Generic selectors
Exact matches only
Search in title
Search in content
Search in posts
Search in pages
Filter by Categories
nmims post
Objective Type Set
Online MCQ Assignment
Question Solution
Solved Question
Uncategorized

Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The instrument picoscale primarily counting for?
a) MCH
b) MCV
c) PBC
d) PCT

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Based on the same principle of detecting change in conductivity in the presence of a cell in the orifice of a measuring tube, there is another cell counting instrument known by the name Picoscale. This instrument does not make use of a mercury manometer for fixing the volume thus eliminating the problems associated with its use. This instrument is primarily meant for counting RBC, WBC and PBC and is manufactured by MEDICOR, Budapest.

2. In picoscale, the number of particles N in a unit volume is determined from the relation if H stands for factor of dilution, L is scaling factor of the counter, V is measured volume and E is result display on the digital display.
a) N = HL/VE
b) N = H/LVE
c) N = HV/LE
d) N = HLV/E

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] One great advantage of this instrument is that the clogging of the capillary is greatly eliminated by applying a bi-directional flow during the measurement procedure. The number of particles N in a unit volume is determined from the relation, N = HLV/E where H = factor of dilution I = scaling factor of the counter V = measured volume E = result displayed on the digital display.

3. For white cells, the diameter of capillaries are?
a) 58 micrometer
b) 72 micrometer
c) 116 micrometer
d) 102 micrometer

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The capillary diameter for red cell count is 72 um and the dilution factor is 63,000. For white cells, the diameter is 102 um, and the dilution factor is 630. For platelet count, the diameter of the capillary is 72 um and a dilution of 6300 is used.

4. What is the dilution factor of platelet count?
a) 63000
b) 630
c) 6300
d) 63

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The capillary diameter for red cell count is 72 um and the dilution factor is 63,000. For white cells, the diameter is 102 um, and the dilution factor is 630. For platelet count, the diameter of the capillary is 72 um and a dilution of 6300 is used.

5. Which of the following is not the error of electronic counter?
a) Settling error
b) Coincidence error
c) Concentration error
d) Dilution errors

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] There are a number of errors that may occur in the electronic cell counting technique. Briefly, these errors are categorized as follows: Aperture Clogging, Uncertainty of Discriminator Threshold, Coincidence Error, Settling Error, Statistical Error, Error in Sample Volume, Error due to Temperature Variation, Biological Factors, Dilution Errors, Error due to External Disturbances.

6. In the settling error, if the readings are taken within 4–5 min., the settling error is?
a) Less than 1%
b) Less than 10%
c) More than 1%
d) Equals to 1%

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Settling Error: This error arises due to the settling of the particles in the solution, with the result that the measurements show a decreasing tendency with time. If the readings are taken within 4–5 min., the settling error is less than 1%.

7. To obtain the statistical error, the instrument reading should be multiplied by the scaling factor of the counter.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Assuming Gaussian distribution, the mean statistical error means that 67% tests fall into the interval (n +or- under-root n) with 33% of the measurements greater than that. To obtain the statistical error, the instrument reading should be multiplied by the scaling factor of the counter. This will yield the value of n.

8. Miller (1976) describes a differential white blood cell classifier based upon a______ approach.
a) A four-colour flying spot-scanner
b) A four-colour flying-scanner
c) A three-colour flying spot-scanner
d) A three-colour flying-scanner

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Miller (1976) describes a differential white blood cell classifier based upon a three-colour flying spot-scanner approach. It utilizes recognition parameters based on the principle of geometrical probability functions, which are generated at high speed in a dedicated computer.

9. The system is built around a Zeiss microscope with two______ eyepieces and a_____ oil immersion objective and with computer controlled focusing.
a) 40 x, 10 x
b) 10 x, 40 x
c) 15 x, 40 x
d) 15 x, 10 x

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The system uses a conventional microscope with automatic focus and stage motion. The system is built around a Zeiss microscope with two 15 x eyepieces and a 40 x oil immersion objective and with computer controlled focusing. A television monitor displays the data and shows the relative position of the cells in each field.

10. Which of the following is not the determined by the cell identification system?
a) Lymphocytes
b) Basophils
c) Monocytes
d) Erythrocytes

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The system is capable of determining segmented neutrophils, bands, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes, as well as abnormal cells such as atypical lymphocytes, blasts, nucleated red cells, and immature granulocytes. In addition, the system carries out the red cell morphology, evaluating size, shape, and colour, counts the reticulocytes, estimates the platelet count and plots a distribution of red cell diameters.

11. There are two types of coils employed in the system, which are ______________
a) Tygon coils and mixing coils
b) Mixing coils and tubing coils
c) Delay coils and tygon coils
d) Mixing coils and delay coils

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] : Two types of coils are employed in the system—mixing coils and delay coils. Coils are glass spirals of critical dimensions, in which the mixing liquids are inverted several times, so that complete mixing can result. Mixing coils are used to mix the sample and/or reagents. Delay coils are employed when a specimen must be delayed for the completion of a chemical reaction before reaching the colorimeter.

12. What is used to check the wavelength calibration of a spectrometer?
a) Absorption filter
b) Helium oxide filter
c) Homium oxide filter
d) Helium dioxide filter

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Wavelength calibration of a spectrophotometer can be checked by using a holmium oxide filter as a wavelength standard. Holmium oxide glass has a number of sharp absorption bands, which occur at precisely known wavelengths in the visible and ultraviolet regions of the spectrum.

13. In diff-3 system, counts and differentiates _______ important categories of red blood cells.
a) Three
b) Seven
c) Four
d) Two

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The system electronically examines conventional microscope blood smear slides and employs optical pattern recognition techniques to achieve the following: Counts and differentiates seven important categories of red blood cells (erythrocytes); three based on size, two on colour, one on shape and one covering red cells with nuclei (nucleated red cells).

14. The system is designed to analyze standard slides at a_______ slides per hour rate.
a) 30 to 35
b) 20 to 30
c) 40 to 50
d) 35 to 40

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The system is designed to analyze standard slides at a 35 to 40 slides per hour rate. The actual analysis task takes only 90 s. In fact, the system largely duplicates mechanically and opto-electronically, the manual procedures followed while examining blood smears with a microscope.

15. What enables the system to transfer cell pattern recognition information into differential results in image processor?
a) A flying spot-scanner
b) A three-colour flying spot-scanner
c) Golay logic processor
d) Golay linear processor

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Image Processor: The system uses two computers. The second computer is a special purpose pattern recognition computer, the Golay Logic Processor (Golay, 1969), which enables the system to transform cell pattern recognition information into differential results. Golay logic (Preston et al 1979) enables the system to ‘see’ a cell in much the same way as a technologist does.

Set 2

1. The minimum input of physical parameter that will create a detectable out change. This is the definition of which of the following parameter?
a) threshold
b) span
c) sensitivity
d) precision

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The sensitivity of the sensor is defined as the slope of the output characteristic curve. In simple words The minimum input of physical parameter that will create a detectable out change is called sensitivity. Total operating range of the transducer is called its span.

2. What is the total operating range of the transducer is called ?
a) offset
b) threshold
c) span
d) drift

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The total operating range of the transducer is called span of the transducer. Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero. Drift is basically the change in a signal over long period of time.

3. Hysteresis is change in output with the same value of input.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hysteresis is observed when the input/output characteristics for a transducer are different for increasing inputs than for decreasing outputs. Hysteresis is change in output with the same value of input but with a different history of input variation. It results when some of the energy applied for increasing inputs is not recovered when the input decreases.

4. What is the region called in which the output does not changes with increase in input ?
a) saturation
b) threshold
c) offset
d) input range

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation. The threshold of the transducer is the smallest change in measurant that will result in a measurable change in the transducer output. Offset is the output that will exist when it should be zero.

5. Which of the following characteristic is defined for the material : Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment.
a) saturation
b) conformance
c) threshold
d) repeatability

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment is called repeatability. The threshold of the transducer is the smallest change in measurant that will result in a measurable change in the transducer output. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation.

6. ___________ is called the closeness of a calibration curve to a specified curve for an inherently non linear transducer.
a) saturation
b) linearity
c) conformance
d) hysteresis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Hysteresis is change in output with the same value of input but with a different history of input variation. Conformance indicates the closeness of a calibration curve to a specified curve for an inherently non linear transducer. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation.

7. The range between the max and min values is applied parameter which can be measured is called ____________
a) repeatability
b) span
c) output range
d) input range

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment is called repeatability. Input range is the range between the max and min values is applied parameter which can be measured . The total operating range of the transducer is called span of the transducer.

8. ___________ is not a static property.
a) repeatability
b) frequency response
c) hysteresis
d) saturation

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Frequency response is the change of transfer function with frequency, both in magnitude and in phase. It is a dynamic property. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation. Ability of the sensor to repeat a measurement when put back in the same environment is called repeatability.

9. Time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it is turned on. This is the definition of ________________
a) settling time
b) span
c) frequency response
d) response time

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Frequency response is the change of transfer function with frequency, both in magnitude and in phase. Settling time is the time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it is turned on. The total operating range of the transducer is called span of the transducer.

10._______________ is not a dynamic property .
a) frequency response
b) response time
c) settling time
d) saturation

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Settling time is the time for the sensor to reach a stable output once it is turned on. The region in which the output does not changes with increase in input is called saturation. It is a static property of the transducer. Frequency response is the change of transfer function with frequency, both in magnitude and in phase.

Set 3

1. Blood cell counters, operating on the principle of conductivity change, which occurs each time a cell passes through an orifice, are generally known as ________________
a) optical method
b) electrical conductivity
c) coulter Counter
d) microscopic method

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Blood cell counters, operating on the principle of conductivity change, which occurs each time a cell passes through an orifice, are generally known as Coulter Counters. The method was patented by Coulter in 1956 and it forms the basis of several particle counting instruments manufactured by a number of firms throughout the world.

2. Which electrode is placed inside the orifice tube, in coulter counter?
a) Metal electrode
b) Platinum electrode
c) Silicon electrode
d) Magnesium electrode

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In a coulter counter, a platinum electrode is placed inside the orifice tube and a second electrode is submerged into the beaker containing the cell dilution, creating an electrical circuit between the two electrodes.

3. Which of the following information is not provided by the Coulter Counter?
a) Relative cell size distribution
b) Settings of the threshold level control
c) Relative cell size
d) Mean cell volume

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The Coulter counters are usually provided with an oscilloscope monitor to display the pulse information, which has passed through the amplifier, and acts as a visible check on the counting process indicating instantaneously any malfunctions such as a blocked orifice. In particular, it provides information regarding (i) relative cell size, (ii) relative cell size distribution, (iii) settings of the threshold level control, and (iv) means to check the performance of the instrument for reliability of counts.

4. In Coulter counter, for such an aperture, a length of about ______ and flow rate of ______ ml/s would be optimum.
a) 100 u, 0.04
b) 200 u, 0.02
c) 100 u, 0.02
d) 200 u, 0.04

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Taylor (1970) suggests that an aperture diameter of 100 m would be generally useful. For such an aperture, a length of about 200 μ and flow rate of 0.04 ml/s would be optimum. The aperture can be made using ruby watch jewels bonded to a glass surface.

5. Typically, an aperture of 100 m diameter and 200 m length, separating two solutions of sulphate buffered saline, has a resistance of about 25 kW and capacitance of 120 pF.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Typically, an aperture of 100 u diameter and 200 m length, separating two solutions of phosphate buffered saline, has a resistance of about 25 kW and capacitance of 120 pF.

6. The required bandwidth of the preamplifier used in cell counter must be?
a) 70 kHz
b) 120 kHz
c) 70 Hz
d) 120 Hz

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The electronic circuit must have upper frequency response greater than 70 kHz. The preamplifier used in cell counters must be of very low noise preferably having noiset voltage less than 2 nA at the required bandwidth of 70 kHz.

7. Which following is not constant for the calibration factor in Coulter counter?
a) Electrolyte resistivity
b) Amplifier gain setting
c) Given aperture size
d) Setting of the threshold level control

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The calibration factor is constant for a given aperture size, electrolyte resistivity and amplifier gain setting. It is used for the conversion of threshold settings to particle volumes or their cube roots to equivalent spherical diameters.

8. What is diameter of Ragweed pollen?
a) 6 micron
b) 19 micron
c) 14 micron
d) 15 micron

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ragweed pollen (19 micron in diameter) and polystyrene latex particles (6–14 micron in diameter) seem to meet these requirements. Of the two, polystyrene latex is preferred for calibration purposes (Thom, 1972). The particles when used seldom plug the orifice. These can be conveniently obtained in the range of 5 million particles per cubic mm.

9. Which of the following is not the provide by multi-parameter coulter counter?
a) Mean cell volume
b) Red cell count
c) Mean cell hemoglobin volume
d) White cell count

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] It provides the universally accepted profile of white cell count, red cell count, mean cell volume, haemotocrit, mean cell haemoglobin concentration, mean cell haemoglobin and haemoglobin. Besides this, the following five parameters are presented: platelet count, red cell distribution width, mean platelet volume, plateletcrit, and platelet distribution width.

10. The diameter of the polystyrene latex particles are ______________________
a) 6 micron
b) 6-20 micron
c) 20 micron
d) 6-14 micron

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ragweed pollen (19 micron in diameter) and polystyrene latex particles (6–14 micron in diameter) seem to meet these requirements. Of the two, polystyrene latex is preferred for calibration purposes (Thom, 1972). The particles when used seldom plug the orifice. These can be conveniently obtained in the range of 5 million particles per cubic mm.

11. In multi-parameter coulter counter, what is the time taken by 1 ml of blood to obtain all parameters?
a) 34 sec
b) 45 sec
c) 34-50 sec
d) 34-45 sec

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] All the directly measured parameters are measured in triplicate and the average results are displayed. All the 14 parameters are obtained from 1 ml of whole blood in 34–50 s depending on the number of platelets present.

12. What occurs when two or more particles are present in the sensing zone at the same time?
a) Calibration
b) Troubleshooting
c) Delay in results
d) Coincidence error

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Coincidence error occurs when two or more particles are present in the sensing zone at the same time. This will result in the instrument detecting fewer particles than are actually present. This will also result in the instrument adding the pulses together to produce a single much longer pulse.

13. Model ____________ automatically compensates for the loss of pulses during coincidence error.
a) 4008 S Coulter counter
b) S plus Coulter counter
c) A plus Coulter counter
d) 4008 A Coulter counter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] As the instrument detects fewer pulses than are actually present, to render the total count accurate, it is necessary to add on the pulses that have been ‘lost’ due to coincidence. The rate at which this happens has been mathematically determined. Model S-plus Coulter counter automatically compensates for this loss.

14. Under a total count of _______ pulses, primary coincidence is negligible and can be ignored.
a) 5000
b) 1000
c) 8000
d) 10000

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] With some instruments, a correction chart is available to allow the correct number to be determined. Under a total count of 10,000 pulses, primary coincidence is negligible and can be ignored.

15. Coulter counters have a serious drawback linked with the mercury manometer arrangement.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Coulter counters have a serious drawback linked with the mercury manometer arrangement. The surface of the mercury gets dirty as a consequence of which the contact bordering the volume becomes uncertain, which may make the measured values uncertain.

Set 4

1. Which gas saturation is of great importance in clinical practice?
a) oxygen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen
d) nitrogen

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In clinical practice, percentage of oxygen saturation in the blood is of great importance.This saturation being a bio-constant, is an indications of the performance of the most important cardio-respiratory functions. It is maintained at a fairly constant value to within a few percent in an healthy organism.

2. Liquid part of blood is __________
a) Platelets
b) Red Blood Cells
c) White Blood Cells
d) Plasma

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The plasma (liquid part of the blood) is a very poor carrier of oxygen. At the pressures available,only 0.3 ml of oxygen can dissolve in 100 ml of plasma, which is quite insufficient for the needs of the body.

3. What does red blood cells contain for combining with large volume of oxygen?
a) Proteins
b) Haemoglobin
c) Lipids
d) Platelets

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The red blood cells contain haemoglobin which can combine with a large volume of oxygen so quickly that in the lungs it may become 97% saturated forming a compound called oxyhaemoglobin.

4. How much quantity of oxygen bound with haemoglobin in the normal arterial blood?
a) 20.3ml %
b) 21.5ml %
c) 19.4ml %
d) 20.1ml %

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The total quantity of oxygen bound with haemoglobin in the normal arterial blood is approximately 19.4 ml percent at a pO2 of 95 mmHg. On passing through the tissue capillaries this amount is reduced to 14.4 ml per cent at a pO2 of 40 mmHg.

5. When blood is withdrawn from the subject under anaerobic conditions and measurement for oxygen saturation is made at a later time in the laboratory, the procedure is referred to as _________
oximetry.
a) in vitro
b) in vivo
c) transmission
d) reflection

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When blood is withdrawn from the subject under anaerobic conditions and measurement for oxygen saturation is made at a later time in the laboratory, the procedure is referred to as in vitro oximetry.

6. For discrete blood samples, a spectrophotometric measurement of oxygen saturation can be made by which method?
a) in vitro
b) in vivo
c) transmission
d) cannot be determined

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] For discrete blood samples, a spectrophotometric measurement of oxygen saturation can be made by either a transmission method or a reflection method.

7. Which principle is used by ear oximeter usually?
b) in vivo
b) transmission
c) reflection
d) in vitro

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ear oximeters usually make use of the transmission principle to measure the arterial oxygen saturation. In this case, the pinna of the ear acts as a cuvette. Blood in the ear must be made similar to arterial blood in composition.

8. Blood in _________ must be made similar to arterial Blood in composition.
a) heart
b)brain
c) ear
d) eyes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Blood in the ear must be made similar to arterial blood in composition. This is done by increasing the flow through the ear without appreciably increasing the metabolism. Maximum vasodilatation is achieved by keeping the ear warm.

9. By keeping the ear warm,maximum vasodilatation is achieved.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Yes,Maximum vasodilatation is achieved by keeping the ear warm.It takes about 5 or 10 min for the ear to become fully dilated after the ear unit has been put up in place and the lamp turned on.

10. What is time taken for the ear to become fully dilated after ear unit has been placed?
a) 5-10 min
b) 10-15 min
c) 15-20 min
d) 20-25 min

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Maximum vasodilatation is achieved by keeping the ear warm.It takes about 5 or 10 min for the ear to become fully dilated after the ear unit has been put up in place and the lamp turned on.

11. Merrick and Hayes (1976) describe details of an _________ oximeter which enables the measurement of
oxygen saturation of blood.
a) Pulse
b) Ear
c) Skin Reflactance
d) Intravascular

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Merrick and Hayes (1976) describe details of an ear oximeter which enables the measurement of oxygen saturation of blood. This measurement is independent of a wide range of encountered variables and is made without involving patients in any calibration or standardization procedure.

12. This technique involves measuring the optical transmittance of the ear at how many wavelengths?
a) 12
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In brief, the technique involves measuring the optical transmittance of the ear at 8 wavelengths in the 650 to 1050 nm range. A 2.5 m long flexible fibre ear probe connects the patient to the instrument.

13. Ear probe which connects the patient to instrument is ___________ m long.
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A 2.5 m long flexible fibre ear probe connects the patient to the instrument. The ear probe can be either held in position for discrete measurements or can be conveniently mounted to a headband for continuous display.

14. Ear oximeter instrument is based on Beer- Lambert law.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The instrument is based on the Beer-Lambert law. However, it is assumed that the optical absorbers act independently and additively and that the effects of light scattering by the ear tissue can be minimized by a proper source and detector geometry.

15. In floating electrodes metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In floating electrode the metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin. The electrode consists of a light weighted metalled screen or plate held away from the subject by a flat washer which is connected to the skin. Floating electrodes can be recharged, i.e. the jelly in the electrodes can be replenished if desired.

Set 5

1. Any disturbance in the heart’s normal rhythmic contraction is called?
a) Heart stroke
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Arrhythmias
d) Premature contraction

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Any disturbance in the heart’s normal rhythmic contraction is called an arrhythmias or cardiac dysrhythmia. In this arrhythmias heart can’t beat in regular rhythm. In arrhythmia heart-rate will be higher than normal rate or will be less than the normal rate.

2. Which diagnostic statement is based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the state of the working muscle masses?
a) Rhythm statements
b) Morphological statements
c) Morphological-Rhythm statements
d) Rhythm-Morphological statements

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Morphological statement-primarily based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the state of the working muscle masses. The other type of the diagnostic statement is Rhythm statement. These both diagnostic statements are observed from the ECG records.

3. Rhythm statements concerned with the site and rate of the cardiac pacemaker and the propagation of impulses through the conduction system.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Rhythm statements concerned with the site and rate of the cardiac pacemaker and the propagation of impulses through the conduction system is true because, the other type of the diagnostic statements is Morphological statements and it is primarily based on ECG wave shapes that attempt to describe the state of the working muscle masses.

4. Which wave from ECG waveforms becomes widened, when the self-triggering impulse does not arrive through the AV node?
a) P wave
b) QRS wave
c) ST wave
d) T wave

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] sometimes irritation occurs in the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse does not arrive through the node and thus travels a different and slower path in spreading over the ventricles. The QRS wave then becomes widened, and is classified as ventricular ectopic beat.

5. When the self-triggering impulse does not arrive at the AV node and travels a different and slower path over the ventricles, the QRS becomes widened and is classified as ___________
a) Ectopic beat
b) Ventricular-ectopic beat
c) Ventricular beat
d) Atrio-ventricular beat

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Sometimes irritation occurs in the ventricles, the self-triggering impulse does not arrive through the node and thus travels a different and slower path in spreading over the ventricles. The QRS wave then becomes widened, and is classified as ventricular ectopic beat. This ectopic beat is classified from ventricles so it is called as ventricular ectopic beat.

6. An ectopic beat, which starts in an abnormal location in the heart and is often premature, therefore also called _______
a) Pre ventricular contraction
b) Premature ventricular beat
c) Pre ventricular beat
d) Premature ventricular contraction

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] An ectopic beat is a beat, which starts in an abnormal location in the heart and is often premature, therefore also called premature ventricular contraction (PVC), i.e. it occurs sooner than the next expected beat.

7. When the heartbeat is slower than the normal rate of the heart(less than 60), this type of arrhythmias called as _______
a) Bradycardia
b) Tachycardia
c) Arterial contraction
d) Ventricular contraction

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] There are 2 types of arrhythmias, i) Bradycardia-when the heart-rate is to slow(less than 60), ii)Tachycardia-when the heart-rate is to fast(greater than 100).Here the answer is Bradycardia because, heart rate is less than 60.

8. Which of the following are resuscitation techniques?
a) Ceptstrum coefficient
b) Prophylactic therapy
c) Transthoracic defibrillation
d) Dynamic time warping

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The necessity for early detection of the arrhythmias led to the establishment of coronary care units in hospitals for the intensive monitoring and treatment of such patients. The attempt in these unit was to effectively carry out resuscitation techniques such as cardiac massage and transthoracic defibrillation.

9. If heart rate is x, then which value of x is known as tachycardia?
a) x < 60
b) x > 60
c) 60 < x < 100
d) x > 100

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] There are 2 types of arrhythmias,i)Bradycardia-when the heartrate is to slow(less than 60), ii)Tachycardia-when the heartrate is to fast(greater than 100).Here the answer is Bradycardia because,heart rate is less than 60.

10. Selenium cells are sensitive to almost the entire range of wavelengths of the spectrum.
c) True
d) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Selenium cells are sensitive to almost the entire range of wavelengths of the spectrum. However, their sensitivity is greater within the visible spectrum and highest in the zones near to the yellow wavelengths.

11.Which of the following is not a photoemissive cell?
a) high vacuum photocells
b) barrier layer cell
c) gas-filled photocell
d) photomultiplier tubes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Barrier layer cells are photovoltaic cells. They consist of a semiconducting substance, which is generally selenium deposited on a metal base which may be iron and which acts as one of the electrodes. Photovoltaic cells are very robust in construction, need no external electrical supply and produce a photocurrent sometimes stronger than other photosensitive elements.

12. Photo-diodes work in ___________
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) independent of forward and reverse biasing
d) any configuration

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The photodiode is a P-N junction semiconductor diode. It always operated in the reversed biased condition. The light is always focused through a glass lens on the junction of the photo diode.

13. Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance. Because of this blood pump is required.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance which allows adequate blood flow through the dialyzer with the patient’s arterial blood pressure, eliminating the need for a blood pump. The dialyzing surface area of a parallel flow dialyzer is about 1 sq m. At a blood flow rate of 200 ml/min and a dialysate flow of 500 ml/min, the urea and creatinine clearance is about 80 and 64 ml/min.

14. DC amplifiers are employed with _______ feedback type.
a) positive
b) negative
c) depends on the application
d) can be any positive or negative does’t matter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] DC amplifiers are generally of the negative feedback type. They are used for medium gain applications down to about 1 mV signal levels for full scale. They are not practical for very low level applications because of dc drift and poor common-mode rejection capabilities.

15. CMRR is measured in _______________
a) V/s
b) dB
c) dB/s
d) dB/ms

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] CMRR is an important specification referred to the differential amplifier and is normally expressed as decibels. The ability of the amplifier to reject common voltages on its two input leads is known as common-mode rejection. It is specified as the ratio of common-mode input to differential input to elicit the same response.

16.The carrier amplifier consists of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled amplifier.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The carrier amplifier consists of an oscillator and a capacitance coupled amplifier. The oscillator is used to energize the transducer with an alternating carrier voltage. The transducers, which require ac excitation, are those whose impedance is not purely resistive.