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# Multiple choice question for engineering

## Set 1

1. _____ is non-invasive method allowing the monitoring of the saturation of a patient’s hemoglobin.
a) Ear Oximetry
b) Pulse Oximetry
c) Skin-Reflectance Oximetry
d) Inntravascular Oximetry

Answer: b [Reason:] Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method allowing the monitoring of the saturation of a patient’s hemoglobin. A pulse oximeter shows the percentage of arterial hemoglobin in the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) and hemoglobin (Hb). These observation: A = -logT = log I0/I =ɛDC.

2. A = log I0/I,where I0 is_____
a) Incident light Intensity
b) Transmitted light Intensity
c) Extinction coefficient
d) Concentration

Answer: a [Reason:] A pulse oximeter shows the percentage of arterial hemoglobin in the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) and hemoglobin (Hb). These observation A = -logT = log I0/I =ɛDC where Io and I are incident and transmitted light intensities, e is the extinction coefficient, D is the depth of the absorbing layer and C is concentration.

3. A= ɛDC, where ɛ is _______
a) Incident light Intensity
b) Transmitted light Intensity
c) Extinction coefficient
d) Concentration

Answer: c [Reason:] A pulse oximeter shows the percentage of arterial hemoglobin in the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) and hemoglobin (Hb). These observation A = -logT = log I0/I =ɛDC where Io and I are incident and transmitted light intensities, e is the extinction coefficient, D is the depth of the absorbing layer and C is concentration.

4. A pulse oximeter shows the percentage of venous hemoglobin in the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) and hemoglobin (Hb).
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] False, Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method allowing the monitoring of the saturation of a patient’s hemoglobin. A pulse oximeter shows the percentage of arterial hemoglobin in the oxyhemoglobin (HbO2) and hemoglobin (Hb). These observation: A = -logT = log I0/I =ɛDC.

5. What is used as photodetector in pulse oximetry?
a) Phototransistor
b) Solar cell
c) Photodiode
d) Photographic plates

Answer: c [Reason:] Pulse oximetry is a particularly convenient noninvasive measurement method. Typically it utilizes a pair of small light-emitting diodes (LEDs) facing a photodiode through a translucent part of the patient’s body, usually a fingertip or an earlobe. One LED is red, with wavelength of 660 nm, and the other is infrared, 905, 910, or 940 nm.

6. What is wavelength of red LED in pulse oximetry?
a) 660 nm
b) 740 nm
c) 905 nm
d) 950 nm

Answer: a [Reason:] Pulse oximetry is a particularly convenient noninvasive measurement method. Typically it utilizes a pair of small light-emitting diodes (LEDs) facing a photodiode through a translucent part of the patient’s body, usually a fingertip or an earlobe. One LED is red, with wavelength of 660 nm, and the other is infrared, 905, 910, or 940 nm.

7. What is wavelength of infrared LED in pulse oximetry?
a) 660 nm
b) 740 nm
c) 905 nm
d) 950 nm

Answer: c [Reason:] Pulse oximetry is a particularly convenient noninvasive measurement method. Typically it utilizes a pair of small light-emitting diodes (LEDs) facing a photodiode through a translucent part of the patient’s body, usually a fingertip or an earlobe. One LED is red, with wavelength of 660 nm, and the other is infrared, 905, 910, or 940 nm.

8. A pulse oximeter is useful in any setting where a patients oxygenation is unstable.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] True, Pulse oximeter is useful in any setting where a patient’s oxygenation is unstable, including intensive care, operating, recovery, emergency and hospital ward settings, pilots in unpressurized aircraft, for assessment of any patient’s oxygenation, and determining the effectiveness of or need for supplemental oxygen.

9. Portable pulse oximeters are useful for ______ whose oxygen levels may decrease at high altitude.
a) Athlete
b) Swimmer
c) Mountain climber
d) Fisher

Answer: c [Reason:] Portable pulse oximeter is also useful for mountain climbers and athletes whose oxygen levels may decrease at high altitudes or with exercise. Some portable pulse oximeters employ software that charts a patient’s blood oxygen and pulse, serving as a reminder to check blood oxygen levels.

10. ______ is very useful for patients having respiratory or cardiac problemsbecause of their simplicity of use and the ability to provide continuos and immediate oxygen saturation levels.
a) Pulse Oximeter
b) Ear Oximeter
c) Skin Reflactance Oximeter
d) Intravascular Oximeter

Answer: a [Reason:] Because of their simplicity of use and the ability to provide continuous and immediate oxygen saturation values, pulse oximeters are of critical importance in emergency medicine and are also very useful for patients with respiratory or cardiac problems, especially COPD, or for diagnosis of some sleep disorders such as apnea and hypopnea.

## Set 2

1. ______ is used to determine the physical performance characteristics of a cardiac patient.
a) Data compression techniques
b) Stress test electrocardiography
c) Stress amplitude ECG
d) QRS detection techniques

Answer: b [Reason:] Stress test or exercise electrocardiography is used when the diagnosis of coronary arterial disease is suspected or to determine the physical performance characteristics of a cardiac patient. The test involves the recording of the electrocardiogram during dynamic or occasionally isometric exercise.

2. Which of the following are devices used for testing physical fitness?
b) Ergometer and sphygmomanometer
d) Sphygmomanometer and Event recorders

Answer: c [Reason:] Both the treadmill and ergometer can be used as stand-alone devices for testing physical fitness. Advanced ergometers and treadmills can store and display activity data, transfer it to a PC and download patient data from PC.

3. Which of the following is the type of exercise protocols used in treadmill tests?
a) The Balke-Bruce Protocol
b) The Bruce-Ware Protocol
c) The Balke-Ware Protocol
d) The Balke Protocol

Answer: c [Reason:] There are two basic kinds of exercise protocols used in treadmill tests: i) The Balke-Ware Protocol and ii) The Bruce Protocol. Both the protocols are satisfactory for most clinical purposes. However, they may have to be modified to suit the condition of the individual being subjected to exercise testing.

4. In the Balke-Ware Protocol, how much speed it uses with progressive increments in the load every 2 minutes?
a) 3.3 km/hour
b) 3.3 km to 5.3 km /hour
c) 3.3 miles to 5.3 miles /hour
d) 3.3 miles/hour

Answer: d [Reason:] In the Balke-Ware Protocol, it uses a constant speed of 3.3 miles/hour (5.3 km/hour), with progressive increments in the load every 2 minutes. This is achieved by increasing the grade or incline of the motor-driven treadmill.

5. ______ is a blood pressure measuring instrument.
a) Sphygmomanometer
b) Ergometer
d) Holtemanometer

Answer: a [Reason:] Sphygmomanometer, an instrument for measuring blood pressure, typically consisting of an inflatable rubber cuff which is applied to the arm and connected to a column of mercury next to a graduated scale, enabling the determination of systolic and diastolic blood pressure by increasing and gradually releasing the pressure in the cuff.

6. In the ST segment measurement, _________ is either between the P and Q waves or in front of the P wave.
a) J point
b) Isoelectric baseline
c) ST measurement point
d) ST value

Answer: b [Reason:] The current standard for determining the ST segment measurement is by measuring the voltage difference between the value at a point 60-80 ms after the J point and the isoelectric baseline. The isoelectric baseline is either between the P and Q waves (the P-R interval) or in front of the P-wave (the T-P interval).

7. _________ is a signal of low amplitude and low frequency content.
a) QRS complex
b) R-R interval
c) ST segment
d) T-P interval

Answer: c [Reason:] The ST segment is a signal of low amplitude and low frequency content. Therefore, a sampling rate of 250 samples /s is adequate. To ensure that the ST segment can be measured accurately, the incoming ECG signals must have a low-end bandwidth of 0.05 Hz.

8. In the ST segment measurement, what is the bandwidth of ST filter which is used to remove unwanted baseline noise?
a) 0.05 Hz
b) 0.67 Hz
c) 0.5 Hz
d) 0.067 Hz

Answer: b [Reason:] To ensure that the ST segment can be measured accurately, the incoming ECG signals must have a low-end bandwidth of 0.05 Hz. A special ST filter with a higher low-end bandwidth of 0.67 Hz is used to further remove unwanted baseline noise.

9. ________compare various algorithms employed for processing stress ECG signals.
a) Friesen
b) Jen and Hwang
c) Clynes
d) Alfonso

Answer: d [Reason:] Alfonso compare various algorithms employed for processing stress ECG signals. It may be observed that the exercise test when applied in an appropriate manner and interpreted by an experienced cardiologists is a very useful tool in the functional assessment of normal and abnormal cardiovascular physiology.

10. At interval of _______ the Bruce Protocol uses simultaneous increments in both speed and treadmill grade.
a) 250 sec
b) 120 sec
c) 160 sec
d) 198 sec

Answer: c [Reason:] . At interval of 3 minutes the Bruce Protocol uses simultaneous increments in both speed and treadmill grade. Typically during a Bruce Protocol, Heart Rate and Rating of Perceived Exertion are taken every minute and Blood Pressure is taken at the end of each stage (every three minutes).

## Set 3

1. A model of the normal QRS complex, called ___________
a) ECG model
b) QRS model
c) Template
d) Detection model

Answer: c [Reason:] A popular approach in the detection of arrhythmias is based on template matching. A model of the normal QRS complex, called a template, is derived from the ECG complex of a patient under normal circumstances.

2. Who gave the ST/AR algorithm in 1999?
a) Hewlett Packard
b) Jen and Hwang
c) Clynes
d) Cox and Nolle

Answer: a [Reason:] The ST/AR (ST and Arrhythmia) algorithm from Hewlett Packard (1999) is a multi lead ECG algorithm designed for both arrhythmias and ST segment monitoring.

3.In order to detect the QRS, the detection threshold is kept as ________ to prevent the detection of T waves or baseline noise as QRS complexes during a complete heart block or asystole.
a) 0.15 V
b) 0.015 mV
c) 0.015 mV
d) 0.00015 V

Answer: d [Reason:] In order to detect the QRS, the detection threshold is kept as 0.15 mV to prevent the detection of T waves or baseline noise as QRS complexes during a complete heart block or asystole. For optimal performance and to prevent false alarms, the lead selected for monitoring should have adequate amplitude.

4. The contribution from each ECG lead to the QRS detection signal is proportional to its measured quality based on the waveform amplitude, and the amount of muscle and baseline noise.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] The contribution from each ECG lead to the QRS detection signal is proportional to its measured quality based on the waveform amplitude, and the amount of muscle and baseline noise. The weighting factors are updated every 200 ms to allow for a quick adaption to signal quality changes.

5. What is the value of refractory period from the previously identified QRS complex?
a) 200 ms
b) 198 ms
c) 192 ms
d) 215 ms

Answer: c [Reason:] The QRs detector checks the QRS detection signal for the presence of the peak of an R wave. Search begins after an absolute refractory period from the previously identified QRS complex. The value used for the refractory period is 192 ms. This helps to prevent a T wave from being identified as an R wave.

6. The area of P wave is ______ wide and ends ______ before the R wave peak.
a) 120 ms, 200 ms
b) 200 ms, 120 ms
c) 100 ms, 215 ms
d) 215 ms, 100 ms

Answer: b [Reason:] After a QRS complex is identified, a search is made on each lead independently in the area prior to the R wave to determine if there is an associated P wave. This area is 200 ms wide and ends 120 ms before the R wave peak.

7. If height of P wave is X, then the height of the R wave is _____
a) X/32
b) 32/X
c) X/16
d) 32X

Answer: d [Reason:] To be accepted as a P wave, it must be at least 1/32 of the R wave height and the P-R interval must be close to the average P-R interval. So, P=R/32 If P=X then, X = R/32 R = 32X.

8. Which wave detection is used to differentiate between a Sinus Rhythm and a Supraventricular Rhythm?
a) P wave
b) QRS complex
c) T wave
d) R wave

Answer: a [Reason:] P wave detection is used to differentiate between a Sinus Rhythm and a Supraventricular Rhythm.

9. In the Beat Labeling, if the signal quality is not good, the algorithm assigns the label ______ and ______
a) Supraventricular premature, inoperative
b) Inoperative, artifact
c) Artifact, Supraventricular premature
d) Ventricular ectopic, inoperative

Answer: b [Reason:] Beat Labeling means that the algorithm assigns the complex one of the following labels: normal N, supraventricular premature S, ventricular ectopic V, paced P, questionable ?, and learning L. If the signal quality is not good, the algorithm assigns the label “inoperative I” and “artifact A”.

10. If a flutter or sinusoidal wave-form persists for more than ____ seconds in any ECG channel, then the monitor alarms for ventricular fibrillation.
a) 8 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 4 sec
d) 12 sec

Answer: c [Reason:] A separate detector continuously examines the ECG signal for ventricular fibrillation. If a flutter or sinusoidal wave-form persists for more than 4 seconds in any ECG channel, then the monitor alarms for ventricular fibrillation.

11. The heart rate is computed by averaging the most recent _________________
a) 12 P waves
b) 12 R-R intervals
c) 12 QRS complex
d) 12 R waves

Answer: b [Reason:] Normally, the heart rate is computed by averaging the most recent 12 R-R intervals. This average gives a stable estimate of the heart rate even when the rhythm is irregular.

12. Friesen compared _______ of nine types of QRS detection algorithms.
a) QRS complex sensitivity
b) Noise sensitivity
c) Motion artifact
d) Muscle artifact

Answer: b [Reason:] Friesen compared noise sensitivity of nine types of QRS detection algorithms. He established that an algorithm using a digital filter had the best performance for the composite noise corrupted data.

13. The frequency of the sinusoid and the filter leakage fraction, these two criteria is used for ____________
a) Detection of arrhythmias
b) Detection of QRS complex
c) Detection of Ventricular fibrillation
d) Detection of Heart-rate

Answer: c [Reason:] The detection of ventricular fibrillation is based upon two criteria: i) The frequency of the sinusoid ii) The filter leakage fraction.

14. For an ideal sinusoid, the filter leakage fraction will be _____
a) 1
b) 0
c) Infinity
d) Undefined

Answer: b [Reason:] For an ideal sinusoid, the filter leakage fraction will be zero. As the ventricular fibrillation waveform is not an ideal sinusoid, a higher leakage fraction is used as the threshold for detection of this condition.

15. For how much time period, the weighting factors are updated to allow for quick adaptation to signal quality changes?
a) Every 192 ms
b) Every 16 ms
c) Every 215 ms
d) Every 200 ms

Answer: d [Reason:] The contribution from each ECG lead to the QRS detection signal is proportional to its measured quality based on the waveform amplitude, and the amount of muscle and baseline noise. The weighting factors are updated every 200 ms to allow for a quick adaption to signal quality changes.

## Set 4

1. How are foetal heart sounds picked up from the maternal abdomen?
a) Piezoelectric device
b) Sensitive Microphone
c) Crystal microphone
d) Dynamic microphone

Answer: b [Reason:] Foetal heart sounds can be picked up from the maternal abdomen by a sensitive microphone. The heart sounds in the form of mechanical vibrations have to pass through tissue structure and the signals picked up are rather weak because of distance effects and the small size of foetal heart valves.

2. Crystal microphone is used for picking _______ signals.
a) cardiac
b) brain
c) phono
d) muscles

Answer: c [Reason:] To pick up the heart sounds, it is essential that the transducer be properly placed and its impedance carefully matched. A crystal microphone is used for picking up phono signals. The phono transducer signals are amplified by a low noise preamplifier and fed to a bandpass filter which rejects all frequencies outside the 70 to 110 Hz range.

3. Bandpass filter used in foetal phonocardiogram rejects all frequencies outside the ________ Hz range.
a) 0-40
b) 40-80
c) 70-110
d) 110-150

Answer: c [Reason:] To pick up the heart sounds, it is essential that the transducer be properly placed and its impedance carefully matched. A crystal microphone is used for picking up phono signals. The phono transducer signals are amplified by a low noise preamplifier and fed to a bandpass filter which rejects all frequencies outside the 70 to 110 Hz range.

4. The preamplifier is incorporated in the transducer housing to maximize interference signals being picked up.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] The preamplifier is incorporated in the transducer housing to minimize interference signals being picked up. Much of the random noise is eliminated during this process and the record on paper after this stage is called foetal phonocardiograph.

5. How many sounds are produced from the normal foetal heart action?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: b [Reason:] From the normal foetal heart action, generally two sounds are produced corresponding to the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles. These two bursts of heart sounds are mixed up with unwanted signals which may succeed in passing through the filters.

6. What is the fixed pulse width of pulse after process of one-shot circuit?
a) 110 ms
b) 170 ms
c) 230 ms
d) 280 ms

Answer: c [Reason:] After peak detection, the processed pulses operate a one-shot circuit which gives a fixed pulse width of 230 ms. The output of one-shot triggers a variable pulse width multi-vibrator which adds and gives either 43 or 116 ms time depending on the heart rate. The pulse width at the output will be either 230 + 43 = 273 ms or 230 + 116 = 346 ms.

7. What is used to detect heart frequency in foetal phonocardiograph?
a) 230 ms one shot
b) 400 ms one shot
c) 20 ms one shot
d) 440 ms one shot

Answer: b [Reason:] To detect the heart frequency, the 400 ms one-shot is used. If the period duration is greater than 400 ms, the one-shot will deliver a pulse. The negative slope of this pulse is used to trigger the 20 ms one-shot . These 20 ms pulses are integrated by the integrator and the output of this integrator is compared with a fixed voltage -V.

8. If the period duration is lesser than 400 ms, the one-shot will deliver a pulse.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] False, To detect the heart frequency, the 400 ms one-shot is used. If the period duration is greater than 400 ms, the one-shot will deliver a pulse. The negative slope of this pulse is used to trigger the 20 ms one-shot . These 20 ms pulses are integrated by the integrator and the output of this integrator is compared with a fixed voltage -V.

9. What is used to delay the change in time constant in foetal phonocardiograph?
a) Preamplifier
b) Notch Filter
c) Integrator
d) Band Pass Filter

Answer: c [Reason:] The integrator is used to delay the change in the time constant and to make sure that a change of on-time takes place only if several (3 to 4) heart beats with the longer period duration (below 150 bpm) are present.

10. No output pulse will occur when the period between two pulses is less than _____ ms.
a) 230
b) 20
c) 400
d) 440

Answer: c [Reason:] No output pulse will occur, if the period between two pulses is less than 400 ms. The 20 ms pulses are, therefore, not generated and the integrator discharges slowly from the negative output voltage to a positive output voltage. If the output of the integrator (6) is less negative than-V, the output of comparator (7) will become negative.

11. Ultrasound provides basically clearer signal than does phonocardiography.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] False,Phonocardiography provides a basically cleaner signal than does ultrasound, thus allowing a greater chance of detecting a smooth baseline FHR. Unfortunately, phonocardiography is more susceptible to artefacts introduced from ambient noise, patient movement or other intra-abdominal sounds.

12. Which of the following instrument makes use of Doppler shift principle?
a) Abdominal Foetal Electrocardiogram
b) Foetal Phonocardiogram
c) Foetus blood flow detector
d) Foetal ECG with scalp electrode

Answer: c [Reason:] An important clinical instrument for obstetric applications which makes use of the Doppler shift principle is the foetus blood flow detector. The technique is extended to derive an integrated rate of the foetus heart from blood flow signals and to display it on a suitable display system.

13. Which technique is used to derive an integrated rate of the foetus heart from blood flow signals and to display it on a suitable display system?
a) Abdominal Foetal Electrocardiogram
b) Foetal Phonocardiogram
c) Ultrasound
d) Foetal ECG with scalp electrode

Answer: c [Reason:] An important clinical instrument for obstetric applications which makes use of the Doppler shift principle is the foetus blood flow detector. The ultrasound technique is extended to derive an integrated rate of the foetus heart from blood flow signals and to display it on a suitable display system.

14. What is ultrasonic frequency employed for obstetric studies?
a) 0.5 to 1 MHz
b) 1 to 1.5 MHz
c) 1.5 to 2 MHz
d) 2 to 2.5 MHz

Answer: d [Reason:] For obstetric studies, ultrasonic frequency of about 2 to 2.5 MHz is usually employed, whereas in the study of blood flow in arteries and superficial blood vessels frequencies around 5–10 MHz are preferred. The level of ultrasonic energy transmitted into the body is generally kept between 10–15 mW/cm2.

15. What is range of ultrasonic energy transmitted into the body?
a) 0-5 mW/cm2
b) 5-10 mW/cm2
c) 10-15 mW/cm2
d) 15-20 mW/cm2

Answer: c [Reason:] For obstetric studies, ultrasonic frequency of about 2 to 2.5 MHz is usually employed, whereas in the study of blood flow in arteries and superficial blood vessels frequencies around 5–10 MHz are preferred. The level of ultrasonic energy transmitted into the body is generally kept between 10–15 mW/cm2.

## Set 5

1. Which section of the clinical laboratory deals with determinations of the number and characteristics of the constituents of the blood, particularly the blood cells?
a) Chemistry
b) Haematology
c) Microbiology
d) Sample collection

Answer: b [Reason:] There are three different areas within the clinical laboratory set up. These are: Chemistry section deals with the analysis of blood, urine, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and other fluids to determine the quantity of various important substances they contain. Most of the electronic instruments in the clinical laboratory are available in this section. Haematology section deals with the determinations of the number and characteristics of the constituents of the blood, particularly the blood cells. Microbiology section in which studies are performed on various body tissues and fluids to determine the presence of pathological micro-organisms.

2. What is the percentage of blood plasma and the blood cells respectively in blood volume?
a) 60, 40
b) 40, 60
c) 70, 30
d) 30, 70

Answer: a [Reason:] The liquid part of the blood—the blood plasma, and the formed elements—the blood cells are analyzed during a chemical examination. The blood plasma accounts for about 60% of the blood volume and the blood cells occupy the other 40%. The plasma is obtained by centrifuging a blood sample.

3. The plasma is a viscous, light red liquid, i.e. almost clear in the fasting stage.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] False, because the plasma is obtained by centrifuging a blood sample. During centrifugation, the heavy blood cells get packed at the bottom of the centrifuge tube and the plasma can thus be separated. The plasma is a viscous, light yellow liquid, i.e. almost clear in the fasting stage.

4. __________ method is based on the absorption of electromagnetic radiation in the visible, ultraviolet and infrared ranges.
a) Cardiotocography
b) Ultrasonic therapy
c) Spectrophotometry
d) Diathermy

Answer: c [Reason:] Spectrophotometry is the most important of all the instrumental methods of analysis in clinical chemistry. This method is based on the absorption of electromagnetic radiation in the visible, ultraviolet and infrared ranges.

5. ________ waves have short wave-length.
a) Microwave
c) Gamma rays
d) IR waves

Answer: c [Reason:] Electromagnetic spectrum ranges from very short wavelengths (including gamma and X-rays) to very long wavelengths (including microwaves and broadcast radio waves). The range of wavelength of gamma rays and X-rays is 10-4 to 10 nm. The range of wavelengths of microwaves and radio-waves is 106 to 109 nm.

6. The method based on the absorption of radiation of a substance is known as ________
a) Absorption photometry
b) Spectrophotometry
c) Absorption tocometry
d) Absorption spectrophotoscopy

Answer: d [Reason:] Electronic transitions correspond to the ultraviolet and visible regions, vibrational transitions to the near infrared and infrared regions and rotational transitions to the infrared and far-infrared regions. The method based on the absorption of radiation of a substance is known as Absorption Spectroscopy.

7. What is the range of visible light of electromagnetic spectrum?
a) 380 to 780 mm
b) 780 to 1080 nm
c) 380 to 780 nm
d) 380 to 1080 nm

Answer: c [Reason:] The region in the electromagnetic spectrum which is normally used in spectroscopic work is very limited. Visible light represents only a very small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum and generally covers a range from 380 to 780 nm. The ultraviolet region extends from 185 mm to the visible.

8. The ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power incident on the sample is known as ________
a) Absorbance
b) Transmittance
c) Optical density
d) Photometric concentration

Answer: b [Reason:] Let us suppose, Po is the incident radiant energy and P is the energy which is transmitted. The ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power incident on the sample is known as the transmittance. Transmittance = P/Po

9. If absorbance is plotted graphically against concentration, the graph is _________
a) Parabola
b) Increasing
c) Straight line
d) Decreasing