Sales and marketing

Q79: Operations can be diagnosed by volume, variety, variation and___

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Answer: variability

Q80: The size of the product range or number of services offered is called___

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Answer: variety

Q81: The extent to which a product or service may be customized is called___

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Answer: variability

Q82: Services differ from manufactured products in four ways. Intangibility, Inseparability, Perishability and___

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Answer: heterogeneity

Q83: The Servuction model recognizes that operations can process customers through their infrastructure or through their___

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Answer: staff

Q84: What percentage of employees in most organizations work in operations

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Answer: 60 – 70%

Q85: The three major criteria managers should look for when selecting employees are physical, mental and___capability

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Answer: Emotional

Q86: Adam Smith is most associated with which type of job design

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Answer: Division of labour

Q87: Work design and work measurement are part of which type of job design

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Answer: Scientific Management

Q88: A job design which enables employees to determine the method of working is known as___

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Answer: Empowerment

Q89: Ergonomic design is about the way jobs are carried out and under what conditions. Which of the following would not be part of an ergonomic analysis

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Answer: Output from the work station

Q90: A system for providing employees with regular feedback on their performance is known as___

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Answer: Appraisal

Q91: Giving an employee more tasks of the same type is an example of job___

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Answer: Enlargement

Q92: Which of the following is not usually associated with a highly motivated workforce

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Answer: High staff turnover

Q93: Which of the following organizations is an example of one which would most likely exhibit role culture as identified by Deal and Kennedy (1982)

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Answer: Retail banking

Q94: What do the initials NPD stand for

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Answer: New Product Development

Q95: What do the initials NSD stand for

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Answer: New Service Development

Q96: The development of a novel idea is called___

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Answer: Invention

Q97: A change which is created through a series of small improvements is called___innovation

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Answer: Incremental

Q98: A facelift for an existing brand or product is known as which type of innovation

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Answer: Restaging

Q99: The four stages of a new product or new service development process are; formulate ideas, decide on whether to proceed, evaluate the outcome and___

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Answer: Test the design

Q100: Which of these steps are not in the ‘Test the Design’ stage of the NPD or NSD process

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Answer: Concept testing