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Q1: Which of the following is a key HR role as defined by Ulrich et al (2009)

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Answer: Business ally

Q2: The term ’emotional labour’ is associated with which author

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Answer: Arlie Hochschild

Q3: What does the term ‘financialization’ refer to

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Answer: A process whereby financial markets and institutions gain greater influence over economic policy, economic outcomes and the elevation of the financial sector over others.

Q4: Why do some commentators claim that it is unlikely that the UK economy will become a knowledge economy

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Answer: Historically low levels of company investment into research and development.

Q5: What measures are typically involved in the rationalizing of businesses

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Answer: Downsizing and Delayering

Q6: What kinds of practices outlined below are typically associated with non-standard working and flexibility

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Answer: The reduction in distinctions between standard and unsocial hours or standard and extra hours

Q7: What is the main purpose of a business strategy

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Answer: To secure and sustain competitive advantage within a given market for goods and services.

Q8: Which of these models is not a rational planning approach

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Answer: Processual approach

Q9: What type of rationality is evident in the processual approach

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Answer: Bounded

Q10: Which of the following is a ‘best fit’ approach

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Answer: Competitive-advantage models

Q11: Which approach that seeks to link strategy, business performance and HRM policies and practices, assumes that there are a number of HRM practices that are suitable for all organizations

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Answer: Best practice

Q12: Which personnel association uses the idea of bundles of integrated HRM practices

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Answer: Chartered Institute of Personnel and Development

Q13: Which country is associated with the universal best practice approach

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Answer: US

Q14: Which approach towards HRM strategy does the Saatchi and Saatchi example illustrate

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Answer: Resource based approach

Q15: Focusing on core competencies means companies have the possibility of generating

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Answer: Human capital advantage

Q16: What is the primary limitation of the resource-based view

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Answer: It overlooks the significance of the wider environment.

Q17: When employing immigrants, managers must be aware of

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Answer: Relevant legislation

Q18: The STEEPLE framework is flawed because

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Answer: it can result in managers concentrating on the detail and missing the overview.

Q19: A derived demand is one whereby

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Answer: The nature of demand changes depending on the demand for the organization’s output and the method used to produce the output.

Q20: The basis of liberal democracy is

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Answer: Rights and responsibilities

Q21: A representative democracy is characterized by

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Answer: Adults electing representatives to act on their behalf at the different levels of the legislature.

Q22: Community law within the EU is an independent legal order

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Answer: which takes precedence over that of member states.

Q23: Gross National Product is

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Answer: GDP plus net property income earned abroad.

Q24: UK governments have favoured immigration because

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Answer: It meets a demand.

Q25: Are Gilmore and Williams arguing that the role of technology in industrial development is

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Answer: one amongst many other factors.

Q26: Footloose companies are those that

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Answer: Seek to locate in countries that offer markets, reduced resource costs and lower rates of corporation taxes.

Q27: Which organization is used as an example to illustrate a number of issues related to organizational context throughout the chapter

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Answer: Bass Taverns

Q28: According to Child (2005), ‘the vertical aspect of the division of labour provides…?’

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Answer: for a specialization of discretionary decision-making responsibilities through specifying levels in a hierarchy.

Q29: Boundary crossing is an activity that

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Answer: is focused upon achieving internal organizational integration between various organizational roles and units in order to generate creativity and synergy.

Q30: Procedures provide for an important element of consistency in managerial

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Answer: Decision-making

Q31: Why has the bureaucratic form of organization been fundamentally questioned

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Answer: Organizations are experiencing acute pressure to change and pursue innovation as a means of securing business growth.

Q32: Processual change is best described as

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Answer: A complex ongoing dynamic in which the politics, substance and context of change all interlock and overlap.

Q33: Who famously adopted Taylor’s Scientific Management approach

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Answer: Henry Ford

Q34: The most pertinent criticism of the empowerment concept concerns

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Answer: the limited evidence for any shift towards a substantially more empowered workforce.

Q35: What is the most effective and insidious use of power, according to Lukes (1974)

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Answer: To prevent any form of conflict arising in the first place.

Q36: As Morgan (1997:167) observes, ‘conflict arises whenever interests collide’. There are three broad perspectives we can draw upon to understand conflict in organizations. Which of these is not one of the three perspectives identified

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Answer: Practitioner

Q37: The chapter argues that one of the following attributes of potential employees is of heightened interest to employers when recruiting. Which one is it

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Answer: The candidate’s ability to prepare for and cope with an uncertain future

Q38: Selection is concerned with

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Answer: Applying appropriate techniques and methods to select a candidate.

Q39: Which activities are not associated with workforce planning

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Answer: Time keeping

Q40: Why is job analysis so infused with organizational politics? Is it

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Answer: Because it is a process which could lead to contraction of employees in a department and therefore diminishing its power base.

Q41: What do rational processes to recruitment and selection typically ignore

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Answer: The use of power and micropolitics by managers

Q42: Which is the most popular method of recruiting applicants to jobs

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Answer: Corporate website

Q43: Which selection method remains the most used by organizations

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Answer: Interviews

Q44: Which items below are forms of perceptual errors made during the selection process

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Answer: Like-me judgements

Q45: Which of the below is a form of interview used in candidate selection

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Answer: The competency based interview

Q46: The interview is used as a method for determining

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Answer: The degree of fit between the applicant and the demands of the job.

Q47: According to the Leitch Review of Skills (2006), the ability of firms to succeed in the face of growing international competition depends increasingly on

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Answer: Skilled labour

Q48: What is the main reason employers give why employees are not fully proficient

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Answer: Lack of experience

Q49: According to Gold (2007) where does the demand for skills tend to originate

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Answer: Strategic-level decision-makers

Q50: What best describes the Conservative governments’ approach to learning in the 1980s

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Answer: Voluntarism

Q51: Which of the stages below are part of the Systematic Training Cycle

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Answer: Design training

Q52: What is the main disadvantage of off-the-job learning

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Answer: It isn’t always directly related to real organizational issues and needs

Q53: During which decades did the STC emerge

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Answer: 1950-1960s

Q54: A cultural view of learning considers the values and norms of communities through

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Answer: Talk, practices and stories

Q55: What is a ‘communities of practice’ approach to organizational learning

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Answer: An approach that focuses on the values, beliefs and norms of a social group.

Q56: Chase’s study (1997) identified what issue as being the biggest obstacle to creating a knowledge-creating company

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Answer: Organizational culture

Q57: The employee perspective on reward involves ensuring that the package of rewards is

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Answer: Attractive

Q58: ‘New pay’ is overtly

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Answer: Managerialistic

Q59: A pluralist approach to pay determination occurs in what fraction of organizations

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Answer: 02-May

Q60: Market related pay is based on what type of economics

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Answer: Classic economic theory

Q61: What type of approach has Gilmore and Williams taken towards pay and reward

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Answer: Contingency

Q62: What is the average percentage of employee financial benefits of the total pay cost organizations spend

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Answer: 10-20%

Q63: Which French-owned telecommunications manufacturer is used as an example by Gilmore and Williams of an organization that introduced flexible benefits for its 600 employees

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Answer: Alcatel Telecom

Q64: Final salary pension schemes =

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Answer: The number of years of employee service applied to final salary on retirement to produce a pension entitlement.

Q65: How much, on average, do women earn less, per hour, than men

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Answer: 0%

Q66: The greater individualization of pay can be a problem in certain situations

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Answer: When the company’s share price dips.

Q67: What is the name of the body responsible for upholding and enforcing workplace health and safety in the UK

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Answer: HSE

Q68: How many days were not worked in 2010-11 as a result of work-related injury or ill-health according to the HSE

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Answer: 26.4 million

Q69: What disorder/problem do office workers commonly suffer from

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Answer: Musculoskeletal disorders

Q70: The CIPD’s (2011) Learning and Talent Management Survey found that talent management schemes were more likely to be found in which companies

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Answer: Private sector firms employing 5,000 or more staff

Q71: How much money is work-related stress estimated to cost the UK economy

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Answer: 3.7 billion pounds

Q72: What Act primarily makes up the statutory framework for health and safety at work in the UK

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Answer: Health and Safety at Work Act (HASAWA)

Q73: The HSE emphasizes which of the following activities

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Answer: Education, advice and information

Q74: What is the most common form of organizational intervention designed to improve employee well-being

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Answer: Secondary and tertiary

Q75: What are the main aims of Employee Assistance Programmes

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Answer: To address team and individual performance and well-being in the workplace.

Q76: Which form of flexibility is concerned with where organizations deploy their human resources

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Answer: 800 million Locational flexibility

Q77: In what situation might redundancy not be considered as unfair dismissal

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Answer: When you can demonstrate changing business circumstances mean fewer employees are required.

Q78: Organizational-wide restructuring processes frequently cause redundancies via offshoring. This refers to:-

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Answer: Transfer of organizational functions to other locations.

Q79: What does attrition in the context of redundancy mean

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Answer: Reduction in staff numbers without making job cuts

Q80: The main problem with using early retirement and natural wastage as alternatives to redundancy is

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Answer: It can be a very slow means of downsizing an organization.

Q81: Factors which are important when encouraging people to choose voluntary redundancy include:-

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Answer: A recognition that redevelopment is unlikely.

Q82: Under what circumstances do statutory obligations on employers not apply

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Answer: When there are less than 20 people in the organization.

Q83: The traditional approach favoured by trade unions for selecting employees for redundancy was

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Answer: Last in first out (lIFO)

Q84: Which of the following is not a type of in-house support for dismissed employees

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Answer: Skills training by consultants.

Q85: What is a major problem with outplacement services

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Answer: Their tendency to be targeted mainly at managerial staff.

Q86: Following the contemporary trend, what is the focus of redundancy exercises

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Answer: To focus on ‘surviving staff’.

Q87: The diversity approach originated in the early 1990s in response to arguments from

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Answer: American writers concerned that equal opportunities did not embrace all disadvantaged groups.

Q88: The social justice argument is based upon the belief that

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Answer: Everyone should have the right to equal access to employment.

Q89: In which decade where anti-discrimination laws introduced in the UK

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Answer: 1970s

Q90: What is positive action

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Answer: Arrangements which enable those who come from disadvantaged or excluded groups to compete on more equal grounds in employment.

Q91: The Equality Act 2010 requires that

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Answer: Organizations should ensure that their employees are protected from discrimination and harassment by third parties.

Q92: What is the unemployment rate for ethnic minority people

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Answer: 0%

Q93: What proportion of countries around the world have no comprehensive equality laws in place

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Answer: 80 per cent

Q94: How many people in the UK could use their skills more fully if more flexible working was available

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Answer: 6.5 million

Q95: The glass ceiling is a term referring to

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Answer: Advancement of an employee is limited due to discrimination

Q96: Difficulties in defining bullying, have led to the development of what types of initiatives

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Answer: Dignity-at-work

Q97: The most widely publicized example of a UK public service that has undergone modernization aimed at improving performance is

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Answer: The National Health Service

Q98: The term Performance management was first used in which decade by Beer and Ruh

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Answer: 1970s

Q99: Which theory concerns the use of objectives to manage performance

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Answer: Goal theory

Q100: The early models of HRM acknowledged that increasing demands on organizations and organizational managers meant a greater focus on tackling what effectively

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Answer: Employee performance
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