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Q1: Which of the following is not one of the distinct characteristics of service

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Answer: Tangibility.

Q2: Services are manufactured and consumed simultaneously; they cannot be stored either prior to or after the service encounter. This is referred to as

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Answer: Perishability.

Q3: Dog walking, tax advice, and counselling are examples of what

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Answer: Pure service.

Q4: These types of services try to shape attitudes or behaviour. In order to achieve this, these services have to be oriented to people’s minds, This is referred to as

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Answer: Mental stimulus processing.

Q5: Which of the following is not one of the service processes

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Answer: Physical evidence.

Q6: This is a characteristic of a service, one that refers to their instantaneous production and consumption

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Answer: Inseparability.

Q7: This is a characteristic of a service, namely that they do not have physical attributes and so therefore cannot be perceived by the senses – cannot be tasted, seen, touched, smelt or possessed

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Answer: Intangibility.

Q8: What is the extended marketing mix for service marketing

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Answer: People, Physical evidence, and Processes.

Q9: This is a characteristic of a service, one that recognises that spare or unused capacity cannot be stored for use at some point in the future

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Answer: Perishability.

Q10: The use of sales literature and brochures to give signs about the quality and positioning of the service is an example of

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Answer: Physical evidence.

Q11: Which of the following is a combination of different service elements, including products

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Answer: Service mix.

Q12: Which of the following is an event that occurs when a customer interacts directly with a service

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Answer: Service encounters.

Q13: Which of the following is an event that occurs when a customer’s expectations of a service encounter are not met

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Answer: Service failure.

Q14: When links between service personnel and service process break down, this is referred to as

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Answer: Failures in delivery system.

Q15: This is an organization’s systematic attempt to correct a service failure and to retain a customer’s goodwill

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Answer: Service recovery.

Q16: Once a train pulls out of a station, an aeroplane takes off or a film starts, those seats are lost and can never be sold. This is referred to as

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Answer: Perishability.

Q17: By lowering prices to attract customers during quieter times and raising prices when demand is at its highest, demand can be levelled and marginal revenues increased. This is an example of

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Answer: Differential pricing.

Q18: The seat in a theatre, train, plane or ferry is rented on a temporary basis in exchange for a fee. The terms associated with the rental of the seat determine the time and use or experience to which the seat can be put. However, the seat remains the property of the theatre owner, rail operator, airline or ferry company. This is referred to as

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Answer: Lack of ownership.

Q19: In service industries, which of the factors below is extremely important; representing the service provider, and having a direct impact on the perceived quality of the service itself

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Answer: People.

Q20: When there is little or no personal contact between customer and service provider, this is classified as

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Answer: Low-contact service.

Q21: Recruitment and selection must be effective to ensure it

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Answer: Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at optimum most

Q22: Can the assessment and selection of applicants be carried out in such a way that the ‘best’ or ‘right’ person will always be identified

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Answer: No

Q23: The solution to many so-called ‘people problems’ is often associated with improving the effectiveness of the recruitment process by

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Answer: Careful selection of the right people for the job

Q24: The science and engineering sectors reflect significant under representation of which group of employees

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Answer: Women

Q25: The concept of stagnation in the context of recruitment means

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Answer: Over-reliance on the internal labour market to fill new positions.

Q26: Are the best and most productive employees likely to be

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Answer: The most costly to employ.

Q27: In the CIPD Recruitment, Retention, and Turnover survey (2009) the estimated costs of recruitment for a single employee was

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Answer: £4,000

Q28: Too great a reliance on internal recruitment can result in

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Answer: Reduced job performance

Q29: What strategies deployed by HR for attracting potential candidates to apply for vacancies might be seen to result in indirect discrimination

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Answer: Word of mouth

Q30: According to O’Leary et al (2002) the most important property of the assessment instruments used to measure or assess applicants against set criteria is their ability to predict what

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Answer: Future job performance

Q31: The employment contract provides a set of rights, responsibilities and obligations that structure the behaviour of whom

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Answer: Both parties

Q32: What did the Whitely Councils establish? Was it

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Answer: Collective bargaining framework

Q33: Substantive rules are those which determine

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Answer: Rates of pay and how levels are determined

Q34: Are employers who believe in a unitary perspective on employment relations likely to

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Answer: Exhibit a degree of hostility to unions

Q35: What % of membership does a trade union have to demonstrate amongst the group it is wishing to represent before it can apply to the Central Arbitration Committee (CAC)

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Answer: 0%

Q36: If a local collective agreement on pay and conditions is in place, who benefits

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Answer: All employees regardless of union membership who are in the grade of work covered by the agreement.

Q37: Apart from pay what is the second most common reason for employees to join a trade union

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Answer: Wide range of personal benefits

Q38: In organizing industrial action a Union is encouraging its members to break their contractual obligation to attend work. Is this action

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Answer: Protected by union immunity

Q39: What are the types of industrial action a union is most likely to engage in

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Answer: Action short of a strike

Q40: The psychological contract refers to the obligations that an employer and an employee perceive to exist between each other as part of the employment relationship. As such it will include

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Answer: The loyalty and trust of employees

Q41: How does the concept of indulgency help us understand some of the complexities of employee rule breaking

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Answer: Where managers condone or ignore behaviour that breaches formal rules they can give such behaviour a degree of legitimacy which is limited to that informal context.

Q42: The purpose and function of discipline in contemporary organizations seems at odds with developments in contemporary management thinking with its emphasis on

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Answer: Commitment

Q43: Why is ‘procedural justice’ important in the context of the management of misconduct

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Answer: To ensure that individuals have a sense that they have been treated fairly.

Q44: What does discipline mean in the context of the workplace

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Answer: A system of rules designed to improve and correct behaviour through teaching or training

Q45: Why can altruism as an approach to discipline be regarded as an essential element

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Answer: It is an essential requirement for survival

Q46: What might be the reason for why HR are not often informed of incidents that could result in a disciplinary action being taken

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Answer: Those involved often agree to contain the incident.

Q47: Which organization provides established guidelines for disciplinary procedures

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Answer: ACAS

Q48: What is the meaning of the term ‘gross misconduct’ in the context of a company’s disciplinary procedures

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Answer: Breaches of standards and rules that are serious and unacceptable in any circumstances

Q49: Most formal grievances raised in the workplace are related to –

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Answer: Harrassment and bullying by managers

Q50: Is it important to have two managers responsible for leading a disciplinary investigation because

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Answer: It ensures a degree of impartiality

Q51: Which aspect of employment is fairness in the management of HR linked to

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Answer: All aspects of HR

Q52: What expresses the commitment management have made to embrace the concepts of equality and diversity

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Answer: An ‘equal opportunity employer’

Q53: An equal opportunities approach to fairness at work is essentially about

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Answer: Compliance and maintaining minimum standards

Q54: A stereotype is a fixed idea or misconception about an individual or group of people. The basis of stereotyping is

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Answer: Seeing people as a group with similar characteristics rather than recognising differences between people

Q55: The first elements in the legal framework for equal opportunities legislation were introduced in

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Answer: The 1970s

Q56: Circumstances in which discrimination can be justified include

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Answer: Where a person is employed to provide authenticity such as employing a black person to play a black role in a play.

Q57: Which of the following is an unreasonable adjustment in light of a person’s disability

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Answer: Paying them more

Q58: Approximately what % of the UK working population is classified as disabled

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Answer: One in 5 people of working age

Q59: The CIPD survey of 2005 found that the impact of poor work-life balance affecting performance was perceived by what % of employees

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Answer: 1%

Q60: Which of the following is the main reason for why harassment and bullying need to be taken seriously at work

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Answer: It can lead to impairment of an employee’s physical and/or mental health.

Q61: IHRM is an area of academic study which focuses on

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Answer: The policies and practices of MNC’s

Q62: HR challenges which might be faced by internal companies include

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Answer: The relative underdevelopment of HR functions.

Q63: A global economy means

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Answer: Greater convergence of national economic and social identities

Q64: Often the reason why expatriate assignments fail and why some immigrants and migrant workers in the UK find difficulty in assimilating into the British way of life is because of

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Answer: Cultural differences

Q65: Hofstede’s five variables: power distance; individualism, masculinity /femininity; uncertainty avoidance and long term versus short term orientation; were terms used to describe

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Answer: National differences

Q66: Cultural shock which is often the outcome of the negative experience of moving from a familiar culture to one that is unfamiliar is important to understand in the context of internationalization because

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Answer: It can impact on individuals taking overseas assignments.

Q67: Key to successful management of HR processes is the ability to

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Answer: Identify key skills and competencies required for working overseas

Q68: Paul Sparrow (2006) in work commissioned by the CIPD found

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Answer: Successful overseas assignment are more a matter of luck than judgement.

Q69: Research into the developing HR functions in Asian businesses suggest that they

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Answer: They display a different HR mindset; one which is more creative, business focused and dynamic.

Q70: In the end of chapter case study, doing business with people from different cultural backgrounds depends a great deal on –

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Answer: Earning their trust and acceptance by building strong relationships based on mutual respect

Q71: What was the traditional term used for HRP and the one often associated with personnel management

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Answer: Manpower planning

Q72: Human resource planning (HRP) is not simply about meeting the demand for labour but also involves

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Answer: Costs associated with employing any given number of people

Q73: What % of payroll costs did Bob Cotton the chief executive of the British hospitality Association estimate as a result of the increase in the statutory number of holidays from 20 days to 28 days

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Answer: 0.04%

Q74: There is, however, a degree of choice in the way in which job cuts and employment losses are implemented, and making the right choice can minimize the consequences of job losses, preserve the reputation of the employer and maintain good employee relations. Who would in the main be responsible for making such decisions

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Answer: HR specialists

Q75: Why is it important to ensure that HR plans are flexible

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Answer: To accommodate the rapidly changing environments in which most organizations operate.

Q76: The prevalent approach to planning an organization’s human resources in the 1970s and 1980s is seen, in retrospect, as having been overly prescriptive and inflexible (bin Idris and Eldridge, 1998). Why

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Answer: Because it was overly quantitative in direction

Q77: What is the estimated cost to the UK businesses of days lost due to sickness

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Answer: £13.4bn

Q78: The Bradford absence index is useful because it

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Answer: Gives weightings to the frequency of absence

Q79: 2004 absence surveys – average recorded days absence per employee per year in public and private sectors demonstrates that

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Answer: Public sector employees take more absence than those in the private sector.

Q80: ‘Vitality’ is a method of measuring

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Answer: The balance of internal promotions versus external recruitment or loss of employees.

Q81: What factor can have a lasting impairment on a person’s motivation to learn

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Answer: A negative experience of learning in childhood

Q82: Criticisms of training are based on the understanding that

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Answer: The nature of work has changed and therefore its unsuitable for the type of employees engagedandIt is challenging method of learning

Q83: Research carried out by the Adult Learning Inspectorate and published in its 2004-05 report (Scott, 2005) provides evidence of

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Answer: Widespread improvements in training

Q84: Training is more likely to be seen as a cost by those organisations employing what type of worker

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Answer: Industries employing low skilled workers

Q85: Structured learning refers to learning that is

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Answer: Planned and associated with specific outcomes

Q86: According to Masie (www.masie.com) e-learning is about

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Answer: Experience

Q87: The Kolb learning cycle refers to

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Answer: Insights into the way that people learn

Q88: Unplanned and unstructured (informal) learning can be detrimental to employers because

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Answer: It can encouraged bad habits and negative attitudes

Q89: Accelerated learning offers the participant

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Answer: An alternative experience to traditional approaches

Q90: The three types of energy: cognitive, affective and physical are associated with which type of learning

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Answer: Accelerated learning

Q91: Performance management should be seen as a process which is a

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Answer: Ongoing process or cycle

Q92: What will make some organizations more successful, and therefore more likely to survive and prosper, than others

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Answer: Creating management systems to ensure high performance from everyone

Q93: Many schemes that reward employees and managers for something additional to their normal level of performance fail. Why

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Answer: The link between extra pay and achievement is unclear

Q94: As little as 20% of all human performance problems is attributable to individual employees; as much as 80% of all such problems is attributable to the work environments or systems in which employees work. An example of such problems would be

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Answer: Because of barriers created to reduce performance

Q95: The timescale for performance appraisals are usually

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Answer: One year

Q96: A performance rating system is

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Answer: A grade or score relating to overall performance

Q97: Objective-based rating scales are

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Answer: Measures of performance against objectives set

Q98: To be effective a points based rating systems require

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Answer: Comprehensive, reliable and consistent information

Q99: Key performance indicators are used in situations when

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Answer: When objectives can be established which are supportive or secondary to the organizations central objectives.

Q100: 360°ree; feedback involves appraisals by

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Answer: Anyone who is directly in contact with the appraisee