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Q1: Kurt Lewin’s model of change involves which process(es)

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Answer: All of the above

Q2: Process theory focuses on

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Answer: Flux

Q3: According to Dewey’s pragmatism, what derives from our practical nature

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Answer: All of the above

Q4: Which perspective would most commonly use efficiency and effectiveness to judge competing design solutions

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Answer: Modernism

Q5: Which organization design groups activities according to similarity of work function

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Answer: Functional

Q6: An organizational structure that has functionally structured divisions is known as

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Answer: Multi-dimensional

Q7: Which of the following is not a transfer process identified by Nonaka and Taekeudi (1995)

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Answer: Commodification

Q8: According to March, organizations that exploit the differences diversity bring are at which stage of the learning process

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Answer: Access and legitimacy

Q9: According to Whetton, categorical organizational identities bring which obligation(s) with them

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Answer: All of the above

Q10: Which perspective views organizational identities as based on the flux and change of language

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Answer: Postmodern

Q11: George Herbert Mead’s conceptualization of individual identity is a conversation between

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Answer: ‘I’ and ‘me’

Q12: Organizational aesthetics is based on the fundamental premise that organizations are constructed, experienced and understood through

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Answer: Sensory perception

Q13: It is generally agreed that the role of strategy is to

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Answer: Achieve competitive advantage

Q14: According to Porter (1996) in his article ‘What is strategy?’, strategy is about being

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Answer: Different

Q15: According to Markides (1999), a strategic position represents a company’s answers to three questions – who should the company target, what products/services should be offered, and

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Answer: how the company can do this efficiently.

Q16: Kay (1993) sees the strategy of an organization as matching internal capabilities with

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Answer: Its external relationships

Q17: An organization’s external environment consists of the general or macro environment and

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Answer: The competitive environment

Q18: Strategy has its antecedents in

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Answer: Military conflicts

Q19: The key activities in the strategic management process are

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Answer: Analysis, formulation, implementation

Q20: Strategy analysis is also referred to as

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Answer: Situation analysis

Q21: Strategy formulation takes place at two levels. These are

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Answer: Corporate and business

Q22: The goals of an organization derive from its

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Answer: Purpose

Q23: The statement of an organization’s aspirations can be found in the organization’s

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Answer: Vision statement

Q24: Drucker refers to an organization’s assumptions about its environment and its internal strengths and weaknesses as its

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Answer: Theory of business

Q25: Decisions regarding which industries to compete in are the concern of

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Answer: Corporate level strategy

Q26: Competitive strategy is also known as

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Answer: Business level strategy

Q27: The perspective on strategy formulation that is associated with frameworks such as the SWOT analysis is known as

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Answer: The Design School

Q28: The general environment is also referred to as the

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Answer: Macro-environment

Q29: The general environment can be broken down using a PEST analysis. Conventionally the PEST analysis consists of

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Answer: Political, economic, social, technological

Q30: Threats faced by organizations that have the potential to undermine the way they currently compete are known as

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Answer: Discontinuities

Q31: ‘Weak signals’ can be defined as

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Answer: Barely perceptible changes in the external environment

Q32: The process of following weak signals in the environment is referred to as

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Answer: Monitoring

Q33: Van Der Heijden (1996) identifies three main types of uncertainty. These are risks, structural uncertainties and

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Answer: Unknowables

Q34: ‘Structural uncertainties’ (Van Der Heijden 1996) can be defined as

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Answer: Unique events that could not have been predicted because there was no past experience to learn from

Q35: A method for imagining alternative, possible futures is known as

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Answer: Scenario planning

Q36: A ‘tipping point’ as suggested by Gladwell (2000) is defined as

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Answer: An unexpected and unpredictable event that has a major impact on the organization’s environment

Q37: Two further categories that are often added to the PEST analysis are

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Answer: Legal and environmental

Q38: The umbrella term for the policies and principles that guide an organization’s impact on society is

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Answer: Corporate social responsibility

Q39: Which of the following industries is most likely to suffer due to a rise in interest rates

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Answer: The construction industry

Q40: Which of the following types of data is the most predictable in terms of forecasting into the future

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Answer: Demographics

Q41: In the SWOT analysis, the ‘strengths’ and ‘weaknesses’ part refers to

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Answer: What the organization does internally in relation to competitors

Q42: The competitive environment refers to

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Answer: The structure of the industry in which the firm competes

Q43: Porter’s Five Forces framework is based on the principle of

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Answer: Structure – conduct – performance

Q44: In Porter’s Five Forces, the ‘threat of new entrants’ relates to

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Answer: Barriers to entry

Q45: Brandenburg and Nalebuff added a sixth force to Porter’s Five Forces. It is known as

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Answer: Complementors

Q46: ‘Co-opetition’ as suggested by Brandenburger and Nalebuff (1997) can be defined as

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Answer: Competitive behaviour that combines competition and cooperation

Q47: The ‘positioning’ approach to strategy holds the view that

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Answer: Strategy is about how a firm positions itself in relation to the industry structure

Q48: Barriers to entry into an industry are likely to be high if

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Answer: Requirement for economies of scale is high

Q49: Buyer power is high if

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Answer: Differentiation is low

Q50: Supplier power will be high if

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Answer: There is a threat of forward integration

Q51: A substitute product or service is

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Answer: An alternative way of meeting the same need

Q52: Competitive rivalry will be high if

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Answer: There are a few strong players in the industry

Q53: Porter’s Five Forces assumes a ‘zero-sum game’. A ‘zero-sum game’ means

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Answer: Firm A wins at the expense of Firm B

Q54: The ‘value-net’ as developed by Brandenburger and Nalebuff (1996) can be defined as

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Answer: The relationship between organizations interacting in the same game

Q55: A strategic group can be defined as

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Answer: A group of firms in an industry following the same or a similar strategy

Q56: Strategic group analysis involves mapping organizations using

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Answer: Two variables appropriate to the industry

Q57: The resource-based view is also known as

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Answer: The inside-out approach

Q58: Toyota has excellent materials handling and inventory control. In terms of the value chain, this is the activity of

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Answer: Inbound logistics

Q59: Which of the following approaches is not another way of referring to the approach that is exemplified by the Five Forces model

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Answer: Stretch approach

Q60: Tacit knowledge is knowledge which is

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Answer: Difficult to codify

Q61: The resources of an organization can be defined as

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Answer: Inputs to enable the organization to carry out its activities

Q62: Prahalad and Hamel (1990) refer to ‘the tyranny of the SBU’ when describing the situation where

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Answer: Corporations see their portfolio as a collection of discrete businesses

Q63: The way in which an organization generates value from the knowledge held in the organization is referred to as

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Answer: Knowledge management

Q64: An organization’s reputation is an example of

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Answer: An intangible resource

Q65: Competencies can be defined as

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Answer: Attributes that a firm requires to be able to compete in the market place

Q66: Core competences or distinctive capabilities derive from three areas. These are

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Answer: Architecture, innovation and reputation

Q67: An organization’s architecture comprises of

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Answer: Relational contracts that exist within and outside the organization

Q68: Causal ambiguity refers to the situation where

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Answer: The reason for something isn’t fully understood

Q69: Explicit knowledge is

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Answer: Knowable and easily transferable

Q70: A core competence can be defined as

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Answer: A cluster of attributes that confers competitive advantage

Q71: The ‘principal-agent problem’ refers to

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Answer: The separation of ownership from control in firms

Q72: Friedman (1962) is a famous exponent of the view that

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Answer: Business is business

Q73: Which measure of performance is arguably most useful to shareholders

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Answer: Wealth added index

Q74: Those who advocate the stakeholder view of organizations have the view that

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Answer: An organization has more than one purpose – it also needs to consider the society within which it operates

Q75: Stakeholders can be defined as

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Answer: Individuals or groups that affect and are affected by the organization

Q76: Mendelow (1991) has developed a model for prioritizing stakeholders using the two variables

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Answer: Power and interest

Q77: Which two countries are most likely to give prominence to shareholders in their corporate governance framework

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Answer: UK and USA

Q78: The balanced scorecard approach is a framework for measuring performance based on four factors. These are ‘innovation and learning’, ‘the customer perspective’, ‘the internal perspective’ and

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Answer: The financial perspective

Q79: The Balanced Scorecard approach has been criticized for leaving out certain measures. One of these is

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Answer: Employee satisfaction measures

Q80: Benchmarking is a popular tool to measure performance. Benchmarking involves the continual process of comparing organizational performance against

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Answer: High achieving organizations

Q81: In Japan benchmarking is practiced through what is called

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Answer: Shukko

Q82: How many measures do Kaplan and Norton recommend an organization should include when using the balanced scorecard approach

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Answer: 20-30

Q83: In the balanced scorecard approach quality would come under which perspective

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Answer: The internal perspective

Q84: The overall purpose of the balanced scorecard approach is to

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Answer: Help turn strategy into action

Q85: The problem with using financial measures alone to measure organizational performance is that

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Answer: They need to be compared with competitors to have any real meaning

Q86: A market is defined by

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Answer: Demand conditions and customers

Q87: Porter’s generic strategies are

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Answer: Cost leadership, differentiation, cost focus, focus differentiation

Q88: According to Porter, if an organization does not follow either a cost reduction strategy or a differentiation strategy they are

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Answer: Stuck in the middle

Q89: In Porter’s Generic Strategies model, a focus strategy involves

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Answer: Selling to a narrow customer segment

Q90: A question for business level strategy would be

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Answer: How should the business compete in its market?

Q91: Which of Porter’s generic strategies is Easyjet following

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Answer: Cost leadership

Q92: The experience curve theory suggests that as output doubles, the cost of production falls by

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Answer: 20-30%

Q93: A differentiation strategy offers

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Answer: A broad segment something unique

Q94: H&M, the clothes retailer, is for most of its products following which business level strategy

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Answer: Hybrid

Q95: According to Grant, what is the basis of competitive advantage

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Answer: Capabilities

Q96: The ‘durability’ of resources and capabilities refers to

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Answer: The rate at which they depreciate or become obsolete

Q97: The ‘transparency’ of competitive advantage refers to the extent to which

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Answer: Competitors can identify the reason for the competitive advantage

Q98: Kim and Mauborgne (2005) argue that organizations should try to capture uncontested market space. These uncontested markets are known as

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Answer: Blue oceans

Q99: At which stage of the industry life-cycle is buyer power likely to be at its lowest

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Answer: Introduction

Q100: D’Aveni (1999) describes industries in terms of how turbulent they are. The four different degrees of turbulence are described as equilibrium, fluctuating equilibrium, punctuated equilibrium and

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Answer: Disequilibrium