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Q1: It is claimed that the global financial crisis starting in 2007 was partially caused by poor regulation of the world financial system. A major problem with regulation of financial institutions is

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Answer: The variety of different national regulatory systems.

Q2: Which of the following statements best describes Corporate Social Responsibility

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Answer: A corporation’s obligation to society that goes beyond the requirements of the law and economics to take into account the social and environmental impact of its decisions.

Q3: Which of the following pairs would fit the principal/agent relationship

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Answer: Shareholder/manager

Q4: Which of the following arguments was NOT put forward by Friedman in his criticism of the idea of CSR

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Answer: Corporations have responsibilities.

Q5: ‘Enlightened Shareholder Value’ or ‘enlightened self interest’ refers to which of the following

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Answer: The idea that CSR can help companies increase their profits and therefore dividends and share value.

Q6: The moral case for CSR, i.e. that it is the right thing to do, is justified by which of the following arguments

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Answer: That the corporation is a creation of society and should therefore serve its needs.

Q7: Which of the following form part of the business case for CSR

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Answer: All of the options given.

Q8: Cultural relativism could be described as

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Answer: ‘When in Rome do as the Romans do’

Q9: Which of the following is NOT a true statement in highlighting problems associated with bribery and corruption

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Answer: It is commonly accepted and just another feature of a properly working market economy

Q10: Which of the following reasons for child work is a ‘pull’ factor

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Answer: Cheap labour

Q11: Which of the following is NOT a millennium development goal

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Answer: Universal primary and secondary education.

Q12: The fundamental cause of the ecological problem is

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Answer: The scale and nature of production of goods and services.

Q13: The argument that firms polluting the environment should pay the cost of so doing has been opposed on which of the following grounds

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Answer: Big firms in rich countries with lots of financial resources will be able to afford to pay while firms in poor countries will not.

Q14: Which of the following gases is a major contributor to global warming

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Answer: Methane

Q15: Which of the following is an example of a social cost

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Answer: UK coal-fired power stations creating acid rain that causes deforestation in Norway.

Q16: Which of the following best represents the views of the Right regarding the ecological problem

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Answer: The polluter should pay.

Q17: Why might big multinational energy companies like Exxon be seriously dismayed by governments passing laws to cut significantly carbon dioxide emissions

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Answer: Energy company revenues and profits could be threatened.

Q18: Which of the following is not a policy used to deal with climate change

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Answer: Building power stations using fossil fuels.

Q19: Which of the following predictions were made in the Stern Review if no measures are taken to combat global warming

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Answer: World output could fall by up to a fifth in the next two hundred years.

Q20: It is argued that it is in the interest of business to protect the environment because

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Answer: Maximizing short term profits endangers long term profits and increases risk.

Q21: Triple bottom line accounting aims to show

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Answer: All of the options given.

Q22: What is the primary focus of a theory

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Answer: The phenomenon of interest

Q23: The ‘linguistic turn’ is associated with which perspective

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Answer: Postmodern

Q24: The branch of philosophy that studies assumptions about the nature of reality and existence is

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Answer: Ontology

Q25: Which perspective is associated with the epistemological assumption that meaning is fluid and cannot be fixed and therefore knowledge is indeterminate

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Answer: Postmodern

Q26: According to postmodernism emancipation from linguistically induced exploitation can only be gained through an awareness of the power of

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Answer: Language

Q27: Benchmarks are a key feture of which theoretical perspective

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Answer: Normative

Q28: Who would not be described as a classical management theorist

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Answer: Michel Foucault

Q29: According to Marx, when workers sell their labour in return for a wage this leads to

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Answer: Alienation

Q30: Merit-based selection based on rationally formulated rules and laws is the definition of which of Weber’s authority structures

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Answer: Rational-legal

Q31: Mary Parker Follett proposed the idea that power is a source of

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Answer: Creative energy

Q32: According to social constructionism what creates and maintains social order

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Answer: Symbolism

Q33: The Grand Narrative is seen to be politically

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Answer: Totalitarian

Q34: The interorganizational network consists of

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Answer: other organizations and actors with which the focal organization interacts on a regular basis.

Q35: Perceptions of environmental uncertainty are a function of which two dimensions of the environment of organizations

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Answer: Complexity and change

Q36: Concerns about family values in the US resulted in passage of a family leave bill that affects all organizations with more than 50 employees. Family values would be best located within the___sector of the general environment

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Answer: social

Q37: Merging with suppliers is an example of which resource dependence strategy

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Answer: Vertical integration

Q38: According to environmental contingency theory, conditions with a high rate of change and a low degree of complexity mean

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Answer: There is a constant need for new information.

Q39: Hurricane Katrina would be an example of___sector of the general environment

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Answer: physical

Q40: According to population ecology theory, when competencies and resources fit environmental demands then the organization is

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Answer: Selected and retained

Q41: Resource dependence theory focuses attention on

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Answer: power relationships existing between the organizations in an environment.

Q42: Which theory of organization-environment relationships is credited with bringing social legitimacy concerns to organization theory

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Answer: Institutional theory

Q43: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a mechanism of institutionalization

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Answer: Competition

Q44: The enacted environment presupposes that

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Answer: Environmental conditions cannot be separated from perceptions of those conditions.

Q45: Which dimension of the organizational social structure most clearly relates to the division of labor

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Answer: Departmentation

Q46: Toward the end of the collectivity phase in Greiner’s organizational lifecycle model, an organization is likely to face a crisis because

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Answer: the decision making process is overloaded by too much centralization.

Q47: Which of the following is an example of formalization in organizations

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Answer: All of the above

Q48: Which of the following is not a commonly used dimension of organizational social structure

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Answer: Organization

Q49: What is the key difference between a bureaucracy and a mechanistic organization

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Answer: (De) centralization

Q50: Which of the following is not a characteristic of bureaucracy identified by Weber

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Answer: Selection and promotion based on seniority

Q51: Organizational theorists understand ‘physical structure’ as the spacio-temporal relationships between what

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Answer: Material elements and symbolic meaning

Q52: According to Greiner’s organizational lifecycle model, the red tape crisis ends the___phase and initiates the___phase

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Answer: Formalization, collaboration

Q53: Contingency theory can be understood as having contributed to our understanding of an organization’s survival and success being dependent upon what

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Answer: All of the above

Q54: The social construction of technology is based upon the belief that technologies are a product of which factor

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Answer: All of the above

Q55: Weick’s idea that ‘new technologies’ experience more unexpected interruptions is central to his characterization of them as

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Answer: Stochastic.

Q56: Reciprocal tack interdependence occurs among

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Answer: a basketball team.

Q57: In comparison to products, services are all but which of the following

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Answer: Capital intensive

Q58: Woodward found that successful companies using mass production technology are likely to differ from those that use unit of continuous process technologies in that

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Answer: their structures will be more mechanistic.

Q59: In Woodward’s study, successful continuous processing organizations had similar spans of control as

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Answer: Unit production

Q60: Thompson’s two-by-two matrix of technology typologies has an unidentified quadrant. What characteristics define this quadrant

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Answer: Standardized inputs/outputs and non-standardized transformation processes

Q61: How does Perrow differentiate between technologies

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Answer: Variability and analysability of tasks

Q62: Artefacts within an organization that might characterize it as a ‘cyborganization’ might include

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Answer: All of the above

Q63: Postmodernists see technology as

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Answer: All of the above

Q64: A list of corporate values posted on the wall in the reception area of an organization’s headquarters offices would be classified by a culture researcher as an example of cultural

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Answer: Artifacts

Q65: According to Chatman and Cha (2003) a strong culture can be defined in terms of which two variables

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Answer: High agreement, high intensity

Q66: According to Hofstede, national cultures such as Singapore, Hong Kong, and Sweden, in which people are more accepting of innovative ideas and eccentric or deviant behavior, are which of the following

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Answer: Low in uncertainty avoidance

Q67: Which of the dimensions Hofstede used to define differences between national cultures refers to the degree to which members of a culture are expected to act independently of other members

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Answer: Individualism

Q68: A cultural analysis of a company produces the list shown below. This list exemplifies which of Schein’s levels of culture? Treat employees well and they will treat customers well. People want to have fun at work. Conformity detracts from our performance, diversity enhances it

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Answer: Values

Q69: According to Siehl and Martin, a subculture that supports the larger or dominant culture in an organization is referred to as

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Answer: Enhancing.

Q70: According to Hofstede, there are four dimensions of difference between national cultures. Which of the following is not one of the dimensions Hofstede studied

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Answer: Paradoxicality

Q71: Seeing culture as a management tool is characteristic of which perspective

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Answer: Modernist.

Q72: Which of the following is not a process of cultural dynamics in Hatch’s (1993) model

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Answer: Rationalization

Q73: Postmodern studies of organizational culture invoke

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Answer: Intertextuality

Q74: Thinking in terms of an organizations physical structure, layout refers to

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Answer: The assignment of people to locations, the commitment of regions of space to particular activities, and the orientation of buildings to one another on a single site or campus.

Q75: Which of the following physical barriers have consistently been shown to decrease the amount of interaction among employees at work

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Answer: Walls

Q76: Touchdown Jesus the name given the mosaic on the campus of Notre Dame University in South Bend, Indiana, is an example of

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Answer: An unplanned symbolic interpretation.

Q77: Your company decides to relocate two of its manufacturing plants to Spain. Which of the categories of its physical structure does this change represent

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Answer: Geography

Q78: A generative building distinguishes itself from a terminal building in which respects

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Answer: All of the above

Q79: At a company you are studying, you discover people are assigned workspaces on the basis of their current project assignments, so that all members of a project team are located in adjacent cubicles. When their project is finished and/or they are assigned to work with another team, they are moved next to their new teammates. This practice is most closely related to which aspect of an organization’s physical structure

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Answer: Layout

Q80: Automatic behaviours in response to a given symbol are defined as

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Answer: Symbolic conditioning

Q81: The idea that our bodies influence our ways of knowing and understanding is known as

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Answer: Embodiment theory

Q82: The belief that physical structure can communicate meaning and therefore careful design can control meanings associated with it is associated with which perspective

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Answer: Modern

Q83: Postmodernists view the assembly line’s physical structure as

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Answer: Dominating

Q84: According to both strategic contingencies theory and resource dependence theory, the organization’s environment produces an internal distribution of power due to what factor

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Answer: Opportunities to cope with uncertainty

Q85: According to Hickson which coping strategy or strategies can organizations use to translate uncertainty into power

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Answer: All of the above

Q86: For an organization to effectively exercise clan control it must have

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Answer: Norms and values to which organizational members conform.

Q87: Strategic contingencies theory argues that conditions in the environment produce___in the organization which creates opportunities for the development of___

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Answer: uncertainty, coping mechanisms

Q88: David Charles manages a group of 15 computer programmers. The control system in David’s organization is set up so that the number of lines of code written by each member of the group is recorded. If David relies solely on this figure to evaluate the performance of group members, then he will be using

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Answer: Output control

Q89: Professor David Charles manages a group of 15 management professors. The control systems in David’s university is set up so that promotions and raises are determined by the number of academic papers and books that each professor writes and by the course evaluations each receives from their students. If Mr Charles relies solely on these indicators to evaluate the performance of his faculty, then he will be using

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Answer: A mix of output and behavioral control

Q90: Crozier’s study of a French cigarette factory demonstrated

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Answer: control over a source of uncertainty is a key source of power.

Q91: The feminist perspective contributed which of the following dimensions of power that has previously not been considered by organization theorists

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Answer: Masculine/feminine

Q92: The Walton and Dutton model of inter-unit conflict in organizations presents explanations of conflict in terms of both contextual factors and local conditions. Local conditions include all but which of the following

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Answer: ‘We-they’ rhetoric

Q93: In the Walton and Dutton model, what is the least likely single explanation for any given instance of interpersonal conflict in an organization

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Answer: Individual differences

Q94: Cybernetic control systems help organizations realize their strategies by aligning

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Answer: Behavioral and output measures.

Q95: According to agency theory, organizations achieve high levels of performance by aligning

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Answer: The interests of managers with those of owners (shareholders).

Q96: Bureaucracy assumes what forms of control

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Answer: Rules and a hierarchy of authority

Q97: Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the matrix structure

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Answer: The value of specialization is minimized.

Q98: Networks whose communication occurs mainly via electronic media can be classified as what type of organization

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Answer: Virtual

Q99: Designerly approaches to organizations replaces classical ideas of what

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Answer: Organizational development

Q100: Weber’s routinization of charisma addresses

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Answer: How employees negotiate and change a leader’s ideas to fit their own needs.
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