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## Interview MCQ Set 1

1. Interference is caused by?
a) Overlapping of tooth profiles
b) Large size of dedendum
c) Meshing of involute and no-involute profiles
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] In some cases, portion of tooth below base circle is not involute due to large dedendum. This leads to overlapping of involute portion of teeth with the non-involute portion of the teeth.

2. Interference can be removed by under cutting.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] Undercutting removes the interfering portion of the tooth.

3. Interference is maximum when the largest pinion is in mesh with the smallest gear.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] It is maximum when smallest pinion is in mesh with the largest gear.

4. Undercutting is consider healthy for the tooth as it eliminates undercutting.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] Although it eliminates undercutting but it also weakens the strength of the tooth and removes a small involute portion near to the base circle.

5. Backlash is defined as
a) Difference in the width of tooth space and engaging tooth thickness
b) Amount by which engaging tooth thickness exceeds the tooth space
c) Other name for interference
d) None of the listed

Answer: a [Reason:] Backlash is the amount by which tooth space exceeds the engaging tooth thickness.

6. The amount of backlash depends on
a) Diameteral pitch
b) Module
c) Centre distance
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] Module and diameteral pitch are the same thing, and centre distance is also a factor while deciding the magnitude of the backlash.

7. The two teeth have thickness t₁ and t₂. If backlash of t₁ is greater than that of t₂, than
a) t₁ > t₂
b) t₁ < t₂
c) t₁ = t₂
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Backlash=Tooth space-tooth thickness, greater the backlash lower is the tooth thickness.

8. Answer the following questions with respect to the following questions
A gear train consist of spur gear as shown. Gear A receives 4kW of power at 750rpm through its shaft and rotates in CW direction. 8. Calculate the torque on the gear A.
a) 51N-m
b) 48N-m
c) 46N-m
d) 44N-m

Answer: a [Reason:] M=60×10⁶x4/2πx750.

9. Calculate the torque on the gear B.
a) 47N-m
b) 51N-m
c) 0
d) Infinity

Answer:c [Reason:] Gear B is an idler gear and thus transmits no torque.

10. A gear train consist of spur gear as shown. Gear A receives 4kW of power at 750rpm through its shaft and rotates in CW direction. Calculate the torque on the gear C if number of teeth on gear A, B and C are 40, 70 and 30.
a) 66N-m
b) 68N-m
c) 53N-m
d) 45N-m

Answer: b [Reason:] M(a)xN(a)=M(c)xN(c) as the power transmitted is same.

11. Calculate the tangential gear tooth force. Module of the gear is 5mm.
a) 510N
b) 526N
c) 544N
d) None of the listed

Answer: a [Reason:] P=2M/d or P=2×51/5×40.

A planetary gear train is shown in the figure. Number of teeth on the sun gear A, planet gear B and fixed ring gear D are given by 30, 70 and 140 respectively. Module is taken as 5mm 12. Calculate the length of the arm C.
a) Missing data
b) 250mm
c) 330mm
d) 240mm

Answer: b [Reason:] L=[Da+Db]/2 where da=5×30 and Db=5×70.

13. Calculate the tangential component of gear tooth force.
a) 220.6N
b) 303.2N
c) 454.7N
d) 633.2N

Answer: c [Reason:] P=2M/5×30 where M=60×10⁶x(kW)/2πN.

14. A pair of spur gears consist of 25 teeth pinion meshing with a 115 teeth gear. The module is 5mm. Calculate the gear ratio.
a) 5
b) 4.6
c) 5.2
d) 4

Answer: b [Reason:] i=115/25.

15. Calculate the shaft angle for opposite hand of helix if helix angle of two gears are 20⁰ and 17⁰.
a) 17⁰
b) 20⁰
c) 37⁰
d) 3⁰

Answer: d [Reason:] For same hand of helix, shaft angle=difference of helix angles of two gears.

## Interview MCQ Set 2

1. If f(x)=x7+x5+x4+x3+x+1 and g(x)=x3+x+1, find f(x) x g(x).
a) x12+x5+x3+x2+x+1
b) x10+x4+1
c) x10+x4+x+1
d) x7+x5+x+1

Answer: c [Reason:] Perform Modular Multiplication.

2. If f(x)=x7+x5+x4+x3+x+1 and g(x)=x3+x+1, find the quotient of f(x) / g(x).
a) x4+x3+1
b) x4+1
c) x5+x3+x+1
d) x3+x2

Answer: b [Reason:] Perform Modular Division.

3. Primitive Polynomial is also called a ____
i) Perfect Polynomial
ii) Prime Polynomial
iii) Irreducible Polynomial
iv) Imperfect Polynomial

a) ii) and iii)
b) only iii)
c) iv) and ii)
d) None

Answer: a [Reason:] Irreducible polynomial is also called a prime polynomial or primitive polynomial.

4. Which of the following are irreducible polynomials?
i) X4+X3
ii) 1
iii) X2+1
iv) X4+X+1

a) i) and ii)
b) only iv)
c) ii) iii) and iv)
d) All of the options

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the mentioned are irreducible polynomials.

5. The polynomial f(x)=x3+x+1 is a reducible.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] f(x)=x3+x+1 is irreducible.

6. Find the HCF/GCD of x6+x5+x4+x3+x2+x+1 and x4+x2+x+1.
a) x4+x3+x2+1
b) x3+x2+1
c) x2+1
d) x3+x2+1

Answer: b [Reason:] Use Euclidean Algorithm and find the GCD. GCD = x3+x2+1.

7. On multiplying (x5 + x2 + x) by (x7 + x4 + x3 + x2 + x) in GF(28) with irreducible polynomial (x8 + x4 + x3 + x + 1) we get
a) x12+x7+x2
b) x5+x3+x3
c) x5+x3+x2+x
d) x5+x3+x2+x+1

Answer: d [Reason:] Multiplication gives us (x12 + x7 + x2) mod (x8 + x4 + x3 + x + 1). Reducing this via modular division gives us, (x5+x3+x2+x+1)

8. On multiplying (x6+x4+x2+x+1) by (x7+x+1) in GF(28) with irreducible polynomial (x8 + x4 + x3 + x + 1) we get
a) x7+x6+ x3+x2+1
b) x6+x5+ x2+x+1
c) x7+x6+1
d) x7+x6+x+1

Answer: c [Reason:] Multiply and Obtain the modulus we get the polynomial product as x7+x6+1.

9. Find the inverse of (x2 + 1) modulo (x4 + x + 1).
a) x4+ x3+x+1
b) x3+x+1
c) x3+ x2+x
d) x2+x

Answer: b [Reason:] 10. Find the inverse of (x5) modulo (x8+x4 +x3+ x + 1).
a) x5+ x4+ x3+x+1
b) x5+ x4+ x3
c) x5+ x4+ x3+1
d) x4+ x3+x+1

Answer: c [Reason:] Finding the inverse with respect to (x8+x4 +x3+ x + 1) we get x5+ x4+ x3+1 as the inverse.

## Interview MCQ Set 3

1. The ball mill can be best used for which kind of feed?
a) Wet and Dry
b) Coarse and Fine
c) Rocks and Bricks
d) Any kind of feed

Answer: a [Reason:] The ball mill can be used wet or dry grinding facilities the removal of the product, this is the best feed that can be utilized with ball mill.

2. What is the ratio of length to diameter of tube mill?
a) 4:1
b) 3
c) Both 3 and 4:1
d) 1:2

Answer: c [Reason:] The tube mill is similar to ball mill in the construction and operation and the ratio of length to diameter is 3 or 4:1.

3. Which of the following forces act on the tumbling mill?
a) Tangential force
b) Centrifugal force
c) Circular force
d) Gravitational force

Answer: b [Reason:] Centrifugal forces keeps the ball in contact with the ball mill and with each other during the upward movement.

4. Which of the following is true, when operating speed is less than critical speed?
a) No grinding
b) Effective grinding
c) Best grinding
d) Bold grinding

Answer: a [Reason:] The speed at which the centrifuging occurs is called as the critical speed and little or no grinding tales place during this phase.

5. What is the angle of nip for ball mill?
a) 4π2n2 (R-d)/g
b) 4π2n2 (R+d)/g
c) 4π2n2 (R-r)/g
d) 4π2n2 (R-n)/g

Answer: c [Reason:] The angle of nip for a ball mill cos α is defined as 4π2n2 (R-r)/g, Where n is the speed of the rotation of the ball mill.

6. At critical speed, α = 0 and cos α = 1, what is critical speed?
a) n = nc
b) 2π = nc
c) g = nc
d) gn= nc

Answer: a [Reason:] The critical speed is given when the n i.e. the natural number of revolutions becomes the critical point and critical speed nc.

7. What does the below equation represent? a) Natural speed
b) Full speed
c) Optimum speed
d) Critical speed

Answer: d [Reason:] The equation represents critical speed where, g is the gravitational constant and R and r are the radius of ball and the ball mill.

8. What is percentage of tumbling mill speed?
a) 80 to 100%
b) 65 to 80%
c) 50 to 90%
d) 10 to 50%

Answer: b [Reason:] Tumbling mill runs at 65 and 80 percent of the critical speed, with lower values for wet grinding as well as dry tumbling.

9. Which of the following uses shearing action?
a) Buhrstone mill
b) Tumbling mill
c) Rod mill
d) Ball mill

Answer: a [Reason:] Size reduction take place by the shearing action, it consists two heavy horizontal wheels placed over one and another.

10. What is the feed size for a buhrstone mill?
a) Size of peat
b) Size of rock
c) Size of grain
d) Any size

Answer: c [Reason:] The buhrstone mill has a feed size of a grain, while the product ranges from 200 to 400 mesh and is mainly used for making flour.

## Interview MCQ Set 4

1. Activation value is associated with?
a) potential at synapses
b) cell membrane potential
c) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Cell membrane potential determines the activation value in neural nets.

2. In activation dynamics is output function bounded?
a) yes
b) no

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the nature of output function in activation dynamics.

3. What’s the actual reason behind the boundedness of the output function in activation dynamics?
a) limited neural fluid
b) limited fan in capacity of inputs
c) both limited neural fluid & fan in capacity
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] It is due to the limited current carrying capacity of cell membrane.

4. What is noise saturation dilemma?
a) at saturation state neuron will stop working, while biologically it’s not feasible
b) how can a neuron with limited operating range be made sensitive to nearly unlimited range of inputs
c) can be either way
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Threshold value setting has to be adjusted properly.

5. Broadly how many kinds of stability can be defined in neural networks?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 2
d) 4

Answer: c [Reason:] There exist broadly structural & global stability in neural.

6. What is structural stability?
a) when both synaptic & activation dynamics are simultaneously used & are in equilibrium
b) when only synaptic dynamics in equilibrium
c) when only synaptic dynamics in equilibrium
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] Refers to state equilibrium situation where small perturbations brings network back to equilibrium.

7. What is global stability?
a) when both synaptic & activation dynamics are simultaneously used & are in equilibrium
b) when only synaptic & activation dynamics are used
c) when only synaptic dynamics in equilibrium
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Global stability means neuron as a whole is stable.

8. Which models belongs to main subcategory of activation models?
a) additive & subtractive activation models
b) additive & shunting activation models
c) subtractive & shunting activation models
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b [Reason:] Additive & shunting activation models are the most basic category of activation models.

9.What is the assumption of perkels model, if f(x) is the output function in additive activation model?
a) f(x)=x
b) f(x)=x2
c) f(x)=x3
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] Perkels model assumes output function to be linear.

10. Who proposed the shunting activation model?
a) rosenblatt
b) hopfield
c) perkel
d) grossberg

Answer: d [Reason:] Grossberg proposed the model in 1982.

11. What was the goal of shunting activation model?
a) to make system dynamic
b) to keep operating range of activation value to a specified range
c) to make system static
d) can be either for dynamic or static, depending on inputs

Answer: b [Reason:] Stabilizing & bounding the unbounded range of activation value was the primary goal of this model.

## Interview MCQ Set 5

1. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge pipes
a) nonpoint sources of pollution
b) violations of the Clean Water Act
c) point sources of pollution
d) irrigation

Answer: c [Reason:] Point sources of pollution are the examples of Municipal & industrial discharge pipes.

2. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate
a) contamination by human wastes
b) phosphorus contamination
c) decreased biological oxygen demand
d) hydrocarbon contamination

Answer: a [Reason:] The presence of high coli-form counts in water indicate contamination by human wastes.

3. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic matter in water?
a) the oxygen demand increases
b) the oxygen demand decreases
c) the oxygen demand remains unchanged
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a [Reason:] With the increased presence of organic matter in water, the oxygen demand increases.

4. Which of the following is a major source of groundwater contamination?
a) agricultural products
b) landfills
c) septic tanks
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] All of the mentioned options are major sources of groundwater contamination.

5. Which of the following is considered as part of water use planning?
a) waste water treatment
b) water diversion projects
c) storm sewer drainage
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d [Reason:] All the mentioned issues come under water use planning.

6. The stage in which the biological processes are used to purify water in a wastewater treatment plants is called
a) secondary sewage treatment
b) primary sewage treatment
c) wastewater reduction
d) biochemical reduction

Answer: a [Reason:] The stage in which the biological processes are used to purify water in a wastewater treatment plants is called Secondary Sewage Treatment.

7. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into
a) increase in the salinity of groundwater
b) decrease in the toxicity of groundwater
c) decrease in the salinity of groundwater
d) increase in the water table

Answer: a [Reason:] Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into an increase in the salinity of groundwater.

8. Which of the following is not an important characteristic of the Green Revolution?
a) mechanized agriculture
b) hybrid seeds
c) slash and burn
d) monoculture

Answer: c [Reason:] Slash & Burn isn’t an important characteristic of the Green Revolution.

9. The three primary soil macronutrients are
a) carbon, oxygen and water
b) copper, cadmium and carbon
c) potassium, phosphorus and nitrogen
d) boron, zinc and manganese