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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The instrument which carries out a continuous and simultaneous recording of the instantaneous foetal heart rate and labour activity is called ____________
a) Ergometer
b) Cardiotocograph
c) Cardiotocometer
d) Cardiotonometer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cardiotocography (CTG) is a technical means of recording the fetal heartbeat and the uterine contractions during pregnancy. The machine used to perform the monitoring is called a cardiotocograph, more commonly known as an electronic fetal monitor(EFM).

2. In the cardiotocograph, sensitivity of _______of recording chart allows adequate reading of the recorder FHR.
a) 30 bpm / cm
b) 10 bpm / cm
c) 20 bpm / cm
d) 15 bpm / cm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Normally, an accuracy of measurement of foetal heart rate may be 2-3% for classification for responses. Sensitivity of 20 bpm /cm of recording chart allows adequate reading of the recorder FHR. Labour activity and FHR traces are usually recorded simultaneously on the same time scale.

3. What is the chart speed in cardiotocograph to provide sufficient resolution of the stimulus- response relationship?
a) 1-2 cm / sec
b) 2-3 cm / min
c) 1-2 cm / min
d) 2-3 cm / sec

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Normally, an accuracy of measurement of foetal heart rate may be 2-3% for classification for responses. Sensitivity of 20 bpm /cm of recording chart allows adequate reading of the recorder FHR. Labour activity and FHR traces are usually recorded simultaneously on the same time scale. Chart speed of 1-2 cm / min is adequate to provide sufficient resolution of the stimulus- response relationship.

4. Which of the following is not an indirect method of foetal heart rate in cordiotocography monitoring?
a) Foetal ECG with scalp electrode
b) Foetal phonocardiogram
c) Abdominal foetal electrocardiogram
d) Ultrasound techniques

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The following methods are commonly employed in most of the cardiotocographic monitoring during labour: I) Indirect method: Abdominal foetal electrocardiogram, foetal phonocardiogram, ultrasound techniques (narrow beam and wide-angle transducer) II) Direct method: Foetal ECG with scalp electrode (spiral, clip or suction electrode attached to the presenting part of the foetus).

5. Which of the following is direct technique of uterine contraction in cardiotocographic monitoring?
a) Tocodynamometry
b) Intrauterine pressure measurement
c) Phonocardiometry
d) Ultrasound technique

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The following techniques are commonly used in uterine contraction in most of the cardiotocographic monitoring: I) Indirect method: Tocodynamometry (using tocotonometer to sense changes in uterine tension transmitted to abdominal skin surface) II) Direct method: Intrauterine pressure measurement (using a fluid-filled intracervical catheter with strain gauge transducer).

6. What is the range of instantaneous “beat-to-beat” rate which is displayed on a calibrated linear scale?
a) 200-220 bpm
b) 150-210 bpm
c) 50-200 bpm
d) 50-210 bpm

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Instantaneous “beat-to-beat” rate is displayed on a calibrated linear scale or digitally displayed with a range from 50 to 210 bpm. A two channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity.

7. One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated _______
a) 50-210 mmHg
b) 0-210 mmHg
c) 0-100 mmHg
d) 0-50 mmHg

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A two channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity. . One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated 0-100 mmHg. The record is printed on thermo-sensitive z-fold paper using a high resolution thermal matrix printer.

8. The galvanometer, which needs a frequency response of only 3 MHz, is positioned by a servo motor through a silent step-down belt drive.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] . The galvanometer, which needs a frequency response of only 3 Hz, is positioned by a servo motor through a silent step-down belt drive. Recording sensitivity is 20 bpm / cm giving a basic resolution of 1 bpm for seeing small changes in the heart rate.

9. The intrauterine pressure can reach values of _______ or more during the expulsion period.
a) 150 mmHg
b) 200 mmHg
c) 220 mmHg
d) 250 mmHg

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] During labour, the uterus muscle starts contraction of increasing intensity in a bid to expel out the child. The intrauterine pressure can reach values of 150 mmHg or more during the expulsion period. However, a normal patient in spontaneous active labour will demonstrate uterine contractions occurring at intervals of three to five minutes, with a duration of 30 to 70 s and peak intensity of 50 to 75 mmHg.

10. Which transducer cannot be used in the same place as the foetal heart rate detector, thus the patient must have two transducers on her abdomen?
a) Cardiotocometer
b) Toco-tonometer
c) LVDT
d) IUPC

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The toco-transducers are location sensitive. They should be placed over the fundus where there is maximum motion with the contractions. The toco-tonometer transducer cannot be used in the same place as the foetal heart rate detector, thus the patient must have two transducers on her abdomen.

Set 2

1. The removal of waste products during dialysis is ___________
a) inversely proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane
b) proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane
c) proportional to the flow rate across the membrane
d) inversely proportional to the flow rate across the membrane

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The removal of waste products during dialysis is proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane. In order to effect the maximum gradient, the concentration of waste products in the dialysate should be maintained at zero. This is achieved in most currently employed machines by using the dialysate only once and then discarding it.

2. Counter-current flow through the artificial kidney is used so that the dialysate enters the kidney at the blood exit-end. Where blood concentration of waste products is at the lowest level?
a) lowest level
b) very high level
c) high level
d) medium level

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Counter-current flow through the artificial kidney is used so that the dialysate enters the kidney at the blood exit-end where blood concentration of waste products is at the lowest level. The removal of waste products during dialysis is proportional to the concentration gradient across the membrane. In order to effect the maximum gradient, the concentration of waste products in the dialysate should be maintained at zero.

3. Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance. Because of this blood pump is required.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Parallel flow dialyzer has a low internal resistance which allows adequate blood flow through the dialyzer with the patient’s arterial blood pressure, eliminating the need for a blood pump. The dialyzing surface area of a parallel flow dialyzer is about 1 sq m. At a blood flow rate of 200 ml/min and a dialysate flow of 500 ml/min, the urea and creatinine clearance is about 80 and 64 ml/min.

4. KIIL dialyzer is a type of _________
a) coil hemodialyzer
b) hollow fiber dialyzer
c) series flow dialyzer
d) parallel flow dialyzer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The KIIL dialyzer has earlier been the most commonly used form of parallel flow dialyzer. It consists of three polypropylene boards with dialyzing membranes laid between them. The boards are held firmly with a frame on the top and bottom and are fastened by a series of bolts on the side.

5. The KIIL dialyzer is not disposable.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is true. The KIIL dialyzer is not disposable. It needs to be cleaned and re-built after each dialysis operation. With this type of dialyzer, a single-pass body temperature dialysate passes through the dialyzer once before going to the drain to obtain higher operational efficiency and to minimize bacterial infection.

6. Optical fiber sensors are not immune to electromagnetic disturbances.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Optical fiber sensors are electrically passive and consequently immune to electromagnetic disturbances. They are geometrically flexible and corrosion resistant. They can be miniaturized and are most suitable for telemetry applications.

7. In which of the following optic fiber sensor the fiber is simply used to carry light to and from an external optical device where the sensing takes place?
a) extrinsic fiber optic sensor
b) energized fiber optic sensor
c) all fibers are used to simply carry light to and from the external optical devices
d) intrinsic fiber optic sensor

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In an extrinsic fiber optic sensor fiber is simply used to carry light to and from an external optical device where the sensing takes place. In intrinsic fiber optic sensor one or more of the physical properties of the fiber undergo a change.

8. The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as __________
a) secondary volume
b) quarterly volume
c) priming volume
d) residual volume

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as priming volume. It is desirable that this should be minimal. Priming volume of present day dialyzers range from 75 to 200 ml, depending on the membrane area geometry and operating conditions.

9. The ideal membrane should possess __________
a) low permeability to water
b) high permeability to water
c) medium permeability to water
d) high permeability to waste

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The ideal membrane should possess high permeability to water, organic metabolites and ions, and the capability of retaining plasma proteins. The membrane should be of sufficient wet strength to resist tearing or bursting and non-toxic to blood and all body cells.

10. Which of the following is the commonly used membrane for hemodialysis?
a) Cupraphan
b) Cotton
c) Cellulose
d) calcium

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Cupraphan is the commonly used membrane for haemodialysis. It is a membrane consisting of natural cellulose and is considered puncture-proof, and of high tenacity and elasticity. During haemodialysis, different substances of varying molecular weight are to be removed.

11. Which of the following is considered to be the primary pacemaker of the heart?
a) sino-atrial node
b) atrio-ventricular node
c) purkinje fibres
d) bundle of his

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Located in the top right atrium near the entry of the vena cava, are a group of cells known as the sion-atrial node (SA node) that initiates the heart activity. Because of this is is also considered as the primary pacemaker of the heart. The SA node is 25 to 30 mm in length and 2 to 5 mm in thickness.

12. Atrio ventricular node is located at __________
a) upper part of the heart wall between the two atrial
b) lower part of the heart wall above the two atrial
c) lower part of the heart wall between the two atrial
d) upper part of the heart wall above the two atrial

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The AV node is located in the lower part of the wall between the two atria. The AV node delays the spread of excitation for about 0.12s, due to the presence od a fibrous barrier of non-excitable cells that effectively prevent its propagation from continuing beyond the limits of stria.

13. According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, odd number denotes which side of the brain?
a) left
b) right
c) top
d) front

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The position of each electrode is specified using the International 10/20 system. Each electrode site is labeled with a letter and a number. Odd number denote the left side of the head.

14. The delta wave in EEG ranges from _________
a) 0.5-4Hz
b) 4-8Hz
c) 8-13Hz
d) 13-22Hz

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The delta wave in EEG ranges from 0.5-4Hz. The theta wave in EEG ranges from 4-8Hz. The alpha wave in EEG ranges from 8-13Hz and beta from 13-22Hz.

15. Disturbance in the EEG pattern resulting from the external stimuli is called ________
a) provoked response
b) ckoored response
c) evoked response
d) impulse response

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Disturbance in the EEG pattern resulting from the external stimuli is called evoked response. The stimuli could be a flash light or a click of sound. The stimuli can be repeated and the EEG waveform can be observed to find the activities occurring because of the stimuli.

Set 3

1. Which principle is used by ear oximeter usually?
a) in vivo
b) transmission
c) reflection
d) in vitro

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ear oximeters usually make use of the transmission principle to measure the arterial oxygen saturation. In this case, the pinna of the ear acts as a cuvette. Blood in the ear must be made similar to arterial blood in composition.

2. Blood in ___________ must be made similar to arterial Blood in composition.
a) heart
b) brain
c) ear
d) eyes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Blood in the ear must be made similar to arterial blood in composition. This is done by increasing the flow through the ear without appreciably increasing the metabolism. Maximum vasodilatation is achieved by keeping the ear warm.

3. By keeping the ear warm, maximum vasodilatation is achieved.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Yes, maximum vasodilatation is achieved by keeping the ear warm. It takes about 5 or 10 min for the ear to become fully dilated after the ear unit has been put up in place and the lamp turned on.

4. What is time taken for the ear to become fully dilated after ear unit has been placed?
a) 5-10 min
b) 10-15 min
c) 15-20 min
d) 20-25 min

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Maximum vasodilatation is achieved by keeping the ear warm .It takes about 5 or 10 min for the ear to become fully dilated after the ear unit has been put up in place and the lamp turned on.

5. Merrick and Hayes (1976) describe details of an __________ oximeter which enables the measurement of oxygen saturation of blood.
a) Pulse
b) Ear
c) Skin Reflectance
d) Intravascular

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Merrick and Hayes (1976) describe details of an ear oximeter which enables the measurement of oxygen saturation of blood. This measurement is independent of a wide range of encountered variables and is made without involving patients in any calibration or standardization procedure.

6. This technique involves measuring the optical transmittance of the ear at how many wavelengths?
a) 12
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In brief, the technique involves measuring the optical transmittance of the ear at 8 wavelengths in the 650 to 1050 nm range. A 2.5 m long flexible fibre ear probe connects the patient to the instrument.

7. Ear probe which connects the patient to instrument is __________ m long.
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A 2.5 m long flexible fibre ear probe connects the patient to the instrument. The ear probe can be either held in position for discrete measurements or can be conveniently mounted to a headband for continuous display.

8. Ear oximeter instrument is based on Beer- Lambert law.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The instrument is based on the Beer-Lambert law. However, it is assumed that the optical absorbers act independently and additively and that the effects of light scattering by the ear tissue can be minimized by a proper source and detector geometry.

9. The percentage of functional haemoglobin combined with oxygen is expressed as ______
a) (concentration of oxyhaemoglobin/{ concentration of oxyhaemoglobin+ concentration of deoxyhaemoglobin})*100
b) (concentration of deoxyhaemoglobin/{ concentration of oxyhaemoglobin+ concentration of deoxyhaemoglobin})*100
c)( { concentration of oxyhaemoglobin+ concentration of deoxyhaemoglobin}/concentration of deoxyhaemoglobin)*100
d) ({ concentration of oxyhaemoglobin+ concentration of deoxyhaemoglobin}/concentration of oxyhaemoglobin)*100

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The instrument is designed to measure the percentage of functional hemoglobin combined with oxygen. This can be expressed as: biomedical-instrumentation-questions-answers-digital-stethoscope-q9

where CO is the concentration of oxyhemoglobin and CR is the concentration of deoxyhemoglobin.

10. What is used as light source in ear oximeter?
a) Mercury-vapor lamp
b) Sodium-vapor lamp
c) Tungsten-iodine lamp
d) Sulfur lamp

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The light source is a tungsten-iodine lamp that has a high output in the spectrum of interest. A lens system collimates the light beam and directs it through thin-film interference filters that provide wavelength selection.

Set 4

1. How many kidneys does a human have?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column. Each kidney consists of about a million individual units, all similar in structure and function.The main function of the kidneys is to form urine out of blood plasma.

2. The removal of waste products from blood plasma is performed by ___________
a) kidney
b) liver
c) heart
d) lungs

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The main function of the kidneys is to form urine out of blood plasma, which basically consists of two processes: (i) the removal of waste products fromblood plasma, and (ii) the regulation of the composition of blood plasma. The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column.

3. The regulation of the composition of blood plasma is done by which of the following organ?
a) skin
b) heart
c) kidney
d) lung

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column. The main function of the kidneys is to form urine out of blood plasma, which basically consists of two processes: (i) the removal of waste products from blood plasma, and (ii) the regulation of the composition of blood plasma.

4. Each kidney consists of about a million individual units, all similar in structure and function. These tiny units are called
a) nerves
b) neurons
c) capillaries
d) nephrons

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Each kidney consists of about a million individual units, all similar in structure and function. These tiny units are called nephrons. A nephron is composed of two parts—a cluster of capillary loops called the glomerulus and a tubule.

5. Which of the following is the correct anatomical position of kidney?
a) front of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm
b) back of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm
c) back of the abdominal cavity just above the diaphragm
d) front of the abdominal cavity just above the diaphragm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The human body has two kidneys which lie in the back of the abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm, one on each side of the vertebral column. Each kidney consists of about a million individual units, all similar in structure and function. These tiny units are called nephrons.

6. Each kidney consists _______ number of nephrons.
a) thousands
b) millions
c) billions
d) trillions

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Each kidney consists millions number of nephrons. A nephron is composed of two parts—a cluster of capillary loops called the glomerulus and a tubule. The tubule runs a tortuous course and ultimately drains via a collecting duct into the funnel-shaped expansion of the upper end of the ureter, i.e. the tube which conveys urine from the kidney to the bladder.

7. The kidneys work only on plasma.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The kidneys work only on plasma. The erythrocytes supply oxygen to the kidneys but serve no other function in urine formation. Each substance in plasma is handled in a characteristic manner by the nephron, involving particular combinations of filtration, re-absorption and secretion.

8. The carry blood at a very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular capillary
a) renal arteries
b) russal arteries
c) pulmonary arteries
d) fenal arteries

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The renal arteries carry blood at a very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular capillary tuft. The blood pressure within the glomerular capillaries is 70–90 mm of mercury. The blood flow through the capillary tuft is controlled by the state of contraction of the muscle of the arteriole leading to the tuft.

9. Blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries is in the range of ?
a) 17-19 mmHg
b) 7-9 mmHg
c) 170-190 mmHg
d) 70-90 mmHg

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The blood pressure within the glomerular capillaries is 70–90 mm of mercury. The blood flow through the capillary tuft is controlled by the state of contraction of the muscle of the arteriole leading to the tuft. The renal arteries carry blood at a very high pressure from the aorta into the glomerular capillary tuft.

10. The glomerular filtrate consists of blood plasma with proteins.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is false. The glomerular filtrate consists of blood plasma without proteins. The fluid pressure within the tuft forces some of the fluid part of the blood, by filtration, through the thin walls of the capillaries into the glomerulus and on into the tubule of the nephron.

Set 5

1. What is intrauterine pressure during the expulsion period?
a) 130 mm Hg
b) 140 mm Hg
c) 150 mm Hg
d) 160 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] During labour, the uterus muscle starts contractions of increasing intensity in a bid to expel out the child. The intrauterine pressure can reach values of 150 mmHg or more during the expulsion period. However, a normal patient in spontaneous active labour will demonstrate uterine contractions occurring at intervals of three to five minutes, with a duration of 30 to 70 s and peak intensity of 50 to 75 mmHg.

2. What is the interval of uterine contractions in a normal patient in spontaneous active labour?
a) 1 to 3 minutes
b) 3 to 5 minutes
c) 5 to 7 minutes
d) 7 to 9 minutes

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] During labour, the uterus muscle starts contractions of increasing intensity in a bid to expel out the child. The intrauterine pressure can reach values of 150 mmHg or more during the expulsion period. However, a normal patient in spontaneous active labour will demonstrate uterine contractions occurring at intervals of three to five minutes, with a duration of 30 to 70 s and peak intensity of 50 to 75 mmHg.

3. What is the duration of uterine contractions in a normal patient in spontaneous active labour?
a) 0 to 30 s
b) 30 to 70 s
c) 80 to 100 s
d) 110 to 150 s

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] During labour, the uterus muscle starts contractions of increasing intensity in a bid to expel out the child. The intrauterine pressure can reach values of 150 mmHg or more during the expulsion period. However, a normal patient in spontaneous active labour will demonstrate uterine contractions occurring at intervals of three to five minutes, with a duration of 30 to 70 s and peak intensity of 50 to 75 mmHg.

4. The toco-transducers are temperature sensitive .
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, The toco-transducers are location sensitive. They should be placed over the fundus where there is maximum motion with the contractions. The toco-tonometer transducer cannot be used in the same place as the foetal heart rate detector, thus the patient must have two transducers on her abdomen.

5. What is the peak intensity of uterine contractions in a normal patient in spontaneous active labour?
a) 0 to 35 mm Hg
b) 50 to 75 mm Hg
c) 90 to 120 mm Hg
d) 120 to 150 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] During labour, the uterus muscle starts contractions of increasing intensity in a bid to expel out the child. The intrauterine pressure can reach values of 150 mmHg or more during the expulsion period. However, a normal patient in spontaneous active labour will demonstrate uterine contractions occurring at intervals of three to five minutes, with a duration of 30 to 70 s and peak intensity of 50 to 75 mmHg.

6. What are labour-activity transducers?
a) temperature transducer
b) ultrasonic transducer
c) pressure transducer
d) piezoelectric transducer

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The labour-activity transducers are pressure transducers that drive circuits for obtaining an electrical indication of pressure by conventional means. The pressure channel on the recorder is provided with a positioning control. This is done because the baseline is affected by the static pressure on the transducer that results from the tension on the belt holding the transducer in place.

7. What is used to convert movement of transducer due to increase of tension in uterus into electric signal?
a) AC Amplifier
b) Strain guage
c) Synchronous detector
d) piezoelectric crystal

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The transducer carries a protruding tip which is pressed to the mother’s abdomen with a light force to ensure an effective coupling. The protruding surface of the transducer is displaced as the tension in the uterus increases. This movement is converted into an electrical signal by a strain gauge in the transducer housing. The abdominal transducer provides a reliable indication of the occurrence frequency, duration and relative intensity of the contraction.

8. The narrow beam transducer permits the operator to position the baseline on the zero-level line of recording chart.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, The labour-activity transducers are pressure transducers that drive circuits for obtaining an electrical indication of pressure by conventional means. The pressure channel on the recorder is provided with a positioning control. This is done because the baseline is affected by the static pressure on the transducer that results from the tension on the belt holding the transducer in place. The control permits the operator to position the baseline on the zero-level line of the recording chart.

9. In external toco-tonometry,movement of _____ may be superimposed on labour activity.
a) heart
b) eye
c) foetus
d) muscle

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In external toco-tonometry, movement of the foetus may be superimposed on the labour activity curve. Stress imposed on the foetal circulatory system by the uterine contractions, foetal movements or other factors are seen in the response of the foetal heart to these stimuli and are studied in the correct time relationship.

10. What is measured in internal method using fluid-filled catheter?
a) IUP
b) ECG
c) IUC
d) EMG

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The internal method measures intra-uterine pressure (IUP) via a fluid-filled catheter. The catheter is inserted into the uterus through a guide after the rupture of the foetal membranes. After allowing free flow of amniotic fluid to ensure correct placement, the distal end of the catheter is usually attached to a pressure transducer of the type used for cardiac studies.

11. What is range of Instantaneous beat to beat rate digitally displayed?
a) 0 to 50 bpm
b) 50 to 210 bpm
c) 210 to 350 bpm
d) 350 to 410 bpm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Instantaneous “beat-to-beat” rate is displayed on a calibrated linear scale or digitally displayed with a range from 50 to 210 bpm. A two-channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity. One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute (50–210 bpm) while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated 0-100 mmHg.

12. A _______ channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Instantaneous “beat-to-beat” rate is displayed on a calibrated linear scale or digitally displayed with a range from 50 to 210 bpm. A two-channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity. One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute (50–210 bpm) while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated 0-100 mmHg.

13. What is standard chart speed?
a) 2 cm/min
b) 3 cm/min
c) 4 cm/min
d) 5 cm/min

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A two-channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity. One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute (50–210 bpm) while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated 0-100 mmHg. The standard chart speed is usually 1 or 2 cm/min.

14. In two-channel chart recorder, FHR is recorded on a calibrated chart in ________
a) cm/min
b) m/min
c) beats/min
d) pulses/min

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A two-channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity. One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute (50–210 bpm) while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated 0-100 mmHg. The standard chart speed is usually 1 or 2 cm/min.

15. Uterine contractions is calibrated in range of ______ in two-channel chart recorder.
a) 0-100 mm Hg
b) 100-200 mm Hg
c) 200-300 mm Hg
d) 300-400 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A two-channel chart recorder is incorporated in instruments used for monitoring labour activity. One channel records FHR on a calibrated chart in beats per minute (50–210 bpm) while the other channel is used for recording uterine contractions calibrated 0-100 mmHg. The standard chart speed is usually 1 or 2 cm/min.