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Q1: The gardening and plant specialist web site, www.crocus.co.uk has a

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Answer: Customer-Focused Orientation

Q2: For effective campaign management and customer service in a multi-channel environment, organisations need

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Answer: Data integration across channels

Q3: Online customer reviews, collaborative filtering and 360′ degree product viewings are all examples of

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Answer: Online added value

Q4: Which of the technologies below provide real time exchange of information for the benefit of players in logistics and supply chain management

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Answer: Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)

Q5: Mike Grehan’s Online Promotional Planning tool contains which four elements

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Answer: Positioning, Permission, Partnership and Performance

Q6: From a marketing perspective, what is the major attraction of the Internet to Small and Medium Sized Enterprises

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Answer: Greater promotional opportunities and access to more markets

Q7: Initially, the dominant reason for entrepreneurs going ‘online’ was for

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Answer: Information Gathering

Q8: A primary objective of marketing research is to

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Answer: Enhance the quality of decision-making by marketing managers

Q9: In the European Business Information sector, LexisNexis is classed as

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Answer: News aggregator

Q10: Mohammed et al. suggest that three issues typically shape the terms of reference in online marketing

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Answer: Anticipated, Emergent and opportunity based change

Q11: McDaniel and Gates describe database creation from a web site as a ‘Marketer’s dream’ because

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Answer: Access to customer behaviour is more complete online than in the physical world

Q12: In simple terms, ‘The Invisible web’ refers to

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Answer: Information unavailable by ordinary search terms and queries

Q13: A fundamental problem with the completion of e-mail questionnaires as identified by Strauss et al, is

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Answer: Respondents limited technical competence

Q14: A fundamental factor in the growth of online surveys has been

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Answer: The use of pop-up surveys

Q15: The recommended number of participants in an online focus group is

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Answer: 6

Q16: With regard to online sampling issues, coverage error refers to when

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Answer: The sample frame is not representative of the whole population.

Q17: Which of the following is the correct sequence in the consumer buying decision process

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Answer: Problem recognition, information search, evaluation of alternatives, purchase decision, post purchase evaluation

Q18: When considering why a customer might shop online, cost is not limited to the buying price. Which of the following is not an additional ‘cost’ that might influence a buyer to use the Internet as part of their buying process

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Answer: Time through using online search engines to locate a product

Q19: Which of the following is not one of the reasons for empirical evidence preceding academic studies in the development of online marketing

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Answer: Broadband quickly replaced dial-up connections

Q20: Which of the following could not be described as explicit online buyer behaviour that might be monitored

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Answer: Previous purchases

Q21: In buyer behaviour, topographical association refers to

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Answer: The premise that one individual’s implied behaviour will be matched by others.

Q22: Which of the following is not part of the B2B decision-making unit

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Answer: Those who meet sales representatives

Q23: Which of the following is not an e-metric that might be used to assess an objective of providing after-sales service

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Answer: The average order size

Q24: According to Kotler (2003) which of the following is not an example of when database marketing is unlikely to be worthwhile

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Answer: All three are examples

Q25: Which of the following is not data about an individual’s online habits that might be useful to the online marketer

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Answer: Their income

Q26: Which of the following is not information that might be included on a B2B database

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Answer: Hobbies of the customer

Q27: According to Haig (2001), what percentage of web users use search engines as tool first research

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Answer: 80 – 85%

Q28: Archie is an example of

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Answer: A online file and information retrieval search engine

Q29: The original search engine model was referred to as

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Answer: Free to submit

Q30: An algorithm is

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Answer: A computer program that sorts and ranks search results

Q31: When a search engine recognises pages from other sites their database, the ranking is determined by

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Answer: Link Analysis

Q32: Directories are different to web-based crawler search engines because

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Answer: They employ humans as analysts instead of technology to index and rank

Q33: Search Engine Optimisation (SEO) refers to

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Answer: The technical process of acquiring top position on the web’s major search engines and directories

Q34: What is the most important ‘tag’ in when designing web pages for optimization

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Answer: Title tag

Q35: In relation to search engine marketing, spamming is what

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Answer: Manipulating ways of achieving a higher ranking by fooling the search engine

Q36: A key marketing tactic linked to search engines is the use of

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Answer: Banner advertising displays linked to keyword searches to drive site traffic

Q37: e-CRM can be defined as

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Answer: The efficient handling of all customer relations by web-based methods integrated into back office systems

Q38: The CAN SPAM Act of 2003 relates to

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Answer: The key requirements governing the sending of commercial e-mails in the United States

Q39: Eliciting customer opinions on products and services relates to which one of Kotler’s relationship levels

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Answer: Proactive

Q40: Reicheld suggests that customer attitudes towards loyalty are driven by

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Answer: Their perception of value

Q41: Front Office CRM Systems covering real-time aspects of sales related activity is referred to as

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Answer: Sales Force Automation

Q42: A 2004 BT/EIU survey on the barriers to successful CRM implementation rated what as the most important factor

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Answer: Difficulties capturing the right customer data

Q43: Rosenspan identifies a key problem with Permission Marketing which is

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Answer: It is built around the marketer’s schedule

Q44: Online Personalisation relies on

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Answer: Individual customers volunteering increasing amounts of personal data

Q45: Phishing is

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Answer: The process of stealing personal data after luring consumers to seemingly, legitimate web sites

Q46: The ‘Privacy Paradox’ refers to

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Answer: That a web site is hosted on a .com domain does not necessarily mean that the web site has been developed for a global audience.

Q47: Which of the following is not an element of de Kare Silver’s electronic shopping test

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Answer: Suitability for digitalization

Q48: The ‘hard to find’ product is better known in marketing terms as a/an___product

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Answer: Niche

Q49: Which of the following is not one of the categories in which digital products is part of

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Answer: Products that can be sent via the Internet

Q50: Which of the following describes ‘aggregation of products’

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Answer: Bringing a wide range of products into one place for the benefit of buyers

Q51: Which level of Kotler’s hierarchy of customer value is most relevant to the web

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Answer: The augmented product

Q52: Which of the following businesses is unlikely to benefit from using the web in a mass-customization strategy

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Answer: A manufacturer that has multiple distribution channels

Q53: Statement “There are three key aspects of online branding: the brand online, the online brand and the pure online brand.”

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Answer: Correct

Q54: Why did a number of traditional banks adopt different brand names for their online ventures

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Answer: They were more likely to appeal to the early adopters of the Internet

Q55: Choosing a domain name is an important consideration for any business, but particularly so for the pure online entity, why is this so

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Answer: The domain name is the brand name, and visa-versa

Q56: With regard to new product development (NPD), Bickerton et al argue that

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Answer: The Internet can be integrated into all elements of the traditional six-stage NPD model

Q57: Affiliate Marketing schemes

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Answer: Provide an additional revenue stream to contribute to an organisation’s total revenue

Q58: Price elasticity indicates

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Answer: Buyer sensitivity to price movements

Q59: The Internet ‘frictionless’ economy

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Answer: Decreases search and transaction costs

Q60: Kelkoo and Dealtime are examples of

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Answer: Generic price comparison sites

Q61: Distribution and search marketing costs are examples of

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Answer: Upward pressure

Q62: Prestige pricing can be applied to which product category

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Answer: Single Malt Whisky

Q63: Online pricing and selling of complimentary products is often referred as

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Answer: Bundle Pricing

Q64: An example of an ‘objective factor’ in a consumer’s value for money assessment is

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Answer: Customised product

Q65: Flexible Initiated Seller Pricing refers to

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Answer: Real time pricing responding to a buyer’s price elasticity

Q66: A Dutch auction is when

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Answer: The intermediary sets a high initial price

Q67: The promotional communications mix consists of five elements – what is missing from this list. Advertising, personal selling, sales promotion, direct marketing

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Answer: Public relations

Q68: Which of the following is not one of the common models for assessing the cost of online advertising

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Answer: CPS (cost per sale)

Q69: Why are community web sites a particularly good place for placing online ads

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Answer: They attract specific segments and so provide excellent opportunities for targeted advertising

Q70: The final stage of the email marketing process is that of measuring results. Which of the following is not a method of measurement

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Answer: Cost per click

Q71: The following quotes are describing what? “Network-enhanced word the of mouth.” (Steve Jurvetson). “A marketing activity in which a company recruits customers to be sales agents and spread the word about he product.” (Solomon et al)

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Answer: Viral marketing

Q72: Which of the following is a genuine drawback to initiating a viral marketing campaign

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Answer: The originating organization has no control over the message once it is launched

Q73: Which of the following is not something advertisers should practice in order to attract quality affiliates

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Answer: Restricting the amount of affiliates employed

Q74: Downloadable company logos, details of company locations, short biographies of significant staff and a photo library should all be elements of what

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Answer: A virtual press kit

Q75: What might have the objective of: building relationships, supplementing a dynamic web site, providing an income stream or marketing research

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Answer: Commercial newsletters

Q76: Which of the following is not an example of automated sales models in a B2B environment

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Answer: The vendor facilitates an automated basket to be set up by the shopper which they simply click on the ‘confirm order’ button to place a repeat order

Q77: Disintermediation in the online world refers to

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Answer: The elimination of existing intermediaries

Q78: A fundamental part of the distribution function is to get the product

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Answer: To the right place at the right time

Q79: Which are the following is not a typical activity of the distribution function carried out by intermediaries

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Answer: New product development

Q80: Co-marketing is

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Answer: The partnership between channel members and how they support one another

Q81: What provides one of the fundamental Internet advantages between buyers and sellers

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Answer: Connectivity

Q82: What are the key factors that illustrate the ‘Drop Ship’ model of online distribution

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Answer: Order facilitation and no stock carried

Q83: Finance operations like Able2Buy and V12 Finance facilitate what through online distribution

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Answer: Value

Q84: Certification authorities like Thawte and Verisign provide

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Answer: Authentication of trader’s credentials

Q85: A channel migration strategy is when an organisation decides to

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Answer: Persuade customers to move from one channel to another

Q86: The key features of Warehouse Management Systems (WMS) are

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Answer: Receiving goods, effective space management, automated and customised order picking for faster response times

Q87: Once a customer has opted out of telesales, that request must be given effect to. Such a request should be provided

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Answer: Is not required be in writing to the particular marketer

Q88: Principle 4 of the Data Protection Act 1998 provides that personal data must be accurate and where necessary kept up to date. For this purpose a database has to be

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Answer: Regularly cleansed to remove errors and inaccuracies

Q89: For marketers to manage their email lists effectively they should

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Answer: Suppress the details of those that have opted out of email marketing

Q90: In a web-based contract, the contract is accepted by the marketer when

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Answer: It has actually been received

Q91: An electronic signature identifies the originator of an electronic message. It ensures that the sender of an electronic message

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Answer: Is linked directly with the message sent

Q92: Decryption, the reverse of encryption, is the transformation of encrypted data

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Answer: Back to its intelligible form which is called plain text

Q93: One of the ways of ensuring the security of e-marketing information is the use of

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Answer: Secure electronic transactions protocol

Q94: Where communications networks are used to store personal information, the data subject should be offered the right

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Answer: To refuse such processing and storage of personal information

Q95: Before traffic data is processed, subscribers and users must be informed of the type of data processed

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Answer: Such data must be erased or made anonymous when it is no longer needed

Q96: An electronic cheque is a digital substitute for the paper cheque and follows the same payment stream as the paper counterpart

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Answer: Just like the paper cheque, an electronic cheque is a legally binding promise to pay

Q97: In which decade did HRM originate

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Answer: 1980s

Q98: What are the ideas underpinning ‘soft’, ‘commitment’, or ‘high-road’ HRM practices

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Answer: Labour needs to be treated as an asset to be invested in

Q99: Which consulting company is associated with the concept of talent management

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Answer: McKinsey

Q100: Why are employers interested in employee engagement

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Answer: Because engaged employees are more motivated and prepared to give of their best to make the firm succeed