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Q1: Which of the following is not an example of a behavioural variable

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Answer: Personality.

Q2: ACORN, a segmentation analysis technique, stands for which of the following

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Answer: A Classification of Residential Neighbourhoods.

Q3: The family life cycle

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Answer: refers to the process of family formation and dissolution.

Q4: Psychographic segmentation is based on

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Answer: grouping people according to their activities, interests, and opinions.

Q5: Segmentation by benefits sought is a type of product-related segmentation

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Answer: that focuses on the attributes that people seek in a product.

Q6: To segment business-to-business markets, organizational characteristics, such as organizational size and location, are taken into consideration. These sometimes are referred to as___

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Answer: firmographics

Q7: ___are used to identify and categorize all types of industries and businesses

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Answer: Standard industrial classifications (SIC code)

Q8: Before beginning the market segmentation process, a firm should

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Answer: identify bases for segmenting markets.

Q9: The purpose of evaluating the attractiveness of the differing market segments identified in the second stage of the market segmentation process is to

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Answer: evaluate the market potential within each segment.

Q10: A key benefit of the STP process is

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Answer: All of the above

Q11: The process of market segmentation is strongly related to which other marketing concept

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Answer: Product differentiation.

Q12: Much segmentation theory has been developed during the period of which approach to marketing

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Answer: Transactional approach.

Q13: ___are used in the positioning process to illustrate differing attributes of a selection of brands

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Answer: Perceptual maps.

Q14: Which of the following is the investigation of the hedonic consumption of products

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Answer: Experiential consumption.

Q15: In marketing, the term product

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Answer: is a broad concept that refers to anything that can be offered for use and consumption, in exchange for money or some other form of value

Q16: This gives added value to products in an attempt to augment their products with values and associations that are recognized by and are meaningful to their customers

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Answer: Brand.

Q17: The___consists of the physical good or delivered service that provides the expected benefit. It consists of many factors, for example the features and capabilities, the durability, design, packaging, and brand name

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Answer: embodied products

Q18: This is a term used to refer to the process when a successful brand is used to launch a new product into a new market

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Answer: Brand extension.

Q19: Brands are capable of triggering associations in the minds of consumers. These associations may sometimes enable consumers to construe___meaning associated with a particular brand

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Answer: psychosocial

Q20: This is the process by which two established brands work together, either on one product or service

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Answer: Co-branding.

Q21: Once referred to as a multiproduct brand policy,___requires that all the products use the organization’s name, either entirely or in part

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Answer: family branding.

Q22: The identities and images developed by the wholesalers, distributors, dealers, and retailers who make up the marketing channel. This is referred to as

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Answer: own-label brand

Q23: A process by which manufacturers and retailers help customers to differentiate between various offerings in a market. This is called

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Answer: branding

Q24: This is a group of people in the process of diffusion who enjoy being at the leading edge of innovation and buy into new products at an early stage

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Answer: Early adopter.

Q25: These are brands sold without any promotional materials or any means of identifying the company

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Answer: Generic brands.

Q26: This is a commercial process whereby the trademark of an established brand is used by another organization over a defined period of time, in a defined area, in return for a fee, to develop another brand

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Answer: Licensing.

Q27: These are brands created and sustained by producers who seek widespread awareness and distribution because there is high demand for these brands

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Answer: Manufacturer brands.

Q28: Offerings move through a sequential, pre-determined pattern of development similar to the biological path that life forms follow. This is the concept of

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Answer: product life cycle

Q29: Which of the following is NOT a service innovation strategy

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Answer: branded service innovation

Q30: ___is concerned with value creation generated through novel or unusual service concepts

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Answer: Radical service innovation.

Q31: At the highest end of innovation maturity, firms seek to integrate the services dimension as part of their total offer. This is known as

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Answer: servitization

Q32: Which of the following is a stage in the new product development process, undertaken when a new product is tested with a sample of customers, or is launched in a specified geographical area, to judge customers’ reactions prior to a national launch

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Answer: Test marketing.

Q33: This group, which forms 34% of the market, is more risk-averse and requires reassurance that the offering works and has been proven in the market. This is referred to as

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Answer: early majority

Q34: Which of the following is the rate at which a market adopts an innovation

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Answer: Process of diffusion.

Q35: In marketing terms,___refers to what we get for what we pay

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Answer: Value.

Q36: ___act as cues by indicating to a potential customer that there is a bargain to be had

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Answer: Sale signs.

Q37: ___vary according to the number of units of goods made or services sold

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Answer: Variable costs

Q38: These are costs which do not vary according to the number of units of product made or service sold

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Answer: Fixed costs.

Q39: Mobile phone manufacturers offer monthly price packages with international call packages, and text message packages bundled in with different types of account, and these bundles are also available independently. This is called

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Answer: Mixed price bundling.

Q40: The two dominant approaches to pricing new propositions are

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Answer: the market skimming pricing and the market penetration pricing method.

Q41: This is the amount the customer has to pay to receive a good or service

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Answer: Price.

Q42: Companies reduce the price of a good or service on the basis that a customer is prepared to commit either to buying a large volume of that good or service now or in the future or paying for it within a specified time period. This is referred to as:

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Answer: Discount pricing

Q43: Prices are determined on the basis of customers’ locations. This is referred to as

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Answer: Geographical pricing

Q44: This approach is often used for fast-moving consumer goods and consumer durables items, where the new product introduced is not demonstrably different from existing formulations available

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Answer: market penetration

Q45: This is the price band that customers judge the purchase price of goods and services against in their own minds

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Answer: Reference price.

Q46: When customers assess prices, they estimate value using___, because they do not always know the true cost and price of the item that they are purchasing

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Answer: Pricing cues.

Q47: This is when a product or service is offered together with another typically complementary product or service, which is not available separately, in order to make the original product or service seem more attractive

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Answer: Pure price bundling.

Q48: This typically occurs in large organizations, and represents the pricing approach used when one unit of a company sells to another unit within the same company

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Answer: Transfer pricing.

Q49: The pricing approach where prices are set based on what competitors are charging is called the

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Answer: competitor-oriented approach.

Q50: The pricing approach where prices are set based on what customers believe to offer value is called the

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Answer: value-oriented approach.

Q51: Which of the following are aimed at providing customers with the peace of mind of knowing that the company they are purchasing from is competitive in price

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Answer: Price guarantee schemes.

Q52: When varying prices are set for different groups of customers, this is called

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Answer: segmentation pricing

Q53: Which of the following terms best fits the activity of marketing communications

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Answer: Communication between stakeholders.

Q54: The marketing communications strategy of the marketing mix deals exclusively with

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Answer: personal selling, advertising, sales promotion, and public relations.

Q55: This model is similar to the two-step model, but in this interpretation the parties are seen to interact among themselves. Communication flows among all the members in what is regarded as a communication network. This is known as

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Answer: the Interaction Model of Communication

Q56: AIDA stands for awareness,___, desire and___

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Answer: interest; action

Q57: Marketing communications is used to achieve one of two principal goals. The first concerns the development of brand values. What is the other goal

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Answer: Changing the behaviour of target audiences.

Q58: This is a series of economic transactions between parties, who have a long-term orientation towards, and are primarily motivated by, concern for each other

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Answer: Collaborative exchanges.

Q59: The role of marketing communications is to engage audiences and there are four main tasks that it can be used to complete. Which of the following is not part of the four main tasks

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Answer: Participate.

Q60: ___is an important element in the communication process. It recognizes that successful communications are more likely to be achieved if the source and the receiver understand each other

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Answer: The realm of understanding

Q61: This is part of the communication process where receivers unpack the various components of the message, and begin to make sense and give the message meaning

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Answer: Decoding.

Q62: This is a part of the communication process where the sender selects a combination of appropriate words, pictures, symbols and music to represent a message to be transmitted

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Answer: Encoding.

Q63: This is part of the communication process and refers to the responses offered by receivers

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Answer: Feedback.

Q64: ___is concerned with the development of knowledge that is specific to the parties involved and is referred to as ‘learning together’

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Answer: Dialogue

Q65: They are not part of the same peer group as the people they influence. Their defining characteristic is that they exert personal influence because of their profession, authority, education, or status associated with the object of the communication process. This is referred to as

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Answer: Opinion formers.

Q66: The success of marketing communication depends upon the extent to which messages engage their audiences. These audiences can be seen to fall into three main groups

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Answer: Customers, channel members, and general stakeholders.

Q67: Which of the following is the interpersonal communication about products or services where a receiver regards the communicator as impartial and is not attempting to sell products or services

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Answer: Word of Mouth (WOM).

Q68: This is a form of non-personal communication, by an identified sponsor, that is transmitted through the use of paid-for media

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Answer: Advertising.

Q69: ___is very effective at delivering messages to target audiences as it allows for explanation in a way that most other media cannot

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Answer: Print

Q70: ___is content that is created by general users, not producers, although this begs the Question about who is the producer

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Answer: User-generated content

Q71: Rather than trawl all relevant web pages to find new content and updates,___allows for specific content to be brought together and made available to an individual without themalways having to return to numerous sites

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Answer: RSS

Q72: Users are able to create content and become more involved with a brand through

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Answer: Online communities.

Q73: This includes advertisements that contain ‘call-to-response’ mechanisms such as telephone numbers, website addresses, email and postal addresses

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Answer: Direct response advertising.

Q74: These are events when groups of sellers meet collectively with the key purpose of attracting buyers

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Answer: Exhibitions.

Q75: This is a marketing communications activity concerned with providing support for the sales force and merchandising personnel

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Answer: Field marketing.

Q76: This is a systematic process involving a series of procedures and activities that lead to the setting of marketing communication objectives and the formulation of plans for achieving them

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Answer: Marketing communication planning.

Q77: Which of the following is not an element of the Marketing Communication Planning Framework (MCPF)

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Answer: Mission.

Q78: This term encompasses the five key communication tools used by organizations to reach consumers and other organizations with product and organization-based messages. The tools covered are advertising, sales promotions, public relations, direct marketing and personal selling

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Answer: Marketing communications mix.

Q79: ___is used to influence the way an organization is perceived by various groups of stakeholders

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Answer: Public relations.

Q80: What type of media helps advertisers demonstrate the benefits of using a particular product and can bring life and energy to an advertiser’s message

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Answer: Broadcast media.

Q81: What type of media has the primary objective to get the attention of shoppers and to stimulate them to make a purchase? (Examples include point-of-purchase displays and packaging.)

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Answer: In-store media.

Q82: ___is about how you can place the optimum amount of goods and/or services before the maximum number of your target market at the times and locations they want

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Answer: Distribution

Q83: Management of distribution channels concerns two key elements: (1) managing the design of the channel and its activities, and (2)___

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Answer: managing the relationship of members in the channel

Q84: The practice of cutting inventories to absolute minimum levels and requiring vendors to deliver the items as they are needed in the production process is known as

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Answer: Just-in-time (JIT).

Q85: These are stores designed to kill off the competition and are characterized by narrow but very deep product assortment, low prices and few to moderate customer services

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Answer: Category killer stores

Q86: This is where one channel member perceives another channel member to be acting in a way that prevents the first member from achieving its distribution activities

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Answer: Channel conflict.

Q87: Which type of shop offers a range of grocery and household items that cater for last-minute purchase needs of consumers

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Answer: Convenience stores.

Q88: This is about maximising the amount of contact and value for the customer

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Answer: Coverage.

Q89: This means achieving the optimum distribution costs without losing decision-making authority over the product offering and the way it is marketed and supported

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Answer: Control.

Q90: Which type of retailer involves comparatively low prices as a major selling point combined with the reduced costs of doing business

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Answer: Discount retailers.

Q91: What channel structure is it where the product goes directly from the producer to the final customer

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Answer: Direct.

Q92: This is where intermediaries are given exclusive rights to market the good or service within a defined ‘territory’, and thus you use a very limited number of intermediaries

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Answer: Exclusive.

Q93: McDonald’s and KFC are good examples of

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Answer: Franchising.

Q94: This channel structure is where some products go directly from producer to customers and others go through intermediaries

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Answer: Hybrid.

Q95: Which of the following means placing your product or service in as many outlets or locations as possible, in order to maximise the opportunity for customers to find the good or service

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Answer: Intensive distribution.

Q96: This is where the manufacturing, purchasing and consumption can occur at differing points in time

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Answer: Time utility.

Q97: These sell directly to end consumers and may purchase directly from manufacturers and/or deal with wholesalers

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Answer: Retailers.

Q98: These store goods for moderate to long periods

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Answer: Storage warehouses.

Q99: An organized network of agencies and organizations that perform all the activities required to link producers and manufacturers with purchasers and consumers is referred to as

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Answer: Distribution channel.

Q100: Retailing activities resulting in transactions that occur away from a fixed store location are referred to as

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Answer: Non-store retailers.
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