Generic selectors
Exact matches only
Search in title
Search in content
Search in posts
Search in pages
Filter by Categories
nmims post
Objective Type Set
Online MCQ Assignment
Question Solution
Solved Question
Uncategorized

Q1: Besides the trend component, classical time series model consists of the further three components

View Answer

Answer: Cyclical, seasonal and irregular

Q2: The smaller the value of alpha in exponential smoothing, the more likely it is to expect

View Answer

Answer: The smoother the shape of the forecasted curve

Q3: The equation of a straight line is 2x+3y=6. Which of the following is true of the intercept and slope of this line

View Answer

Answer: Intercept=2, slope = -2/3

Q4: A variable in a linear programming problem must be assumed to take fractional values

View Answer

Answer: Correct – True

Q5: In linear programming, nonnegativity implies that a variable cannot have

View Answer

Answer: A negative value.

Q6: The feasible region is the area where the objective function takes positive values

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q7: As the value of the objective increases the line of the objective

View Answer

Answer: Moves away from the origin.

Q8: Sensitivity Analysis of a Decision Making technique is concerned with measuring the effect on the solution to small changes of the input information

View Answer

Answer: Correct – True

Q9: A tight constraint will always have a shadow price which is greater than zero

View Answer

Answer: Correct – True

Q10: In a linear programming problem the binding constraints are Process A 2x+3y=19, Process B x+y=8. The objective is to maximize profit where profit of x is £5 and that of y is £7. The shadow price of Process A is

View Answer

Answer: £2

Q11: Using Solver, ‘greater than’ constraints are entered using the operator

View Answer

Answer: >=

Q12: Multivariable variable problems are problems containing

View Answer

Answer: more than 2 variables.

Q13: In an office environment which of the following would not properly be regarded as an item of inventory

View Answer

Answer: Toilets.

Q14: In the model S = Q – ut, with Q = 1000, u = 40 and t = 10 the current stock level is

View Answer

Answer: 600

Q15: In the model S = Q – ut a stockout will occur when

View Answer

Answer: t = Q/u

Q16: The lead time is defined as

View Answer

Answer: The length of time between ordering and receiving an inventory order.

Q17: With an order quantity of Q units the average stock level is given by

View Answer

Answer: Q/2

Q18: With a lead time of m periods and a usage rate of u the re-order stock time is given by

View Answer

Answer: Q/u – m

Q19: With a lead time of m periods and a usage rate of u the reorder stock level is given by

View Answer

Answer: mu

Q20: The EOQ is defined as

View Answer

Answer: The optimal quantity of inventory to be ordered at regular intervals over the length of the production run.

Q21: Which of the following describes the behaviour of total ordering costs

View Answer

Answer: Equal the number of orders placed times the cost of placing an order

Q22: Which of the following describe the behaviour of total holding costs

View Answer

Answer: They depend upon the opportunity cost of tying up funds and the average value of the stock holding.

Q23: In a survey what is the difference between Quality Control (QC) and Quality Assurance (QA)

View Answer

Answer: QC concerns the incompleteness of data while QC concerns the correctness of the data.

Q24: Which of the following statements is true for Precision and Accuracy in datasets pertaining to manufacturing processes

View Answer

Answer: Precision and Accuracy in datasets may not always be possible in datasets.

Q25: Which data cleaning method is suggested during the first screening step of data for a dataset with apparently no outliers

View Answer

Answer: A graphing tool such as a scatter plot.

Q26: If for a given dataset the median and second quartile are identical what can be said about the data

View Answer

Answer: The median and second quartile are the same because they are equivalent and say nothing more about the dataset.

Q27: In comparing variance and standard deviation which of the following statements is true

View Answer

Answer: Standard deviation is preferred to variance because it can handle both very large and very small data values while variance tends to amplify especially large data values.

Q28: Histograms often compete with Scatter plots; which of the following statements is true

View Answer

Answer: Histograms are especially suited to categorised datasets, thus showing distribution, while scatter plots are more suited to the visualisation of clusters and outliers.

Q29: Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘outlier’ in datasets

View Answer

Answer: An outlier is a data value that is inappropriate for the analysis and should be removed from the dataset.

Q30: The ‘null’ hypothesis is

View Answer

Answer: A statistical concept that sets out to disprove a supposition.

Q31: For network analysis, activities in a project must satisfy one of the following

View Answer

Answer: They use time, resources, and structure

Q32: In activity on arrow networks the only reason for using a dummy activity is to make the logic correct

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q33: Nodes (events) in a network diagram are numbered to satisfy the following

View Answer

Answer: The head node of an activity must be a greater number than the tail node of the activity

Q34: The shortest time of a project is the time of the path with the longest duration

View Answer

Answer: Correct – True

Q35: For an activity duration is 5 days and the node at the start has an early start time of 4 days and a latest start time of 5 days. The node at the end has an early start time of 10 days and a latest start time of 11 days. The Total Float is

View Answer

Answer: 2 days

Q36: The time of an activity in a network can be approximated by which distribution

View Answer

Answer: Beta

Q37: The standard deviation of a path through a network is equal to the sum of the standard deviations for each of the activities that make up that path

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q38: The time of activity in a project can be estimated to have a most likely completion time of 7 days, an optimistic time of 6 days, and a pessimistic time of 9 days. Which of the following is true of the Expected time and the variance for this activity

View Answer

Answer: 7.17 days, 0.25 days

Q39: When a network is crashed, every activity is reduced to its shortest possible time

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q40: A resource histogram is a bar chart representing the total resources used per time unit, across all resources that are used in the activities

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q41: The minimax regret approach will lead to the same decision as the conservative approach

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q42: Utility shows the usefulness of the expected value solution

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q43: The expected value of perfect information provides an upper limit on how much the decision maker should be willing to pay for sample information

View Answer

Answer: Correct – True

Q44: In using the Wald (maximin) criterion, a decision maker finds the best possible outcome for each alternative and then selects the worst among these

View Answer

Answer: Wrong – False

Q45: A decision maker who looks at the worst result for every decision, and chooses the decision with the least disappointing possibility is using

View Answer

Answer: Conservative approach

Q46: Rules for selecting the best alternatives are called

View Answer

Answer: Criteria

Q47: Expected value

View Answer

Answer: Is equal to the sum of the products of the payoffs and their probabilities

Q48: If utility is plotted on the vertical axis and payoff plotted on the horizontal axis, then the usual shape of the utility curve is. Please select all that apply

View Answer

Answer: An s-shaped curve sloping upwards from left to right

Q49: The annual percentage rate APR is

View Answer

Answer: The nominal annual interest rate d) The effective annual rate of interest irrespective of the number of periods in which the interest is applied and compounded in a year

Q50: What specific information can a complete organizational chart give? Select the correct answer

View Answer

Answer: It shows the general logic for grouping the company into units on different levels.

Q51: What is the major importance, from a managerial point of view, of a formal organizational structure

View Answer

Answer: It is primarily useful for coordinating behaviour in the company.

Q52: Which option is true concerning Taylor’s functional foremanship

View Answer

Answer: It prescribed a model in which each employee could report directly to a number of managers.

Q53: Which of the following statements is not in line with Max Weber’s view on bureaucracy

View Answer

Answer: The bureaucracy should not be viewed as superior to other forms of organizing when it comes to building a stable and reliable organization.

Q54: Lawrence and Lorsch describe differentiation as an important element of a formal structure. Which option is true about differentiation

View Answer

Answer: It describes how tasks are divided in the organization.

Q55: The so called Aston Group developed a conceptual framework where a number of structural factors were studied. Which option contains only factors that were studied by the Aston Group

View Answer

Answer: Specialization, formalization and configuration.

Q56: Which of the statements below best captures the definition of specialization by the Aston Group

View Answer

Answer: The division of labour within the organization.

Q57: What is a divisional structure? Pick the option that best matches the definition of a divisional structure

View Answer

Answer: Divisions are usually organized around the products of the company.

Q58: In what ways does the configurational approach differ from contingency theory

View Answer

Answer: The configurational approach tries to integrate strategy and structure to describe strategic types.

Q59: The concept of boundaries has been called into question as a reaction to contingency theory and the configurational approach. Which of the following statements best captures the new view on organizational boundaries

View Answer

Answer: Boundaries are becoming more and more open.

Q60: Which of the following statements best describes the definition of technology offered by Actor Network Theory? Pick the correct answer

View Answer

Answer: Technology is viewed as part of a social construction.

Q61: What is the general meaning of technological determinism

View Answer

Answer: It refers to a perspective where technology is viewed as exogeneous, homogeneous and predictable.

Q62: Which of the following options captures the guiding principles of the socio-technical movement

View Answer

Answer: It makes a distinction between social and technical systems, and argues that they need to be viewed as interrelated.

Q63: How does contingency theory view the role of technology

View Answer

Answer: Technology is viewed as shaping the organizational structure.

Q64: Thompson categorized three types of technology. Which option lists the correct types

View Answer

Answer: Long-linked technology, mediating technology and intensive technology.

Q65: Which of the following options below best matches the definition of information technology (IT)

View Answer

Answer: The mechanisms used to organize, store, manipulate and review information.

Q66: What is true about whether information technology leads to deskilling workers

View Answer

Answer: Research results are contradictory.

Q67: What are the major research results from studies of sociotechnical systems

View Answer

Answer: Rather than viewing people as extensions of machines they were viewed as complementary.

Q68: How is technology and organizational design linked according to Woodward’s studies

View Answer

Answer: Unit and small batch production requires an organic organizational form.

Q69: What is the general message of the Studies of Science and Technology (SST)

View Answer

Answer: The major message of SST is that technology is socially constructed.

Q70: Division of labour is a central principle in management thinking. Which statement best describes the idea of division of labour

View Answer

Answer: It describes the value of specialization for gaining efficiency.

Q71: Taylor formulated a number of principles in his Principles of Scientific Management. Which of the following statements is not a principle of Taylor

View Answer

Answer: By applying scientific management workers’ pay could be lowered.

Q72: Which of the following statements best describe the legacy of Taylor and his followers

View Answer

Answer: The focus on scientific methods and rational analysis is widely acknowledged, whereas his view on human beings is being heavily criticized.

Q73: What is true about the concept of work organization

View Answer

Answer: Work organization is a generic concept that includes a number of practices, tools and methods used in day-to-day work in organizations.

Q74: The concept of flexible specialization is important in modern management thinking. Which of the following statements about flexible specialization is true

View Answer

Answer: It describes a production system where companies specialize in producing small and customized batches.

Q75: What is true about Total Quality Management (TQM)

View Answer

Answer: In TQM the ambition is to reach the level of zero mistakes.

Q76: What has been the academic response to the ideas of Total Quality Management

View Answer

Answer: There is little evidence that TQM has positive effects for employees.

Q77: What is true about Business Process Rerengineering (BPR)

View Answer

Answer: BPR is a strategy that emphasizes the need for a process-oriented approach.

Q78: There are different forms of control in organization. Which alternative best describes the different forms of control

View Answer

Answer: The literature suggests that there are three conventional forms of control.

Q79: What is true about the recent literature on routines, rules and practices

View Answer

Answer: The recent literature suggests that routines are more flexible than Weber imagined them.

Q80: The term homosocial reproduction has been used to study recruitment practices. What is true about homosocial reproduction? Pick the correct statement

View Answer

Answer: It is a concept used to explain why mainly men get recruited to organizational top positions.

Q81: What was the initial purpose with the Hawthorne study

View Answer

Answer: The purpose was to determine the best lighting levels for worker productivity.

Q82: What was the major result of the Part 1 of the Hawthorne study

View Answer

Answer: Workers’ productivity rose almost constantly under the period of study, but this could not be explained only by changing working conditions.

Q83: The Hawthorne studies have been very influential even though they have been met with a lot of criticism. Which of the following statements best captures the criticism discussed

View Answer

Answer: The Hawthorne studies were criticized for treating men and women differently in the studies.

Q84: Which of the following theories does not belong to the group of content-oriented motivation theories

View Answer

Answer: Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

Q85: What is true about Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

View Answer

Answer: When lower needs are satisfied the individual strives to fill the next higher need.

Q86: Herzberg makes a distinction between motivation and hygiene factors. Which statement is true about this theory

View Answer

Answer: Hygiene factors can cause people to be dissatisfied, but cannot motivate them.

Q87: What is true about McClelland’s Achievement Motivation Theory

View Answer

Answer: The theory suggests that there are three basic needs, and that people can partly change their orientation towards them.

Q88: Which of the following statements describes the philosophy of hard HRM

View Answer

Answer: It argues that HRM practices should be aligned with the overall goals and strategies of the organization.

Q89: Diversity is an important topic in human resource management. Which of the following statements does not describe a type of diversity programme

View Answer

Answer: Full-Range of Leadership Model

Q90: What is true about situational leadership? Pick the correct option

View Answer

Answer: It identifies high task behaviour as the best leadership style in certain situations.

Q91: Below follows a number of statements concerning the contingency theory of leadership

View Answer

Answer: It uses the LPC score (least preferred co-worker) to measure leadership behaviour.

Q92: In what way does the trend towards increased decentralization influence leadership

View Answer

Answer: Increased decentralization matches a more democratic leadership style.

Q93: It is argued that emerging life-style oriented values influence the ways leadership is exercised. Which statement best describes the results from studies of values in different societies

View Answer

Answer: In societies that are life-style oriented, work tends to be less important for people.

Q94: Pick the statement that best described the so-called style approach to leadership

View Answer

Answer: It suggests that leadership studies should focus on what managers do.

Q95: Below follows a set of statements about transformational leadership

View Answer

Answer: It suggests that managers need to focus more on the intrinsic motivation of subordinates.

Q96: The Full Range of Leadership Model is an important part of the charismatic/transformational leadership paradigm. Pick the statement that best describes the model

View Answer

Answer: It describes both transactional and transformational behaviours, and attempts to create a bridge between them.

Q97: Pick the statement that best describes the so called Women in Management (WIM) studies

View Answer

Answer: The movement claims that men and women behave differently as managers.

Q98: What is true about the links between the growing use of projects and leadership

View Answer

Answer: It creates a more complex leadership situation with dual structures (projects and the formal structure).

Q99: What is the major difference between the style and the activity approach to leadership? Pick the alternative that best describes the major difference

View Answer

Answer: They use different methods and they also offer different explanations to successful leadership.

Q100: Herbert Simon was one of the first to question the assumptions of rational decision making. Which statement is correct concerning his view on decision making

View Answer

Answer: There are cognitive and practical limitations that make individuals only limitedly rational.