Generic selectors
Exact matches only
Search in title
Search in content
Search in posts
Search in pages
Filter by Categories
nmims post
Objective Type Set
Online MCQ Assignment
Question Solution
Solved Question
Uncategorized

## Machine Design MCQ Set 1

1. ______ is the speed at which the metal is removed by the tool from the work piece.
a) feed
b) cutting speed
c) depth of cut
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] It can be easily understood by looking at the definition of the cutting speed. Cutting speed is a peripheral speed of the work.

2. Which of the following represents the formula for cutting speed? cs =cutting speed, D= diameter of work, N= rpm.
a) cs = (3.14*D*N)
b) cs = (D*N)
c) cs = (3.14*D)/N
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Cs = (3.14*D*N) – This is the formula for finding the cutting speed.

3. Which of the following represent the unit of cutting speed?
a) meter*minute
b) meter*meter*minute
c) meter / minute
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] In cutting speed’s formula, d-diameter expressed in meter and n is rpm – revolution per minute. By putting this units in cutting speed’s formula, we can easily obtain its unit as meter/minute.

4. _____ is the distance the tool advances for each revolution of the work.
a) feed
b) depth of cut
c) metal removal rate
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] The feed of a cutting tool in a lathe work is the distance the tool advances for each revolution of the work. Increased feed reduces the cutting time.

5. Which of the following is the unit of the feed?
a) mm / minute
b) mm / revolution
c) mm * minute
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Mm / revolution is the right unit for feed. In British system it is expressed in inches per revolution.

6. The depth of cut is the_____ distance measured from the machined surface to the surface of the work piece, which is uncut.
a) parallel
b) perpendicular
c) at 45 degree
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] It is the perpendicular distance measured from the machined surface to the surface of the work piece, which is uncut. Other factors remaining constant, the depth of cut varies inversely as the cutting speed.

7. Which of the following represents the formula for the depth of cut? d1=diameter of work surface before machining and d2=diameter of the machined surface
a) d1+d2
b) d1-d2
c) (d1+d2)/2
d) (d1-d2)/2

Answer: d [Reason:] (D1-d2) – this is the formula for depth of cut. Here both d1 and d2 are diameters and expressed in mm.

8. Which of the following represents the formula for metal removal rate?
a=cutting speed, b=depth of cut, c=feed, d=revolution
a) (a*b*d)/c
b) (a*b)/(c*d)
c) (a*b*c)/d
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] (a*b*c)/d – This is the right formula for metal removal rate. Here a is expressed in mm/minute, b is expressed in mm, c is expressed in mm/revolution and d is simply revolution.

9. Which of the following represents the unit of metal removal rate?
a) mm/revolution
b) mm*mm/revolution
c) mm*mm*mm/revolution
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Mm*mm*mm / revolution is the right unit for the metal removal rate. If we put the units of cutting speed, depth of cut and feed in formula we can easily get this result.

10. Which of the following represents the unit for machining time?
a) mm / minute
b) minute / revolution
c) minute
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Machining time is simply a time so its unit must be matched with time’s unit. Minute is the right unit for machining time.

11. Which of the following represents the formula for the machining time? s=feed of the job per revolution, l=length of the job, n=rpm.
a) l / (s*n)
b) (s*n) / l
c) (l*s) / n
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Length of the job / (feed of the job per revolution*rpm) is the right for machining time. Also we can cross check the formula. Put the unit of each quantity and check in which formula we can get unit as a time’s unit.

12. For general purposes, ratio of the depth of cut to the feed varies from_____
a) 10:1
b) 1:10
c) 100:1
d) 1:100

Answer: a [Reason:] The ratio varies from 10:1. The depth of cut varies inversely as the cutting speed.

## Machine Design MCQ Set 2

1. Given the total pressure is 2 atm. Also the partial pressure of the two components in an ideal solution is 1 atm and 0.5 atm. It shows __________ deviation.
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] If the total pressure is greater than sum of partial pressure then it shows positive deviation.

2. If the vapour pressure of the two components in a binary mixture is same, then it is a________
a) Isotope
b) Azeotrope
c) Differential boiling point
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Azeotrope is a mixture with same boiling point.

3. Minimum boiling azeotrope has_________
a) Large positive deviation
b) Less positive deviation
c) Large negative deviation
d) Less negative deviation

Answer: a [Reason:] The difference of vapour pressure is large it shows large positive deviation.

4. Alternative word of Azeotrope is Differential-boiling point.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] Azeotrope is a constant boiling mixture since it component has the same boiling point.

5. Express the point A a) Vapour pressure of the high volatile component
b) Vapour pressure of the low volatile component
c) Pure component B
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Since there is a low vapour pressure at the point A, it the representation of low volatile component.

6. Negative deviation is due to total pressure less than the pressure obtained from Hendry’s law.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] Because the total pressure should be less than the pressure obtained from Rauolt’s law.

7. Azeotropic composition can be eliminated by
a) Changing pressure
b) Changing temperature
c) Changing volume
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] As by changing the vapour pressure we can avoid the azeotropic composition because the Azeotrope formation is due to same vapour pressure of the components.

8. When the two liquid mixtures are completely insoluble then the total pressure of the mixture is
a) Sum of the vapour pressure
b) Sum of the partial pressure
c) Pressure cannot be determined
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] If the mixture is soluble the partial pressure comes to the part .No liquid exist without pressure. Therefore, the pressure of the mixture can be determined by the sum of its vapour pressure as this concept is mostly useful for stream distillation.

9. Consider an insoluble mixture A and B; Find the Total pressure of the system
Vapour pressure of A= 50mmHg
Vapour pressure of B= 100 mmHg
a) 50 mmHg
b) 100 mmHg
c) 150 mmHg
d) 200 mmHg

Answer: c [Reason:] For an insoluble mixture, total pressure = sum of vapour pressure.

10. Ordinary distillation cannot separate Azeotrope.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] For same vapour pressure (Azeotrope), it is not possible to separate by ordinary distillation for that we need azeotropic or extractive distillation.

## Machine Design MCQ Set 3

1. In simple gear, the intermediate gear has no effect on the ratio between the driver and the driven.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a [Reason:] This is true. The intermediate gear has no effect on the ratio between the driver and the driven, but merely acts as a connection between the two and serves to keep the rotation of the driver and driven in the same direction.

2. The gear connections on a lathe______
a) always compound
b) always simple
c) may be simple or compound
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] The gear connection on a lathe may be simple or compound depends upon the requirement. It is versatile.

3. The gear on the stud shaft acts as a _____
a) driver
b) driven
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] The gear on the stud shaft act as a driver. It can be considered as spindle gear as usually it runs at the same spindle speed.

4. Which of the following is also known as Norton gearbox?
a) simple gear train
b) compound gear train
c) quick change type of gearbox
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Quick change type of gearbox is also known as Norton gearbox. It covers all the ratio of screw cutting and feed rate likely to be wanted.

5. In Norton gearbox, gear changing is effected by the movement of_____ levers.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

Answer: b [Reason:] Gear changing is affected by the movements of two levers as well as a sliding gear. This eliminates the need to remove and change the gears as in the standard change gearbox.

6. Teeth on driven gear / teeth on driver gear =_______ T.P.I on lead screw=a, T.P.I. on work piece=b.
a) a/b
b) b/a
c) a*b
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] (b/a) – This is the suitable ratio for threads where T.P.I on lead screw=a, T.P.I. on work piece=b. If the units of workpiece and leadscrew threads are different, in that case the gears are calculated as follows: 1 inch = 25.4 mm.

7. Driver gear/driven gear =______ pitch of work piece threads=a, pitch of lead screw =b.
a) a/b
b) b/a
c) a*b
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the suitable ratio. In British it will be equal to (a/b)*(5/127).

8. Lead screw pitch=6mm, work piece pitch=1mm. Find change gears.
a) 6
b) 1/6
c) 3
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Change gear=work piece pitch/lead screw pitch. From this formula, we can easily get 1/6 as a answer.

9. Change gear=2, lead screw pitch = 8. Find work piece pitch.
a) 4
b) 16
c) 2
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Change gear=work piece pitch/lead screw pitch. So, work piece pitch = change gear*lead screw pitch = 2*8 = 16

10. In a compound train, the stud carriers______ gears.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: b [Reason:] The stud carriers two gears. The gear on the stud shaft act as a driver.

## Machine Design MCQ Set 4

1. The flutes are provided for removal of chips.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the property of it. There is a sharp blade which is there along with edge of the flute known as teeth.

2. Which of the following is most commonly used?
a) single flute drill
b) two flute drill
c) three or four flute drill
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Two flute drill is commonly used because it is very versatile and has wide applications.

3. Which of the following is rarely used?
a) single flute drill
b) two flute drill
c) three or four flute drill
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Single flute drill is rarely used as it has very limited applications.

4. Single flute drill is ______
a) very light
b) very rigid
c) can’t say anything
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] It is very rigid that’s the reason why it has very small applications.

5. Which of the following is the example of single flute drill?
a) deep hole drill
b) crank shaft hole drill
c) both deep hole drill and crank shaft hole drill
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Both are examples of single flute drill. Deep hole drilling is used with large length and comparatively small diameter of drill. Crank shaft hole drill has also wide applications.

6. Which of the following is also known as slot drill?
a) single flute drill
b) two flute drill
c) three or four flute drill
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c [Reason:] Generally 3 or 4 flute drill is also known as slot drill. Slot drill is a double cutting drill with flat end. It has two radial cutting edges.

7. Gun drill is the example of______
a) single flute drill
b) two flute drill
c) three or four flute drill
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] It can be easily understood from the classification. Gun drill is a fluted drill. These are used deep drilling.

8. Sometimes soft drills are used to reduce the load path tooth.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the application of soft drill. It is not used for heavy purpose. It is used mostly to reduce the load path tooth.

9. Slot drills are used for making holes with flat ends.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the application of slot drill. It consists of two radial edges.

10. Flutes are the spiral groove, which run to the length of the drill.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a [Reason:] This is the property of flute.The flute allows us to remove material from the metal.

## Machine Design MCQ Set 5

1. The Enriching section operating line intercept at origin in McCabe-Thiele method when
a) Reflux ratio = Zero
b) Reflux ratio= Infinity
c) Reflux ratio= One
d) Reflux ratio= 1.5 to 2 times Reflux minimum

Answer: b [Reason:] When the Enriching section operating line intercept at origin then the operating line will become the diagonal line (45 degree line) that means all the condenser product are refluxed( No distillate). i.e. Reflux ratio =(R/D) if D=0 then reflux ratio tends to infinity that gives minimum number of trays for designing the distillation column.

2. If the feed enters the distillation column at its dew point, then the slope of the Flash vaporization operating line is
a) Infinity
b) 0
c) 1
d) Between 0 and 1

Answer: b [Reason:] If the feed at dew point means the feed condition is saturated vapour so the enthalpy of feed is same as the enthalpy of the vapour. Therefore the slope of the Q-line is 0. Since Q-line is the Flash vaporization operating line.

3. If there is no reflux to a fractionating column then
a) Large condenser size is needed
b) Less reboiler size needed
c) Minimum number of trays
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Because if there is no reflux stream to the continuous distillation column then the entire vapour product after condensed from the condenser becomes a distillate but practically it is no possible but as per the theory in order to get all the vapour as distillate the condenser must be so large which is economically cost more.

4. After leaving the condenser if the liquid is at bubble point then which of the following is correct?
a) Same concentration of distillate and reflux
b) Different concentration of distillate and reflux
c) No latent heat is removed
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Since the latent heats are alone removed by the condenser so the concentration of liquid entering the condenser and the concentration leaving the condenser are same.

5. McCabe –Thiele method excludes ________ information.
a) Entropy
b) Enthalpy
c) Flow rate
d) Number of theoretical stages

Answer: b [Reason:] Ponchon-Savarit method alone includes enthalpy concentration data.

6. Non-equimolal flow rates are maintained in the fractionator obeying McCabe-Thiele method.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] According to McCabe’s assumptions only equimolal flow rates of both liquid and gas are maintained.

7. Heat losses are avoided in McCabe-Thiele method.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] According to the assumptions of McCabe-Thiele method the heat losses are avoided.

8. Find the point P in this enriching section. a) Xd/R-1
b) Xd/R+1
c) R/Xd-1
d) R/Xd+1
Where, Xd- concentration of distillate and R- reflux ratio

Answer: b [Reason:] Since the intercept obtained from the derivation for McCabe method is Xd/R+1.

9. The slope of the operating line of the enriching section is R/R+1.
a) True
b) False
Where, R- reflux ratio

Answer: a [Reason:] Since the slope obtained from the derivation for McCabe method is R/R+1.

10. Find the slope of the operating line of the top section of Fractionator if Reflux ratio is 2.
Hint: use McCabe Thiele method is applicable
a) 0.57
b) 0.67
c) 0.77
d) 0.87

Answer: b [Reason:] Slope =R/R+1 = 2/3 = 0.67

11. Look the below figure and find the possibility of measurement. a) Maximum number of trays
b) Minimum number of trays
c) Single stage
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] the operating line meets the 45 degree diagonal line we can determine the minimum number of trays because there is no reflux.

12. Find the location of condenser from the figure below. a) P
b) R
c) S
d) No condenser

Answer: a [Reason:] Condenser always present in the top near the distillate.

13. In order to find the total number of theoretical trays we usually add one stage additional for ___________
a) Condenser
b) Reboiler
c) Condenser or Reboiler
d) No additional trays

Answer: c [Reason:] It is necessary to include condenser or reboiler since the separation may occurs in such locations.

## Machine Design MCQ Set 6

1. In a shaper_____ movement of the drive is converted into _____ movement.
a) rotary, reciprocating
b) reciprocating, rotary
c) rotary, rotary
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Rotary movement of the drive is converted into reciprocating movement.Rotary motion is something like wheel turning and reciprocating motion means back and forth linear mtioon.

2. The size of a shaper is given by the maximum stroke length of the ram in mm.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the property of shaper. Here the ram is the reciprocating member of the shaper.

3. The usual size of shaper varies from _____ mm.
a) 75 to 90
b) 175 to 900
c) 25 to 60
d) 125 to 600

Answer: b [Reason:] The usual size of shaper ranges from 175 mm to 900 mm basede upon its application and working.

4. The change of the movement of the drive is done by the mechanism contained within the _____ of the machine.
a) crossrail
b) column
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] It is the function of column. Column is a part of shaper which is mounted on the base.

5. The ram holding the tool gets _____ movement.
a) rotary
b) reciprocating
c) both rotary and reciprocating
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] It gets reciprocating movement.Rotary motion is something like wheel turning and reciprocating motion means back and forth linear mtioon.

6. In a standard shaper, the metal is removed in_____ stroke.
a) forward
b) return
c) both forward and return
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] The metal is removed in forward stroke because only in forward stroke the useful work is done.

7. To reduce the total cutting time, the standard shaper is designed to complete forward stroke______
a) slowly
b) faster
c) at moderate speed
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the desired property for standard shaper because only in forward stroke the useful work is done. So it should be slower than return stroke.

8. To reduce the total cutting time, the standard shaper is designed to complete return stroke______
a) slowly
b) faster
c) at moderate speed
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] In return stroke no useful work is done so to reduce cutting time it is advisable to complete the return stroke as fast as possible.

9. Quick return mechanism and reciprocating movement of the ram is obtained in _____ mechanism.
a) crank and slotted link mechanism
b) whithworth quick return mechanism
c) hydraulic shaper mechanism
d) all of the mentioned