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Q1: How organizations should be rewarding their employees is

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Answer: Arbitrary

Q2: Herzberg (2003) and Kohn (1993a) have consistently taken the view that rewards such as performance related pay fail to deliver because

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Answer: They are viewed as ‘hygiene factors’

Q3: Circumstances in which rewards normally impact on behaviour are

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Answer: When the wage or salary is seriously out of line with expectations

Q4: The individual most associated with first recognizing the link between pay and performance was

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Answer: F.W Taylor

Q5: The incentivized level of effort and performance can only be accessed through additional financial payments that are between

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Answer: 25 – 33%

Q6: A set wage or salary is an expression of what type of reward

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Answer: Rewards as rights

Q7: Paying people a monthly salary would not be suitable in which circumstances

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Answer: When overtime varies and is a large part of the remuneration

Q8: Annualized hours refers to

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Answer: Calculating working time on an annual rather than a weekly basis

Q9: The defining feature of incremental payment systems is

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Answer: Length of service

Q10: What is the difference between the terms market research and marketing research

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Answer: None of the options given are correct.

Q11: Which ONE of these is NOT an element of the marketing information system (MKIS)

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Answer: Marketing insight system.

Q12: Which ONE of these has less to do with marketing research than the others

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Answer: FIS.

Q13: Most qualitative research money goes into

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Answer: focus groups.

Q14: Which ONE of these quantitative methods is being used more nowadays

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Answer: Online research.

Q15: Which ONE of the options is the odd one out

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Answer: NRS.

Q16: What is data that ‘relates to a living individual who can be identified from the data, or from the data and other information in the possession of, or likely to come into the possession of, the data controller’

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Answer: Personal data.

Q17: How many principles are contained in the UK Data Protection Act 1998

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Answer: Eight.

Q18: ‘Responsible for specific parts of projects and may be part of a team. Will write questionnaires and analyse results. May prepare reports and presentations.’ This might appear in the job description for which ONE of the following

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Answer: Research executive.

Q19: Which ONE of these is NOT one of the four Ps of the original marketing mix proposed by McCarthy in the late 1950s

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Answer: Publication.

Q20: Which ONE of these is a technique useful in project planning

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Answer: PERT.

Q21: Which ONE of these is one of the four Ps of the marketing research mix (MR Mix) proposed by Bradley in the early 2000s

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Answer: Purpose.

Q22: Which ONE of these needs to be decided before considering whether to take a census or sample

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Answer: The objectives.

Q23: Which ONE of these should be used as a starting point for any research project

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Answer: Secondary data.

Q24: A systematic search for a supplier includes various steps. Which ONE of the following steps should come before the others

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Answer: Creating a brief.

Q25: Why might we have a qualitative stage at the end of a project

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Answer: To investigate issues found in the field.

Q26: Who produces the research brief

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Answer: A client.

Q27: The brief does NOT contain

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Answer: fees.

Q28: Which ONE of these services is NOT a search engine

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Answer: Dewey.

Q29: The Freedom of Information Act 2000 concerns

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Answer: public authorities.

Q30: Which ONE of these is the best description of secondary data

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Answer: Existing data.

Q31: Which ONE of these is a good example of tertiary data

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Answer: A book index.

Q32: Secondary data is LEAST helpful in

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Answer: evaluating new products.

Q33: Which ONE is the most damaging problem for the researcher with secondary data

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Answer: It may not address the aims.

Q34: Which ONE of these types of secondary data sources is internal? (Consider the types from the viewpoint of a computer games software seller.)

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Answer: Past sales to specialist stores.

Q35: Which ONE of these types of secondary data is external? (Consider the types from the viewpoint of a computer games software seller.(

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Answer: Magazine reviews of games.

Q36: Which ONE of these will best help us to assess the reliability of information found in desk research

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Answer: The source.

Q37: Desk research plans should start with

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Answer: tertiary data.

Q38: According to historical accounts, face-to-face methods have been used since the early years of civilisation to collect population figures. Why were these records kept

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Answer: For taxation purposes.

Q39: When did the telephone become an accepted tool for primary data collection in marketing research

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Answer: 1970s.

Q40: If someone uses research as part of a sales effort, this is said to be

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Answer: sugging.

Q41: Which ONE of these is NOT an intrinsic factor

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Answer: The informant’s memory.

Q42: Acquiescence response bias is usually

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Answer: agreement with little consideration.

Q43: A primary data collection method that involves tracking behaviour over a period of time is called

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Answer: observation.

Q44: Mystery shopping is a form of

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Answer: observation.

Q45: Which ONE of these methods is the fastest way to collect data

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Answer: Online.

Q46: Which ONE of these methods is the most expensive way to collect data per respondent

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Answer: Personal.

Q47: Which ONE of these methods has the highest response rate

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Answer: Personal.

Q48: Interviewing all members of a given population is called

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Answer: a census.

Q49: Which ONE of the following classifications contains divisions with the labels A, B, C1, C2, D and E

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Answer: Social grade.

Q50: Sampling means following a sequence of stages. Which ONE of the following stages should come before the others

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Answer: Examine the objective of the study.

Q51: Which ONE of these sampling methods is a probability method

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Answer: Simple random.

Q52: For sampling, which ONE of the following should be up-to-date, complete and affordable

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Answer: A sampling frame.

Q53: Which ONE of these sample sources will be the most incomplete for a sample of nationally representative households

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Answer: A customer database.

Q54: Which ONE of the following is the benefit of using simple random sampling

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Answer: We can calculate the accuracy of the results.

Q55: Which ONE of the following is the main problem with using non-probability sampling techniques

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Answer: Human judgement error.

Q56: Which ONE of the following is the best – but an often unused – way to decide on sample size

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Answer: By calculation.

Q57: Which ONE of the following methods is generally used in qualitative sampling

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Answer: Quota.

Q58: When new information inhibits the recall of previously memorised information, this is known as

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Answer: retroactive inhibition.

Q59: One thing that should definitely NOT affect a respondent’s ability to answer questions is

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Answer: physical disability.

Q60: Why is stimulus material used at interviews

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Answer: To assist the interview process.

Q61: Which ONE of these is NOT an example of stimulus material

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Answer: Payment.

Q62: Which ONE of these approaches can make the best use of stimulus material

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Answer: Focus group.

Q63: Projective techniques are an alternative to

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Answer: questions.

Q64: ‘A respondent is asked to describe her car as if it were an animal’: of what is this an example

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Answer: A projective technique using analogy.

Q65: ‘Do you think we should recycle more household waste because there is a serious risk of destroying planet Earth through our overuse of resources and abuse of the environment?’ This is an example of

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Answer: a leading question.

Q66: Which ONE of these is an advantage of using open-ended questions

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Answer: People can express themselves in their own way.

Q67: Which ONE of the following is typically used to plan a questionnaire

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Answer: Flow chart.

Q68: Which ONE of the following decades marks when group discussions were fully accepted in marketing research

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Answer: 1970s.

Q69: At what point does the analysis of qualitative data begin

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Answer: During data collection.

Q70: Which ONE of the following is NOT the purpose of qualitative research

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Answer: To measure the ‘amount’ of opinion.

Q71: The face-to-face focus group is the best tool to

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Answer: trigger unexpected views.

Q72: The depth interview is the same as a

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Answer: focused interview.

Q73: Which ONE of the following is generally considered to be a forecasting method

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Answer: Delphi interview.

Q74: Semiotics refers to

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Answer: the analysis of signs.

Q75: Semiotic analysis is criticised for being

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Answer: subjective.

Q76: We must consider a cluster of individual signs. is true of non-verbal communications

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Answer: Correct – True

Q77: Thinking of the phases through which a group passes, which ONE of the following steps comes after the others

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Answer: Performing.

Q78: Which is the odd one out

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Answer: EXCEL.

Q79: What is generally seen to be the opposite of quantitative

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Answer: Qualitative.

Q80: Which ONE of these types of data is favoured in market research

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Answer: Ratio data.

Q81: What does the following statement describe? ‘Surveys take place at regular intervals and, for a small monetary outlay; clients can ask their own questions on a survey run by research agencies. Each client receives its own unique set of findings.’

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Answer: Omnibus.

Q82: The retail panel generally involves

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Answer: shopkeepers.

Q83: Which ONE of these techniques is NOT normally used to detect long-term trends

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Answer: Hall tests.

Q84: A typical omnibus study will probably have a sample size of

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Answer: 1,000-2,000.

Q85: Which ONE of these methods will suffer most from ‘respondent fatigue’

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Answer: Panels.

Q86: Which ONE of the following is criticised for testing products in an artificial environment

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Answer: Hall tests.

Q87: ‘It is a collection of subject areas, based on the needs of a given department. It is created in a decentralised way. It may be independent or dependent.’ Which ONE of the following does this describe

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Answer: Data mart.

Q88: Which ONE of the following indicates how ‘accurate’ results from sample surveys may be

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Answer: Significance tests.

Q89: With whom are the terms ‘hole counts, top-line results, punching and dirty data’ associated

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Answer: Hollerith (1860-1929).

Q90: ‘The researcher identifies meaningful patterns in data.’ To which ONE of the following does this refer

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Answer: Analysis.

Q91: Which ONE of these techniques is most likely to be used in qualitative analysis

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Answer: NVIVO.

Q92: Which ONE of these types of information is NOT usually made available in transcripts

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Answer: Emotions.

Q93: Which ONE of these techniques is most likely to be used in quantitative analysis

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Answer: Multivariate analysis.

Q94: Demographics are also known as

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Answer: classifiers.

Q95: Consider the difference between standard demographics and non-standard demographics. Standard demographics are

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Answer: well established, while non-standard are specific to the study.

Q96: Which ONE of the following is NOT likely to account for variations in quantitative results

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Answer: Transcript error.

Q97: The chi-square test is

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Answer: a statistical significance test.

Q98: When did members of the Royal Statistical Society devise bar charts, scatter plots, line plots, pie charts and coxcombs

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Answer: 1800s.

Q99: ‘Reports can be available to multiple users simultaneously and instantly.’ To which ONE of the following channels does this best apply

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Answer: The Internet.

Q100: The most undesirable outcome of poor reporting is

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Answer: indecision.