Multiple choice question for engineering
1. For a faithful reproduction of the input signal linearity over the required range of signal amplitudes must be satisfied by the individual parts of the system?
2. CRO stands for _______
a) Common Ray Oscilloscope
b) Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
c) Cathode Ray Oscillator
d) Common Ray Oscillator
3. Which of the following is not a passive transducer?
a) Strain gauge
b) Ultrasonic transducer
c) IR sensor
d) Doppler effect transducer
4. _____________ refers to the degree of repeatability of a measurant.
5. Accuracy is ______
a) ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading
b) ability of the transducer or sensor to see small differences in reading
c) algebraic difference between the indicated value and the true or theoretical value of the measurand
d) total operating range of the transducer
6. ____________ filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency.
a) band stop filter
b) high pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) low pass filter
7. Which of the following filter amplifies frequencies with a certain band?
a) band pass filter
b) band stop filter
c) low pass filter
d) high pass filter
8. ________________ amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band.
a) high pass filter
b) low pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) band stop filter
9. AAMI stands for ____________________
a) American Association of Medical Instrumentation
b) Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation
c) Association of American Medical Instrumentation
d) American Association of Measurement Instruments
10. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that decompose a signal into multiple signal bands.
1. WHat is an arrhythmia monitor ?
a) Patient monitoring system
b) Sophisticated alarm system
c) Sophisticated monitoring system
d) ECG interpretation system
2. Which task is performed after the Ventricular fibrillation detection in automated arrhythmia monitoring system ?
a) Noise detection
b) Beat labeling
c) Atrial fibrillation detection
d) Rhythm definition
3. In arrhythmia monitoring system, it gives alarm light signals whenever the prematured or widened ectopic beats exist up to the rate of __________
a) 6/min to 10/min
b) 6/min to 12/min
c) 6/min or 10/min
d) 6/min or 12/min
4. ECG signal is amplified and filtered with 0.05-100 Hz for diagnostic purposes and 1-40 Hz for monitoring purposes in signal conditioning.
5. _________ resolution analog-to-digital converter is used in digitization of ECG signal in signal conditioning.
a) 16 bit
b) 12 bit
c) 32 bit
d) 64 bit
6. A disturbance in the heart’s normal rhythmic contraction is called ____________
a) Heart stroke
b) Cardiac arrest
d) Premature contraction
7. The steep, large amplitude variation of the QRS complex is the obvious characteristics to use and this is the function of the Q wave detector.
8. Which of the following two elements are removed by the detection filter in the process of the ECG waveform?
a) Low frequency noise, motion noise
b) Muscle artifact, motion noise
c) Baseline wander, motion noise
d) Baseline wander, muscle artifact
9. The number of steps involved in detection of QRS complex are ______
a) One step
b) Two steps
c) Three steps
d) Four steps
10. Which of the following is based on analyzing the shape of the QRS complexes and separating beats into groups or clusters?
a) Morphology characterization
b) Noise detection
c) Beat labeling
d) Timing classification
11. What is the condition in which the R-R interval is declared premature?
a) If it is less than 75% of the predicted interval
b) If it is greater than 75% of the predicted interval
c) If it is less than 85% of the predicted interval
d) If it is greater than 85% of the predicted interval
12. ___________ is the final stage in arrhythmia analysis.
a) Summary statistics
c) Rhythm labeling
d) Beat labeling
13. ______________ techniques are used in a new algorithm proposed by Jen and Hwang to obtain the long term ECG signal feature and extract the meaningful information hiding in the QRS complex.
a) Cepstrum time warping and Dynamic coefficient
b) Cepstrum coefficient and Dynamic time warping
c) QRS detection and Dynamic coefficient
d) QRS detection and Cepstrum time warping
14. Which of the following is used to detect Ventricular Fibrillation?
a) Shape of the QRS complexes
b) Frequency domain analysis
c) Timing sequence of QRS complexes
d) Difference of the R-R interval
15.____________ is the sampling rate of analog-to-digital converter in digitizing of ECG signal in signal conditioning.
a) 200-215 Hz
b) 215 Hz
c) 40-100 Hz
d) 250 Hz
1. Which type of forces stretch and distort the bubbles?
a) Shear forces
b) Strain forces
c) Surface tension
d) Frictional forces
2. Viscosity is inversely proportional to the size of eddies?
3. Larger foam is produced in bioreactors with increased headspace and small workspace?
4.” Instrument air compressor” should be used generally as a compressor?
5. What is the function of Pluronic f-68?
a) To increase the foaming
b) To decrease the foaming
c) Increase cell attachment
d) To change the composition of the cells
6. Microcarrier beads 120 μm in diameter are used to culture recombinant CHO cells for production of growth hormone. It is proposed to use a 6-cm turbine impeller to mix the culture in a 3.5-1itre stirred tank. Air and carbon dioxide are supplied by flow through the reactor headspace. The microcarrier suspension has a density of approximately 1010 kg m-3 and a viscosity of 1.3 x 10-3 Pa s. Estimate the kinematic viscosity.
a) 1.30 × 10-6 m2s-1
b) 1.29 × 10-6 m2s-1
c) 1.50 × 10-6 m2s-1
d) 1.49 × 10-6 m2s-1
7. Refer to Q6, and calculate the power dissipated per unit mass of fluid.
a) 0.050 m2 s-3
b) 0.042 m2 s-3
c) 0.040 22 s-3
d) 0.052 m2 s-3
8. Referring to Q6 and Q7 and, calculate the stirrer power.
a) 1.13×10-2 W
b) 1.10×10-2 W
c) 1.20×10-2 W
d) 1.23×10-2 W
P= (0.052m2s-3) (1010kgm-3) (6x 10-2m)3 P= 1.13×10-2kgm2s -3 = 1.13x 10-2W.
9. Referring to Q6, 7 and Q8, and calculate the stirrer speed. (Given: Np’ = 5)
a) 80.5 rpm
b) 85.0 rpm
c) 85.5 rpm
d) 80.0 rpm
10. What is the function of microcarrier beads?
a) To give the cells the shape of beads
b) It provides non-buoyancy condition
c) It helps in the lysis of cells
d) It provides protection and surface area
1. What is the process of making biomass energy?
2. A solid-oxide fuel cell is fed with carbon monoxide and reacts with air to produce CO2. This reaction will produce 2 electrons which are used to power an electric circuit external to the fuel cell. The reaction equation is shown below:
2CO(g) + O2(g) -> 2CO2(g) ΔHr° = -565.96 kJ/mol
This reaction does not occur for other types of fuel cells which use a catalyst, such as polymerelectrolyte membrane or phosphoric-acid fuel cells. The presence of carbon monoxide on the anode side of these types of fuel cells will cause catalyst poisoning, reducing the efficiency and voltage of the fuel cell.
Determine the rate of enthalpy change for a carbon dioxide production rate of 208 mol/hr.
The extent of the reaction occurring in the fuel cell can be obtained by the following equation:
a) -16.35 kW
b) -15.35 kW
c) -16.45 kW
d) -15.45 kW
Now the rate of change in the enthalpy for the oxidation of carbon monoxide can be calculated as follows: ΔH ̇ = ξ ̇ ΔHr° Entering the known quantities for the extent of reaction and the enthalpy of reaction into this equation yields:
ΔH ̇ = (104 mol/hr) (-565.96 kJ/mol) . (1hr/3600 s) = -16.35 kJ/s ΔH ̇ = -16.35 kW.
3. Refer to Q2 and estimate that the synthesis gas obtained from a coal gasification process can be used for producing methanol, which is used as fuel in direct-methanol fuel cells. Determine the rate of production of methanol if the reaction shown below is releasing 21.6 kW of energy.
CO(g) + 2H2(g) -> CH3OH(l) ΔHr° = -128.08 kJ/mol
a) 455.6 mol/hr
b) 457.2 mol/hr
c) 450.9 mol/hr
d) 454.5 mol/hr
Explanation: Solving for ξ ̇ and substituting the corresponding quantities into this equation yields:
The rate in enthalpy change was considered to be negative since the problem is stating that the reaction is releasing energy (exothermic reaction).
Now we can enter the calculated extent of reaction into the equation previously solved for the molar production rate of methanol, to get:
4. In this problem we wish to develop the combustion equation and determine the air-fuel ratio for the complete combustion of n-Butane (C4H10) with theoretical air.
a) 15.4 kg-air/kg-fuel
b) 12.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
c) 12.4 kg-air/kg-fuel
d) 15.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
5. Refer to Q4, and calculate 50% excess air.
a) 22.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
b) 23.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
c) 20.2 kg-air/kg-fuel
d) 20.3 kg-air/kg-fuel
6. In this problem Propane (C3H8) is burned with 61% excess air, which enters a combustion chamber at 25°C. Assuming complete combustion and a total pressure of 1 atm (101.32 kPa), determine the air-fuel ratio [kg-air/kg-fuel].
61% Excess air (161% Theoretical air):
C3H8 + (1.61) z (O2 + 3.76 N2) => 3 (CO2) + 4(H2O) + (0.61)z (O2) + (1.61) (3.76) z (N2 )
Equating coefficients, z= 3+2 =5 (oxygen component balance), thus:
C3H8 + 8.05 (O2 + 3.76 N2) => 3 (CO2) + 4(H2O) + 3.05 (O2) + 30.27 (N2)
a) 26.3 kg-air/kg-fuel
b) 25.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
c) 25.3 kg-air/kg-fuel
d) 26.5 kg-air/kg-fuel
7. Refer to Q6 and calculate the percentage of carbon dioxide by volume in the products.
8. Refer to Q6 and Q7 and calculate the dew point temperature of the products.
Tdew-point = T = 45.8°C.
9. “Thermal conversion of organic matter with an oxidant (normally oxygen) to produce primarily carbon dioxide and water”, which term is used for this process?
10.” Thermal conversion (destruction) of organics in the absence of oxygen”, which term is used for this process?
1. Which of the following represents the figure corresponding to the stream?
a) Recycle system
b) By-pass system
c) Purge system
d) Recover stream
2. Consider the following labeled flowchart for a simple chemical process based on reaction A->B and predict the overall and single-pass conversion of the process?
a) 100%, 70%
b) 100%, 50%
c) 100%, 75%
d) 100%, 55%
Therefore, the overall conversion of A is from equation: Overall conversion = ((75 mol A/min)in –(0 mol/min)out )/((75 mol A/min)out) ×100% =100% Single-pass conversion: Based on streams that enter and leave the reactor. Overall conversion= (moles of the reactants fed into the reactor-moles that exiting the reactor)/(moles of reactant fed into reactor) Therefore, the single-pass conversion from equation is: ((100 mol A/min)in-(25 mol A/min)out)/((100 mol A/min)in) × 100% = 75%.
3. What is the combined feed ratio from the following?
a) Quantity of mixed feed stream to the quantity of fresh feed stream
b) Quantity of recycle stream to the quantity of fresh feed stream
c) Quantity of fresh feed stream to the quantity of recycle stream
d) Quantity of fresh feed stream to the quantity of mixed feed stream
4. A single effect evaporator is fed with 10000 kg / h of weak liquor containing 15 % caustic by weight and is concentrated to get thick liquor containing 40 % by weight caustic. Calculate:
(i) kg / h of water evaporated and
(ii) kg / h of thick liquor
a) 4560 kg/h, 3720 kg/h
b) 3460 kg/h, 7680 kg/h
c) 4350 kg/h, 6732 kg/h
d) 6250 kg/h, 3750 kg/h
Overall Material balance: Total mass Input = Total mass output kg / h weak liquor = kg / h water evaporated + kg / h thick liquor 10000 = x + y Material Balance of NaOH: NaOH in the liquid stream = NaOH in output stream NaOH in the weak liquor = NaOH in thick liquor
0.15 × 10000= 0.40x x = 3750 kg/hr Hence, y= 6250 kg/hr Water evaporated = 6250 kg/h Thick liquor obtained = 3750 kg/h
5. A solution of potassium dichromate in water contains 15% w/w Kr2Cr2O7. Calculate the amount of Kr2Cr2O7 that can be produced from 1500 kg of solution if 700 kg of water is evaporated and remaining solution is cooled to 293K.
Data: Solubility of Kr2Cr2O7 at 293 K is 115 kg per 1000 kg of water.
a) 158.875 kg
b) 156.678 kg
c) 145.478 kg
d) 148.875 kg
6. Which of the following is not the application of recycle system?
a) Increased reactant conversion
b) Decreased reactant conversion
c) Continuous catalyst regeneration
d) Circulation of the working fluid
7. The fresh feed to an ammonia synthesis reactor contains nitrogen, hydrogen and 2.0 mole per cent inerts. The molar ratio of H2:N2 is 3:1. The product stream consists of pure ammonia. Since conversion in the reactor is only 15%, a recycle stream is used and in order to avoid build-up of inerts, a purge stream is withdrawn. The rate of purge stream is adjusted to keep inert concentration in the recycle stream at 8 mole per cent. For a fresh feed rate of 100 moles/hr. Note that recycle stream contains only nitrogen, hydrogen and inerts. The N2:H2 ratio of 1:3 is maintained in every process stream. Calculate the moles of ammonia produced.
a) 38.90 moles/hr
b) 28.90 moles/hr
c) 37.50 moles/hr
d) 27.50 moles/hr
The flow rate of nitrogen and hydrogen in the purge stream is 23 moles/hr (5.75 nitrogen, 17.25 hydrogen). Therefore moles of ammonia produced: (24.50 – 5.75)x2= 37.50 moles/hr of ammonia.
8. Refer to Q7, and calculate the moles of nitrogen entering the reactor and in the recycle stream?
a) 125 moles/hr, 100.50 moles
b) 135 moles/hr, 50 moles
c) 125 moles/hr, 50 moles
d) 185 moles/hr, 100.50 moles
9. Refer to Q7 and Q8, and calculate the number of moles, moles of inerts and moles of hydrogen in the recycle stream?
a) 437 moles/hr,35 moles/hr, 301.5 moles/hr
b) 237 moles/hr, 30 moles/hr, 200 moles/hr
c) 567 moles/hr, 35 moles/hr, 205 moles/hr
d) 347 moles/hr, 30 moles/hr, 500 moles/hr
10. What do you mean by the splitting point?
a) The two streams split with different composition
b) The two streams split with equal composition
c) Assuming it’s not a reactor and there’s only 2 streams
d) Assuming it’s not a reactor and there’s only 1 stream