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## Interview MCQ Set 1

1. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=117F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 2?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 135
d) 145

Answer: c [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=135F.

2. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=150F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 2.3?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 135
d) 150

Answer: d [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=150F.

3. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=100F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 1.61?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 130
d) 145

Answer: c [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=130F.

4. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=100F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 1.32?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 133
d) 145

Answer: c [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=133F.

5. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=120F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 2.56?
a) 100
b) 130
c) 135
d) 145

Answer: b [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=130F.

6. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=117F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 0.77?
a) 180
b) 190
c) 165
d) 145

Answer: a [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=180F.

7. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=140F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 2.39?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 135
d) 150

Answer: d [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=150F.

8. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=117F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 3.09?
a) 100
b) 120
c) 135
d) 145

Answer: d [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=145F.

9. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=117F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 1.14?
a) 175
b) 180
c) 189
d) 187

Answer: a [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=175F.

10. For a direct heat dryer,
Dry bulb temperature Tgi=250F
Wet bulb temperature is Tv=117F
What is the value of outlet temperature if NT is 1.92?
a) 156
b) 158
c) 166
d) 189

Answer: a [Reason:] Since NT=ln(Tgi-Tv/Tgo-Tv), hence Tgo=156F.

## Interview MCQ Set 2

1. Which type of degradation process is found in live microorganisms?
a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids

Answer: a [Reason:] The type of degradation process in live microorganisms is destruction of cell membranes and the result is denaturation of proteins and death of cells.

2. Which type of degradation process is found in lipids?
a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids

Answer: b [Reason:] The type of degradation process in lipids is peroxidation of lipids and its result is reaction with other components including proteins and vitamins.

3. Which type of degradation process is found in vitamins?
a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids

Answer: d [Reason:] The type of degradation process in lipids is derivation of some amino acids and its result is partial inactivation.

4. Which type of degradation process is found in polymer carbohydrates?
a) Destruction of cell membranes
b) Preoxidation of lipids
c) Gelatination of starch
d) Derivation of some amino acids

Answer: c [Reason:] The type of degradation process in polymer carbohydrates is Gelatination of starch and its result is improved digestibility and energy utilization.

5. Which type of dryer is used for byproduct pyruvic acid?
a) Fluidized bed dryer
b) Spray dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) No dryer

Answer: a [Reason:] For pyruvic acid, fluidized bed dryer is used and feed is wet cake from rotary vacuum filter.

6. Which type of dryer is used for byproduct riboflavin also called as vitamin B2?
a) Fluidized bed dryer
b) Spray dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) No dryer

Answer: b [Reason:] For vitamin B2, spray dryer is used and feed is solution from a decanter.

7. Which type of dryer is used for recombinant human insulin?
a) Fluidized bed dryer
b) Spray dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) No dryer

Answer: c [Reason:] For recombinant human insulin, freeze dryer is used and feed is wet cake from a basket centrifuge.

8. Which type of dryer is used for byproduct plasmid DNA which parasitic DNA?
a) Fluidized bed dryer
b) Spray dryer
c) Freeze dryer
d) No dryer

Answer: d [Reason:] For plasmid DNA, No dryer is used and the product is a PBS solution.

9. What is the result of cross linking reaction between amino acids in proteins?
a) Loss of color and flavors
b) Change in functionality of proteins
c) Partial denaturation, loss of nutritive value
d) Death of cells

Answer: b [Reason:] The result of cross linking reaction between amino acids in proteins is change in functionality of proteins.

10. What is the result of physical changes in simple sugars?
a) Loss of color and flavors
b) Change in functionality of proteins
c) Partial denaturation, loss of nutritive value
d) Death of cells

Answer: a [Reason:] The result of physical changes in simple sugars as a result of caramelization is loss of flavor and color.

## Interview MCQ Set 3

1. What principle is used in electrodialysis?
a) Magnetic field and permeable membranes
b) Electric field and cation selective membranes
c) Electric fields and anion selective membranes
d) Electric fields and ion selective membranes

Answer: d [Reason:] An electric field and ion selective membranes is used for separating an electrolyte feed in an dilute and concentrated desalted water.

2. How is the arrangement of electrodialysis?
a) 2 membranes arranged in alternating series pattern
b) 4 membranes arranged in alternating series pattern
c) 2 membranes arranged in simultaneous manner
d) 4 membranes arranged back to back

Answer: b [Reason:] The electrodialysis consists of 4 membranes of which two are of same type arranged in alternating series pattern.

3. Why are the elctrodes in electrodialysis neither oxidized nor reduced?
a) Because they act as catalyst
b) Because they are chemically inert
c) Because no acid is present
d) There is no acid-base reaction involved in the process

Answer: b [Reason:] The electrodes in electrodialysis are chemically inert with the anode being typically stainless steel. So the electrodes are neither oxidized nor reduced.

4. What is true about electrodialysis?
a) Most easily oxidizable species is oxidized at anode
b) Most easily reducible species is oxidized at cathode
c) Most easily oxidizable species is reduced at anode
d) The species don’t get oxidized or reduced since the electrodes are inert.

Answer: a [Reason:] The most easily oxidizable species are oxidized at anode and most easily reducible species are reduced at anode.

5. Why is the electrode rinse solution acidic?
a) To avoid the corrosion of electrodes
b) To avoid the formation of salts
c) To neutralize the OH- ions
d) To make the electrodes acidic

Answer: c [Reason:] The electrode rinse solution is acidic to neutralize the OH- ions and to precipitate Mg(OH)2 .

6. What is the total area of all cell pairs if:
Volumetric flow rate(Q) = 1
Difference between feed and diluate ion concentration is Δc=10
Current density is i=10
Current efficiency is e=0.8
a) 1.125F
b) 1.5F
c) 2F
d) 3F

Answer: a [Reason:] Since Am = FQΔc/ie, Am= 1*10*F/10*8 = 1.125F.

7. What is the total area of all cell pairs if:
Volumetric flow rate(Q) = 2
Difference between feed and diluate ion concentration is Δc=10
Current density is i=10
Current efficiency is e=0.5
a) 1.125F
b) 1.5F
c) 2F
d) 4F

Answer: d [Reason:] Since Am = FQΔc/ie, Am= 2*10*F/10*0.5 = 1.125F.

8. What is the total area of all cell pairs if:
Volumetric flow rate(Q) = 1
Difference between feed and diluate ion concentration is Δc=20
Current density is i=10
Current efficiency is e=0.6
a) 1.125F
b) 1.33F
c) 0.33F
d) 0.44F

Answer: b [Reason:] Since Am = FQΔc/ie, Am= 1*20*F/10*0.6 = 1.33F.

9. What is the total area of all cell pairs if:
Volumetric flow rate(Q) = 1
Difference between feed and diluate ion concentration is Δc=18
Current density is i=10
Current efficiency is e=0.9
a) 1.125F
b) 1.5F
c) 2F
d) 3F

Answer: c [Reason:] Since Am = FQΔc/ie, Am= 1*18*F/10*0.9 = 2F.

10. What is the total area of all cell pairs if:
Volumetric flow rate(Q) = 5
Difference between feed and diluate ion concentration is Δc=15
Current density is i=10
Current efficiency is e=0.75
a) 12.5F
b) 10F
c) 2F
d) 23F

Answer: b [Reason:] Since Am = FQΔc/ie, Am= 5*15*F/10*0.75 = 10F.

## Interview MCQ Set 4

1. Which technique separates charged particles using electric field?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Electrophoresis
c) Protein synthesis
d) Protein denaturing

Answer: b [Reason:] Electrophoresis is the technique that separates charged particles using electric field.

2. Electrophoresis was developed by:
a) Tswett
b) Tsvedberg
c) Tiselius
d) Sanger

Answer: c [Reason:] Tiselius developed the electrophoresis technique.

3. The speed of migration of ions in electric field depends upon:
a) Shape and size of molecule
b) Magnitude of charge and shape of molecule
c) Magnitude of charge shape and mass of molecule
d) Magnitude of charge and mass of molecule

Answer: b [Reason:] The speed will only depend on charge and shape. More the charge more will be the speed.

4. Which of the following statements is true about migration of biomolecules?
a) The rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of medium
b) Rate of migration is directly proportional to current
c) Low voltage is used for separation of high mass molecules
d) Rate of migration is inversely proportional to current

Answer: b [Reason:] More the current passing more will be the migration. Hence there is a direct proportion.

5. What does the electrophoresis apparatus consist of?
a) Gel, buffer chamber and fire pack
b) Buffer chamber and electrophoresis unit
c) Electrophoresis unit and gel separator
d) Power pack and electrophoresis unit

Answer: d [Reason:] The apparatus consists of power pack and electrophoresis unit.

6. If proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility then the type of electrophoresis is:
a) SDS PAGE
b) Affinity Electrophoresis
c) Electro focusing
d) Free flow electrophoresis

Answer: a [Reason:] In the technique of SDS page, the proteins are separated according to their electrophoretic mobility.

7. The electrophoretic mobility denoted as µ is mathematically expressed as:
a) VE
b) E/V
c) 1/EV
d) V/E

Answer: d [Reason:] v/E is the formula for electrophoretic mobility which is the ratio of velocity of the biomolecule in the electric field and it’s intensity.

8. Which of the following factors does not influence electrophoretic mobility?
a) Molecular weight
b) Shape of molecule
c) Size of molecule
d) Stereochemistry of molecule

Answer: d [Reason:] The stereochemistry of molecule won’t have any effect on electrophoretic mobility since it is dependent on velocity and intensity and not allighnment.

9. When is electrophoresis not used?
a) Separation of proteins
b) Separation of amino acids
c) Separation of Lipids
d) Separation of nucleic acids

Answer: c [Reason:] Electrophoresis cannot be used in separation of lipids.

10. What cannot be a reason for using electrophoresis?
a) Comparing two sets of DNA
b) Organizing DNA by shape of backbone
c) Organizing DNA fragments from largest to smallest
d) Organizing DNA in order we can see

Answer: b [Reason:] Electrophoresis cannot arrange molecules on shape of backbone.

## Interview MCQ Set 5

1. What is activated carbon?
a) Microcrystalline graphite form of carbon
b) Nanocrystalline graphite form of carbon
c) Mircocrystalline non-graphite form of carbon
d) Nanocrystalline non-graphite form of carbon

Answer: a [Reason:] Activated carbon is microcrystalline graphite form of carbon.

2. Activated carbon has ________ character.
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Hydrophillic
d) Hydrophobic

Answer: c [Reason:] Activated carbon has a considerable hydrophilic character.

3. What is the commercial use of activated carbon?
a) Removal of organic pollutants from aqueous effluents
b) Production of N2 from air
c) Drying of air and other gases
d) Separation os molecules based on size and shape

Answer: a [Reason:] Activated carbon is used for r Removal of organic pollutants from aqueous effluents.

4. What is the commercial use of carbon molecular sieve?
a) Removal of organic pollutants from aqueous effluents
b) Production of N2 from air
c) Drying of air and other gases
d) Separation of molecules based on size and shape

Answer: b [Reason:] Carbon molecular sieve is used for drying of air and other gases.

5. What is the commercial use of zeolite molecular sieves?
a) Removal of organic pollutants from aqueous effluents
b) Production of N2 from air
c) Drying of air and other gases
d) Separation of molecules based on size and shape

Answer: d [Reason:] Zeolite molecular sieves are used for separation of molecules based on size and shape.

6. What is the commercial use of silica gel?
a) Removal of organic pollutants from aqueous effluents
b) Production of N2 from air
c) Drying of air and other gases
d) Separation of molecules based on size and shape

Answer: c [Reason:] Silica gel are used for Drying of air and other gases.

7. What is the commercial use of silicallite?
a) Removal of organic pollutants from aqueous effluents
b) Production of N2 from air
c) Removal of organics from gas streams
d) Drying of gas streams

Answer: c [Reason:] Silicallite is commercially used for removal of organics from gas streams.

8. What is the strength of activated carbon?
c) Can be regenerated by burning more easily
d) Less prone to fouling

9. What is the strength of carbon molecular sieves?
c) Can be regenerated by burning more easily
d) Less prone to fouling