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Q1: Boxall and Purcell’s People and Performance model uses the formula performance = f(A, M, O). What do the A, M, O stand for

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Answer: Ability, motivation and opportunity

Q2: HPWP stands for

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Answer: High Performance Work Practices

Q3: The concept of Management by Objectives (MBO) was first introduced by

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Answer: Drucker in 1955

Q4: Performance appraisals are designed to motivate workers by providing them with feedback, recognition, and what

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Answer: Praise

Q5: What lies behind the growing popularity of the VAB approach

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Answer: The focus on how performance is achieved

Q6: What is the main reason why managers have become so interested in the absence rates of their employees

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Answer: Reducing labour costs

Q7: What factor does the TUC (2005) claim is a particular source of sickness absence in the public sector

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Answer: Stressful and dangerous jobs

Q8: The CIPD’s 2010 survey demonstrates that absences from work of four weeks or longer make up what proportion of the days not worked due to sickness absence

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Answer: 02-May

Q9: In which decade was joint regulation greatly diminished

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Answer: 1980s

Q10: What percentage of employees were covered by collective bargaining by 2004

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Answer: 0%

Q11: The management of employment relations has been increasingly influenced by what perspective

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Answer: Unitary perspective

Q12: A large part of the effectiveness of the high-commitment approach depends on what

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Answer: How effectively line managers put it into practice in particular workplaces.

Q13: The 2004 ICE Regulations apply to organizations with how many employees

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Answer: Fifty or more

Q14: In what year was a statutory union recognition introduced

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Answer: 2000

Q15: What is the main problem with the statutory recognition deals signed since 2000 under the Employment Relations Act 1999

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Answer: New agreements have tended to come in sectors of the economy where unions already have a strong presence.

Q16: Negotiations are an important aspect of the collective-bargaining process, what do they ensure

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Answer: That conflict is contained within manageable boundaries.

Q17: In which year was the lowest number of strikes recorded

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Answer: 2010

Q18: As revealed by the Office for National Statistics, how many working days were lost in the UK as a result of the strike activity that took place in 2010

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Answer: 365

Q19: Grievance procedures are designed to resolve the grievances of whom

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Answer: Employee

Q20: According to Edwards (2005) prior to which decade did few organizations have written procedures for dealing with grievances and disciplinary issues

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Answer: 1960s

Q21: Who has encouraged managers to use their own internal formal grievance and disciplinary procedures

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Answer: Policy-makers

Q22: In the UK, a further key feature of both grievance and disciplinary procedures concerns the right of the worker to be accompanied by whom, at a hearing

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Answer: Companion

Q23: According to a CIPD survey managers deal with an average of how many disciplinary cases each year

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Answer: 16.5

Q24: What percentage of employees in the UK reported having experienced some form of bullying or harassment during the preceding two years (CIPD, 2006h)

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Answer: 0%

Q25: What are generally the most common reasons for employee grievances? Tick all that apply

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Answer: Allegations of bullying and harassment

Q26: What are ‘compromise agreements’

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Answer: Agreements between an employee, generally upon leaving their job, and their employer where they agree not to pursue a claim for legal redress in return for financial compensation.

Q27: In 2010-11, how many users did the telephone helpline service operated by ACAS have

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Answer: 950000

Q28: When was the Tribunal System first introduced in the UK

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Answer: 1960s

Q29: A common way of determining a fair reward might be one based on

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Answer: Merit

Q30: Which German philosopher was a great proponent of deontological ethics

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Answer: Kant

Q31: The goal of producing ‘the greatest good for the greatest number’ is an idea from what school of ethics

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Answer: Utilitarianism

Q32: What is a significant problem with both ‘act’ and ‘rule’ utilitarianism

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Answer: Injustice

Q33: According to Gilmore and Williams, what type of organization does much of the literature focus on

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Answer: Businesses

Q34: According to Gilmore and Williams the employment-related legislation that has been enacted over the last two centuries has followed what trend

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Answer: To balance the unequal power relationship between employers and workers.

Q35: What is the device that John Rawls proposed in his book ‘A Theory of Justice’ (1973)

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Answer: Veil of ignorance

Q36: Positive discrimination is unlawful in which country

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Answer: UK

Q37: Why does the shareholder value perspective argue that it makes good sense from a business point of view not to discriminate between individuals

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Answer: Because an organization will be outperformed without diverse talent.

Q38: Why might equal opportunity be hard to export to some countries

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Answer: Cultural differences

Q39: The Cadburys case found in the text, illustrates the increasing influence of what trend

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Answer: Internationally mobile firms

Q40: The institutional approach is not rooted in which academic discipline

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Answer: Psychology

Q41: What was the estimated number of MNCs by UNCTAD (2010)

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Answer: 82000

Q42: What per cent of staff returning back from an international assignment leave the organization within twelve months of coming back

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Answer: 0%

Q43: How does the selection of an international assignee usually take place

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Answer: Informal discussion based on chance conversations with internal staff.

Q44: According to PricewaterhouseCoppers (2005) the proportion of females undertaking international assignments is under what per cent

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Answer: 0%

Q45: Which multinational bank used business sponsors to monitor international assignees

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Answer: HSBC

Q46: What is the main problem with the life-cycle approach to strategic IHRM

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Answer: The assumption that firms progress through a defined stages in a specific order.

Q47: What is the major problem with the theorizing of strategic IHRM

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Answer: It tends to offer a highly idealized perspective on strategy formulation.

Q48: How can HRM help to build successful cross-border alliances

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Answer: By ensuring that international joint ventures are staffed by high-quality managers.

Q49: To find out what an organization’s strategy is, you should

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Answer: Look at what the organization actually does

Q50: Which of the following statements is not true when describing a successful strategy

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Answer: It guarantees long term survival

Q51: In the context of strategic management resources can be defined as

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Answer: Something that an organization owns, controls or has access to on a semi-permanent basis

Q52: In the context of strategic management, stakeholders can be defined as

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Answer: An individual or group with an interest in the organization’s activities and who seeks to influence them

Q53: In the case where an organization acquires its supplier, this is an example of

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Answer: Backwards vertical integration

Q54: When a firm seeks the benefits of global integration and local adaptation, it is best described as which type of strategy

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Answer: Transnational

Q55: Knowledge which is difficult to define and codify is known as

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Answer: Tacit

Q56: Competitive advantage based on the creation of opportunities using internal resources is characterized by which approach/view

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Answer: The resource-based view

Q57: ‘Reputation’ in the context of an organization’s resources can provide competitive advantage because

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Answer: It is difficult to copy

Q58: A strategic manager that seeks to reach acceptable profit targets as opposed to making as much profit as possible is making decisions of which type

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Answer: Satisficing

Q59: ‘Logical incrementalism’ can be described as

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Answer: Emergent

Q60: ‘Influence’ is defined as the ability to___someone to something they would not otherwise have done

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Answer: Persuade

Q61: A strategic decision can be distinguished from other types of decisions by three factors, these are magnitude, time-scale and

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Answer: Commitment

Q62: An organization in which strategy development is characterized by internal political negotiation and self-interest is operating in which strategy-making mode

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Answer: The muddling through mode

Q63: McDonalds is deciding whether to expand into manufacturing kitchen equipment in China. At what level is this decision likely to be made

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Answer: Corporate

Q64: The authors believe there are three tests that can be applied to judge whether a strategy is ‘good’. These are

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Answer: Fit, distinctiveness, sustainability

Q65: Diversification into many unrelated areas is an example of

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Answer: Risk management

Q66: According to Porter, dealing with the paradox of premature commitment versus not enough commitment involves some kind of

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Answer: Trade-off

Q67: Corporate governance is concerned with

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Answer: Executive remuneration, disclosure of information, auditing and accounting procedures, and organizations’ management structures

Q68: The principal-agent problem is concerned with

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Answer: Appropriation of shareholders’ investment by a firm’s managers

Q69: In terms of the PESTLE analysis, the liberalizing of international trade and tariff regimes could go in which section or sections

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Answer: Political and economic and legal

Q70: An ‘industry recipe’ can be defined as

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Answer: An accepted pattern of operating and competing

Q71: Typically, profits are highest in which stage of the industry life-cycle

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Answer: Maturity

Q72: Which of the following industries is least likely to follow the conventional life-cycle model

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Answer: Hairdressing

Q73: Brandenburger and Nalebuff added a sixth force to Porter’s Five Forces. It is known as

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Answer: The power of complementors

Q74: The Six Forces framework is based on the principle of

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Answer: Structure – conduct – performance

Q75: In the Six Forces, the ‘threat of new entrants’ relates to

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Answer: Barriers to entry

Q76: A situation in which the joint moves of two firms can determine how much money each firm can make or lose can be explained using the story of

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Answer: The Prisoner’s Dilemma

Q77: In the context of environmental analysis, ‘munificence’ means

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Answer: The extent to which resources are freely available to support firms in an industry and enable them to grow

Q78: A ‘market driven’ firm will typically

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Answer: Define the target market and produce products that will satisfy those customers’ needs

Q79: Segmentation is a way of

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Answer: Subdividing markets

Q80: A B2C market is

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Answer: Business to consumer

Q81: Segmentation is a compromise between two ideals: mass marketing and

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Answer: Customization

Q82: According to Porter, if an organization does not follow either a cost leadership strategy or a differentiation strategy they are

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Answer: Stuck in the middle

Q83: According to Bowman’s generic strategies model a high price, low-perceived value strategy is only feasible in

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Answer: A monopoly

Q84: Treacy and Wiersema identify 3 ways a firm may get competitive advantage. These are

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Answer: Operational excellence, customer intimacy, product leadership

Q85: H&M, the clothes retailer is for most of its products following which generic strategy

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Answer: Hybrid

Q86: At corporate level, diversification comes about when a firm is involved in two or more

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Answer: Industries

Q87: On average, the highest levels of profitability are shown by

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Answer: Firms with a moderately diverse range of related products and businesses

Q88: Economies of scale are derived from

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Answer: Achieving cheaper unit costs through making larger quantities

Q89: Which of the following outcomes is NOT an advantage of a completely vertically integrated business

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Answer: Lowering of risk is achieved

Q90: Which of the following might be sources of synergy between two business units

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Answer: They have similar customers and use the same distribution channels

Q91: Which of the following might NOT be an advantage of increasing the number of countries in which a clothing firm does business

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Answer: Increased efficiency

Q92: Which of the following are NOT likely to be sources of relatedness between businesses

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Answer: Similarities in size

Q93: Synergies allow businesses to add value to one another whereas the extent to which the corporate centre can add value to each of its businesses is called

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Answer: Relatedness

Q94: Learning from trying out new and different things is termed

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Answer: Exploration

Q95: The value chain is subdivided into two main headings. These are primary activities and

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Answer: Support activities

Q96: In the value chain, primary activities are

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Answer: Directly involved in the production, marketing and delivery of the product or service

Q97: The ‘operations’ in a passenger airline service would be

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Answer: Getting passengers and baggage from A to B by means of flying in an aircraft

Q98: One of the strategic decisions relating to the value chain concerns vertical integration. This would involve

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Answer: Deciding whether the activity should be performed within the organization or by a different firm

Q99: Firm A has decided to use an outside travel firm for making travel arrangements but it is based on the premises of Firm A. This is an example of

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Answer: Insourcing

Q100: A network of firms providing different parts of a value-chain in the production of a product or service is known as

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Answer: Co-specialization