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Q1: Attack the market and defend the position are the prime strategies pursued by a firm with___positioning

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Answer: market leader

Q2: A commonly used basis for segmenting consumer markets is

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Answer: demographics.

Q3: Which of the following are the three broad groups of organizational characteristics segmentation criteria

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Answer: Organizational size, industry type and geographical location.

Q4: Which of the following is not a useful base for segmenting organizational characteristics

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Answer: By turnover.

Q5: Organizational characteristics, such as organizational size and location, sometimes referred to as___

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Answer: Firmographics

Q6: ___is about matching market opportunities to the organization’s resources (what it can do) and objectives (what management wants to do)

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Answer: Marketing strategy

Q7: ___regard their overseas activities as a complex process of coordination and cooperation. The environment is regarded as one where decision-making is shared in a participatory manner

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Answer: Transnational organizations

Q8: The domestic market (home market) is the most important, with foreign markets not seen as representing a serious threat. This is referred to as a/an

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Answer: ethnocentric approach.

Q9: Based on European organizations classifications’, these organizations have a strong European base, but now operate in a range of different world markets, either through direct investment, joint venture, or on an exporting basis. This is referred to as

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Answer: world-scale.

Q10: The ‘process by which the experience of everyday life is becoming standardized around the world’ through the free flow of four major components: goods and services, people, capital, and information is referred to as

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Answer: globalization.

Q11: Which of the following is not the drivers of international market development

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Answer: Sanction trade policy.

Q12: With a___, a firm produces standardized products to be sold the same way all over the world

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Answer: standardized orientation approach

Q13: Starbucks uses the same green and black logo on its paper cups and sells the same concept all around the world. This is an example of

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Answer: standardization orientation approach.

Q14: Standardization orientation approach

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Answer: operates on the belief that global culture is converging, or that the cultural differences are superficial.

Q15: Central to any society is a common set of values shared by its citizens that determine what is socially acceptable. Marketers refer to these values collectively as a country’s

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Answer: culture.

Q16: In 2005, Norwich Union (now Aviva) relocated customer calls for insurance claims back to the UK following a sequence of misunderstandings about flooding from immersion heaters. Local operators in India struggled to understand the claim as they didn’t understand the heating systems. The___environment had the greatest influence on this situation

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Answer: cultural

Q17: ___refers to the extent that customers can be reached with marketing communications and through distribution, sales outlets. Media availability, industry infrastructure, channel networks, and local cultural norms can all limit or hinder market access

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Answer: Market access

Q18: Which of the following is an important cultural factor that should be considered by marketers seeking international development

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Answer: Language.

Q19: For four years, Google censored search results, in the hope of becoming the number one search engine in China. As a foreign organization Google was expected to operate under the laws of the country, China. This is a good example of a/an

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Answer: political-legal factor.

Q20: A/an___is a limit on the amount of a specific product that can enter a country

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Answer: quota

Q21: Which method of entering the global marketplace involves the manufacturing firm itself distributing its product offering to foreign markets, direct to customers

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Answer: Direct exporting.

Q22: KFC has some 15,000-plus KFC restaurants in over 109 countries world wide and more than 2,870 KFC restaurants in more than 650 cities in China alone. Which method of entering the global marketplace does KFC use

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Answer: Franchising.

Q23: Disney sells the rights for an investment company to run a Disneyland theme park in Tokyo. The investment company gains most of the profits from the enterprise while paying Disney a percentage in royalties. This is an example of

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Answer: licensing.

Q24: ___are situations in which the domestic firm assumes an equity position (partial ownership) in a foreign firm to manufacture and/or market the domestic company’s goods

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Answer: Joint ventures

Q25: ___involves some form of manufacture or production in the foreign or host country

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Answer: A direct investment

Q26: In marketing, the term proposition

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Answer: is a broad concept that encompasses the satisfaction of consumer needs.

Q27: ___are products that consumers had not planned to buy but are persuaded at the very last minute to pick up and put in their trolley or basket

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Answer: Impulse products

Q28: ___are products, other than raw materials, that are necessary to ensure that the organization can continue functioning

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Answer: Maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) goods

Q29: Buildings, heavy plant and factory equipment necessary to build or assemble products are examples of

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Answer: capital equipment goods.

Q30: This is the process in which offerings move through a sequential, pre-determined pattern of development similar to the biological path that lifeforms follow

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Answer: Product lifecycle.

Q31: These are non-durable goods or services, often bought with little pre-purchase thought or consideration

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Answer: Convenience products.

Q32: ___reflect a purchaser’s high level of involvement in the purchase decision. There is high perceived risk in these decisions so consumers spend a great deal of time, care, and energy searching, formulating, and making the final decision

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Answer: Durable goods

Q33: These goods are bought infrequently, used repeatedly and involve a reasonably high level of consumer risk

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Answer: Durable goods.

Q34: An important characteristic of services is that they are produced and consumed by people, simultaneously, as a single event. This is referred to as

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Answer: variability.

Q35: Services cannot be owned as nothing is transferred during the interaction or delivery experience. This is referred to as

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Answer: lack of ownership.

Q36: In the___stage in the adoption process, consumers become aware of the new proposition. They have little information and have yet to develop any particular attitudes towards the product. Indeed, at this stage consumers are not interested in finding out any more information

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Answer: adoption

Q37: These goods are low-priced products that are bought frequently, are used just once and which incur low levels of purchase risk

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Answer: Non-durable.

Q38: Which of the following is a type of consumer product bought relatively infrequently and which requires consumers to update their knowledge prior to purchase

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Answer: Shopping product.

Q39: Which of the following are bought very infrequently, are very expensive and represent very high risk

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Answer: Speciality products.

Q40: Which of the following is a form of purchase behaviour that occurs when consumers have suitable product and purchase experience and where they perceive low risk

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Answer: Routinized Response Behaviour.

Q41: This is the cost of plant, equipment and machinery owned by a business

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Answer: Fixed capital.

Q42: This is when a product or service is offered together with an offering to make the price look more reasonable

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Answer: Pure price bundling.

Q43: This business-to-business pricing approach seeks to understand customers’ needs before pricing the offering according to those needs in order to generate a long-term relationship. This is referred to as

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Answer: Relationship pricing.

Q44: ___occurs when companies temporarily reduce their prices below the standard price for a period of time to raise awareness of the offering to encourage trial, and raise short-term brand awareness

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Answer: Promotional pricing

Q45: This allows us to determine how the quantity of an offering relates to the price at which it is offered

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Answer: Price elasticity.

Q46: This occurs when a company charges more than governments perceive is fair for products and/or services; typically by taking advantage of demand where customers/consumers are reliant on a particular product/service

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Answer: Price gouging.

Q47: This pricing approach is used when the firm sets prices according to how much customers are prepared to pay

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Answer: Demand-oriented approach.

Q48: ___is influenced by perceptions of the fairness of prices set, latitude of price acceptance (customers appear willing to accept a price within a range of prices suggesting a ‘price zone of tolerance’), magnitude (absolute price) and frequency of purchase, price presentation (how prices are presented might produce different levels of willingness to pay) and advertising

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Answer: Willingness to pay

Q49: When customers assess prices, they estimate value using___, because they do not always know the true cost and price of the item that they are purchasing. These pricing cues include: sale signs; odd-number pricing; the purchase context; and price bundling and rebates

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Answer: Pricing cues

Q50: Marketers highlight their prices to customers by bundling other products and services into an offering to make the price look more reasonable. For example, magazines frequently bundle gifts in with the magazine to make it appear more attractive

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Answer: Pure price bundling.

Q51: Segmentation pricing is where varying prices are set for different groups of customers. Economists call this approach

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Answer: Price discrimination.

Q52: Which of the following occurs when competitors’ pricing policies are almost exclusively focused on competitors rather than customers

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Answer: Price wars.

Q53: Organizations plan, design, implement, and evaluate their marketing communication activities. These activities involve the delivery of messages either to or with target audiences, through various communication tools and media. This is known as

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Answer: campaigns.

Q54: This approach has been used to convey particular information and help educate large target audiences through television and radio programmes. This approach is referred to as

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Answer: Opinion leaders.

Q55: Each organization is part of a network of other organizations such as suppliers, retailers, wholesalers, value added resellers, distributors, and other retailers, who join together, often freely, to make the product or service available to end users. This is referred to as

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Answer: Channel members.

Q56: Which of the following is the communication model that depicts information flowing via various media channels, to particular types of people to whom other members of the audience refer for information and guidance

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Answer: Two-step.

Q57: The use of entertainment material delivered through paid or owned media and which features a single company or brand is referred to as

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Answer: Branded content

Q58: Media materials that are placed inside magazines or direct mail letters are referred to as

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Answer: Inserts.

Q59: A commercial activity, whereby one party permits another an opportunity to exploit an association with a target audience in return for funds, services, or resources is referred to as

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Answer: Sponsorship.

Q60: This is a marketing communication tool that uses non-personal media to create and sustain a personal and intermediary free communication with customers, potential customers and other significant stakeholders

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Answer: Direct marketing.

Q61: ___is also a form of sponsorship and represents a relationship between film/TV producers and managers of brands. Through this arrangement, brand managers are able, for a fee, to present their brands ‘naturally’ within a film or entertainment event. Such placement is designed to increase brand awareness, develop positive brand attitudes, and possibly lead to purchase activity

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Answer: Brand placement

Q62: This is the use of inter-personal communications with the aim of developing positive feelings and stimulating behaviour

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Answer: Personal selling.

Q63: This is the unpaid peer-to-peer communication of often provocative content originating from an identified sponsor using the Internet to persuade or influence an audience to pass along the content to others

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Answer: Viral marketing.

Q64: A means of orchestrating the tools of the marketing communications mix, so that audiences perceive a single, consistent, unified message whenever they have contact with a brand, is referred to as

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Answer: Integrated Marketing Communications (IMC).

Q65: These are chains of organizations that are concerned with the management of the processes and activities involved in creating and moving products from producers and manufacturers to end-user customers. The organizations involved with any one journey, are collectively termed as a

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Answer: Distribution

Q66: Electronic kiosk is one form of

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Answer: non-store retailing.

Q67: This is where the perception on the part of a channel member that its goal attainment is being impeded by another, with stress or tension the result

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Answer: Channel conflict.

Q68: This is about maximizing the offering’s availability in the market for the customer

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Answer: Coverage.

Q69: This means achieving the optimum distribution costs without losing decision-making authority over over the offering, how it is priced, promoted, and delivered in the distribution channel

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Answer: Control.

Q70: Which of the following refers to the unauthorized sale of new, branded products diverted from authorized distribution channels or imported into a country for sale without the consent or knowledge of the manufacturer

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Answer: Grey marketing.

Q71: Supply chain management (SCM) embraces four main activities. Which of the following is NOT one of the activities

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Answer: Customer services.

Q72: Which of the following means placing your product or service in as many outlets or locations as possible, in order to maximize the opportunity for customers to find the good or service

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Answer: Intensive distribution.

Q73: Collectively organisations that combine to enable offerings to reach end users quickly and efficiently constitute a marketing channel, sometimes are referred to as a

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Answer: Distribution channel.

Q74: ___provide information about content, taste, durability, quality, price, and performance, without requiring the buyer to undertake time-consuming comparison tests with similar offerings or other risk reduction approaches to purchase decisions

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Answer: Brand names

Q75: This cluster of B2B customers requires messages that emphasise the support of a well-established and highly reputable manufacturer, the emotional and self-expressive benefits should be stressed

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Answer: The brand receptive

Q76: With this type of brand scope, positioning, identity, image, distinguishing characteristics including attributes, associations, and identifiers of the brand virtually identical to the home market. This is referred to as

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Answer: international brand.

Q77: A measure of the value and strength of a brand, including an assessment of a brand’s wealth is known as

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Answer: brand equity.

Q78: ___need to encompass relationship issues and to ensure that the way a customer relates to a brand, including the meanings they assign, offers opportunities for cross-selling customers into other products and services in an organization’s portfolio

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Answer: Brand strategies

Q79: Brand name, marketing communications, packaging, price are examples of___that enable consumers to form associations that give meaning to the brand

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Answer: Extrinsic attributes

Q80: Many brands are deliberately imbued with human characteristics, to the point that they are identified as having particular personalities. This is referred to as

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Answer: brand personalities.

Q81: Cadbury brand is a good example of

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Answer: manufacturer brand.

Q82: The identities and images are developed by the wholesalers, distributors, dealers, and retailers who make up the marketing channel. This is referred to as

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Answer: distributor brand.

Q83: Many retail brands adopt a single umbrella brand, based on the name of the organization. This is referred to as

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Answer: corporate brands.

Q84: This branding policy requires that all the products use the organization’s name, either entirely or in part, e.g. Microsoft, Heinz, and Kellogg’s

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Answer: Family branding

Q85: ___is a strategic activity and is used to differentiate and distinguish a brand, so that a consumer understands the brand, not just remembers it

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Answer: Brand positioning

Q86: This level of rebranding refers to the renaming of a whole corporate entity, often signifying a major strategic change or repositioning. This is known as

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Answer: corporate rebranding.

Q87: ___are a way of capitalizing on the recognition, goodwill, and any positive associations of an established brand, and using the name to lever the brand into a new market

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Answer: Brand extensions

Q88: In return for a fee, one company permits another to use its trademark to promote other offerings over a defined period of time, in a defined area. This is known as

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Answer: brand licensing.

Q89: When two established brands work together, on an offering to generate increased consumer appeal and attraction is called

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Answer: co-branding.

Q90: Which of the following is not branding benefits specific to B2B context

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Answer: ethical advantages

Q91: ___brand is sold across multiple country markets, and managed through decentralized management with local control

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Answer: Multidomestic

Q92: Which of the following is not one of the core elements to develop business brands

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Answer: Services

Q93: Which of the following is not associated with brand equity

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Answer: Brand heritage

Q94: ___is determined by maximising the benefits they can achieve and by reducing or minimising the sacrifices associated with an offering

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Answer: Value

Q95: Value is created by the activities of buyers and sellers working together for mutual benefit, but value is still passed from one to another.This is referred to as

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Answer: performance-value.

Q96: People have to physically present themselves so that they become immersed within the service process. This type of service process is referred to as

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Answer: People processing.

Q97: This is when customers visit the service facility so that they are personally involved throughout the service delivery process

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Answer: high-contact services.

Q98: A framework categorizes different services, which, in turn, influence the degree to which market offerings can be evaluated, and three main properties are identified

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Answer: search, experience, and credence properties.

Q99: ___is based on the idea that customer expectations of the service they will receive shape their perception of the actual service encounter

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Answer: Service quality

Q100: A disconfirmation model and is based on the difference between the expected services and the actual perceived service is called

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Answer: SERVQUAL