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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. How many types of aerators are commonly used in the treatment of wastewater?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] There are 4 types of aerators namely Gravity aerators, Spray aerators, Diffusers and Mechanical aerators.

2. Organic contaminants are removed from the wastewater by
a) Water softening
b) Demineralization
c) Absorption
d) Adsorption

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Organic contaminants are removed from the wastewater by the attraction and accumulation of one substance on the surface of another.

3. By which process, odor producing substances is oxidized?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] By addition of chlorine dioxide to wastewater, odor producing substances is oxidized.

4. Which of the following process is used to remove the colloidal particles from the effluent?
a) Chemical precipitation
b) Chemical coagulation
c) Ion exchange
d) Adsorption

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Chemical coagulation is used to remove colloidal particles by the use of coagulants which increase the particle size and they settle down.

5. In which form of solute stabilization, hydrogen sulfide in effluent is oxidized into sulfate?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] By the process of chlorination, effluent gets stabilized by the conversion of hydrogen sulfide into sulfate.

6. In which unit operation, gases are released or absorbed in the effluent?
a) Gas transfer
b) Ion transfer
c) Solute stabilization
d) Solids Transfer

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In Gas transfer, gases are released or absorbed in the effluent by exposing the wastewater through aeration under normal, increased or reduced pressure.

7. In which process, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] By Re-carbonation of water softened by excess lime treatment, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate.

8. Flocculation of iron from water by addition of lime is an example of which of the following process?
a) Chemical precipitation
b) Chemical coagulation
c) Ion exchange
d) Adsorption

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Chemical precipitation removes the dissolved substance from the effluent through ion transfer where precipitation of dissolved impurities takes place.

9. Which form of solute stabilization occurs when effluent passes through limestone?
a) Chlorination
b) Liming
c) Re-carbonation
d) Super-chlorination

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] When effluent passes through limestone, carbon dioxide in excess get converted into soluble bicarbonate.

10. Solids are removed from the wastewater by which of the following unit operation?
a) Inter facial contact
b) Solid stabilization
c) Ion transfer
d) Solids transfer

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] During solids transfer, solids are removed from wastewater by straining, sedimentation, flotation and filtration.

11. In which unit operation objectionable solutes are converted into unobjectionable forms without removal?
a) Gas transfer
b) Ion transfer
c) Solute stabilization
d) Solids Transfer

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In solute stabilization, effluent is stabilized by chlorination or liming so that objectionable solutes are converted into unobjectionable form.

12. State whether the following statement is True or False.
Dealkalization results in removal of all the ions from the wastewater.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Dealkalization results in removal of hydroxides, carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium, sodium and magnesium from wastewater. Demineralization results in removal of all the ions from the wastewater.

Set 2

1. What does argv and argc indicate in command-line arguments?
    (Assuming: int main(int argc, char *argv[]) )
a) argument count, argument variable
b) argument count, argument vector
c) argument control, argument variable
d) argument control, argument vector

View Answer

Answer: b

2. Which of the following syntax is correct for command-line arguments?

a) int main(int var, char *varg[])
b) int main(char *argv[], int argc)
c) int main()
    {
        int argv, char *argc[];
    }
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

3. In linux, argv[0] by command-line argument can be occupied by
a) ./a.out
b) ./test
c) ./fun.out.out
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

4. What type of array is generally generated in Command-line argument?
a) Single dimension array
b) 2-Dimensional Square Array
c) Jagged Array
d) 2-Dimensional Rectangular Array

View Answer

Answer: c

5. What would be the output if we try to execute following segment of code (assuming the     following input “cool brother in city”)?

  printf(%sn”, argv[argc]);

a) (null)
b) City
c) In
D. Segmentation Fault

View Answer

Answer: a

6. The first argument in command line arguments is
a) The number of command-line arguments the program was invoked with;
b) A pointer to an array of character strings that contain the arguments
c) Nothing
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

7. The second (argument vector) in command line arguments is
a) The number of command-line arguments the program was invoked with;
b) A pointer to an array of character strings that contain the arguments,one per string.
c) Nothing
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b

8. argv[0] in command line arguments, is
a) The name by which the program was invoked
b) The name of the files which are passed to the program
c) Count of the arguments in argv[] vector
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a

Set 3

1. In both simple band brake and differential band brake, at least one end of the band passes through fulcrum.
a) Both the ends
b) Neither end
c) One end
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In differential, neither end of the brake passes through fulcrum.

2. Is it possible to prevent back rotation of drum?
a) Yes by using back stop brake
b) No
c) Depends on the angular velocity
d) Only in some specific cases

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Back stop brake can be used to prevent rotation of drum.

3. A self-locking differential brake and back stop brakes is same thing.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Back stop brake is other name of self locking differential brake.

4. Band brake has complex construction with large number of parts.
a) Yes
b) It has simple construction
c) It has simple constructions but large number of parts
d) It has complicated construction but small number of parts

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Band brake has simple construction with small number of parts.

5. Band brakes require _____ maintenance.
a) Little
b) Zero
c) Much
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] There is relatively less maintenance required as there are small number of parts and hence chances of brake going out of order is less.

6. The wear of band brake is even.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] There is uneven wear from one side to other side of the friction lining.

7. Calculate the braking torque if tension in the two sides is 3500N and 1980N with radius of drum being 160mm.
a) None of the mentioned
b) 243.20N-m
c) 223.4N-m
d) 278.6N-m

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Braking torque=(3500-1980)x160/1000.

8. Disk brakes have low torque transmitting capacity in high volumes.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] They have high torque transmitting capacity in low volumes.

9. In drum brakes, as the temperature increases coefficient of friction ______
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) Can’t be determined

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Coeffecient of friction varies inversely with the temperature.

10. Loss of torque transmitting capacity at high temperatures is called
a) Fading
b) Rolling
c) Drifting
d) Planking

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Terminology.

11. Disk brakes largely suffer from the problem of self-locking.
a) Yes
b) No
c) Self-locking but it depends on radius of the wheel rotating
d) Material dependent

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] There is no problem of self-locking in disk brakes.

12. Disk brakes can be used for opposite rotation of disk also.
a) No they are effective for one direction of motion only
b) They can be used
c) Poor efficiency in opposite direction
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Disk brakes are equally effective for both direction of motion.

13. The disk brake torque is linearly proportional to the actuating force.
a) Yes
b) No, it is proportional to its square
c) Proportional to its cube
d) Independent of force

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] M=μPr.

Set 4

1. Which of the following are functions of bearings?
a) Ensure free rotation of shaft with minimum friction
b) Holding shaft in a correct position
c) Transmit the force of the shaft to the frame
d) All of the listed

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Bearings are used for all the above listed purposes.

2. A radial bearing supports the load that acts along the axis of the shaft.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Radial bearing supports the load acting perpendicular to the axis of the shaft.

3. A_______ bearing supports the load acting along the axis of the shaft.
a) Thrust
b) Radial
c) Longitudinal
d) Transversal

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Thrust bearing supports load acting along axis of shaft.

4. Sliding contact bearings, also called plain bearings have no problem of wear.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Surface of shaft slide over surface of the bush resulting in friction and wear.

5. In steam and gas turbines, rolling contact bearings are used.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Sliding contact bearings are generally used.

6. Which of the following are true about plasticity?
a) Permanent Deformation
b) Ability to retain deformation under load or after removal of load
c) Plastic deformation is greater than elastic deformation
d) All of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] This is the basic definition of plasticity.

7. Which of the following is measure of stiffness?
a) Modulus of elasticity
b) Modulus of plasticity
c) Resilience
d) Toughness

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Stiffness is the ability of material to resist deformation under external load. Hence it is measured by modulus of elasticity.

8. Which of the following facts are true for resilience?
a) Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed elastically
b) Ability to retain deformation under the application of load or after removal of load
c) Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed plastically
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Toughness is ability to store energy till proportional limit during deformation and to release this energy when unloaded.

9. Modulus of resilience is defined as
a) Strain energy per unit volume
b) Strain energy per unit area
c) Independent of strain energy
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Modulus of resilience is strain energy per unit volume.

10. In gear boxes and small size motors, rolling contact bearings are used.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In small size applications, rolling contact bearings are preferred.

Set 5

1. Belt, chain and rope are called rigid drives.
a) True
b) Belt is a flexible drive only
c) All three are flexible drives
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] They all are flexible drive examples.

2. In flexible drives, rotary motion of driving shaft is directly converted to rotary motion of driven shafts
a) Yes
b) No, translator motion is involved
c) No, Cylindrical motion is involved
d) No, Parabolic motion is involved

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is first converted into translator and then into rotary.

3. Flexible drive can absorb shock loads and damp vibrations.
a) True
b) No
c) Depends on the load applied
d) Doesn’t damp vibrations

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Intermediate link is long and flexible.

4. Velocity ratio in both flexible and rigid drive is constant.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In flexible drive, velocity ratio is not constant.

5. Is there any worry for overloading conditions in flexible belt drives?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Only after a particular threshold limit
d) Depends on external factrors

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In case of overloading, belt slips over the pulley and hence protect it from the overload.

6. V belts have v shaped cross section.
a) No, rectangular
b) No, trapezium
c) No, circular
d) No, spherical

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] They have trapezoidal cross section.

7. The force of friction between belt and V grooved pulley is high.
a) Yes, supported by wedge action
b) No
c) There is no wedge action involved
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Due to wedge action, force of friction is high.

8. V belts result in smooth and quite operation even at high speeds.
a) Yes
b) No they are very noisy
c) They are not endless and hence not smooth motion
d) None of the listed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] V belts are endless.

9. The efficiency of flat belt drive is 35%. If all the parameters are same and flat belt is replaced by V belt, than the efficiency of V belt will be?
a) <35%
b) >35%
c) =35%
d) Cant be determined

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The efficiency of flat belt drive is more that V belt drive.

10. There is problem of bending stress in the V belt drive.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The ratio of cross sectional height to pulley diameter is high.

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