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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Interruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures is called _________
a) Functional Limitation
b) Pathophysiology
c) Societal Limitation
d) Modality-Specific

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Interruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures is called Pathophysiology. Modality-Specific is a task that is specific to a single sense or movement pattern. Functional limitation is restriction or lack of ability to perform an action in the manner or within the range consistent with the purpose of an organ or organ system.

2. For rehabilitation engineering perspective a task that is specific to a single sense or movement pattern is called ___________
a) Functional Limitation
b) Societal Limitation
c) Modality-Specific
d) Pathophysiology

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A task that is specific to a single sense or movement pattern is called Modality- Specific. Interruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures is called Pathophysiology. Functional limitation is restriction or lack of ability to perform an action in the manner or within the range consistent with the purpose of an organ or organ system.

3. An artificial limb, a sensory substitution system, or an augmentative communication aid is prosthetic devices __________
a) therapeutic device
b) diagnostics device
c) orthosis device
d) prosthetic device

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] : An appliance that substitutes for the loss of a particular function, generally by involving a different modality as an input and/or output channel. An artificial limb, a sensory substitution system, or an augmentative communication aid is prosthetic devices.

4. Aesthetics of appearance is called ____________
a) orthosis
b) cosmesis
c) lymphosis
d) homeostasis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Aesthetics of appearance is called cosmesis. Orthosis is a modality-specific appliance that aids the performance of a function or movement by augmenting or assisting the residual capabilities of that function or movement.

5. Filter that amplifies frequency above certain value is called ___________
a) low pass filter
b) high pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) band stop filter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency. Band pass filter amplifies frequencies with in a certain band. Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band.

6. Transcutaneous means ________
a) passing to the skin
b) passing to the bones
c) passing to the heart
d) passing to the lungs

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Transcutaneous means passing to the skin. This term generally used with the type of surgical instrument to be used. It is also used to describe the interaction of rehabilitation devices.

7. Which of the following is not a soft tissue?
a) ligament
b) bone
c) tendons
d) skin

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Hard tissue, mineralized tissue, and calcified tissue are often used as synonyms for bone when describing the structure and properties of bone or tooth. Biological soft tissues are nonlinear, anisotropic, fibrous composites, and detailed description of their behavior is the subject of active research. One can separate these tissues based on their mode of loading: cartilage is generally loaded in compression; tendons and ligaments are loaded in tension; and muscles generate active tension.

8. Blood vessels are _______
a) soft tissue
b) hard tissue
c) connective and hard tissue
d) connective ans soft tissue

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Option d id correct which says blood is a soft and connective tissue. Soft tissues include tendon, ligament, blood vessels etc. Hard tissues include bones.

9. Bones serve as a reservoir for calcium and phosphorus, essential minerals for various cellular activities which happen throughout the human body.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True. Bones serve as a reservoir for calcium and phosphorus, essential minerals for various cellular activities that occure throughout the body. The composition of bone depends on a large number of factors: the species, which bone, the location from which the sample is taken, and the age, sex, and type of bone tissue, for example, woven, cancellous, cortical.

10. Bones are non – living tissues.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is false. Bones are living tissues. They keep growing. They also are responsible for the production of blood cells and act a mineral reservoir in the body. They also play the role of protection of internal soft organs like the brain is protected by skull and lungs and heart by rib cage.

Set 2

1. Pure-tone audiometers usually generate test tones in octave steps from ___________
a) 125 to 800 Hz
b) 125 to 8000 Hz
c) 25 to 8000 Hz
d) 15 to 800 Hz

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Pure-tone audiometers usually generate test tones in octave steps from 125 to 8000 Hz, the signal intensity ranging from –10 dB to +100 dB. Pure-tone audiometry is used in routine tests and, therefore, it is the most widely used technique for determining hearing loss. Pure-tone audiometry has several advantages, which makes it specifically suitable for making threshold sensitivity measurements. A pure-tone is the simplest type of auditory stimulus. It can be specified accurately in terms of frequency and intensity.

2. Speech audiometry normally allows measurements to be made within the frequency range of _____
a) 300–3000 Hz
b) 30–300 Hz
c) 300–3000 KHz
d) 3–30K Hz

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Speech audiometry normally allows measurements to be made within the frequency range of 300–3000 Hz. Pure-tone audiometers usually generate test tones in octave steps from 125 to 8000 Hz, the signal intensity ranging from –10 dB to +100 dB. Some patients may have impaired high frequency response due to high intensity level occupational noise at 4000 or 6000 Hz.

3. The signal intensity of Pure-tone audiometers ranging from ______
a) 10 dB to +100 dB
b) –10 dB to -100 dB
c) –10 dB to +100 dB
d) –10 dB to +10 dB

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Pure-tone audiometers usually generate test tones in octave steps from 125 to 8000 Hz, the signal intensity ranging from –10 dB to +100 dB. A wave in air, which involves only one frequency of vibration, is known as pure-tone. Pure-tone audiometry is used in routine tests and, therefore, it is the most widely used technique for determining hearing loss. Pure-tone audiometry has several advantages, which makes it specifically suitable for making threshold sensitivity measurements.

4. The frequency range of pure-tone audiometer is more than that of speech audiometer.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is True. The frequency range of pure-tone audiometer is more than that of speech audiometer. Pure-tone audiometers usually generate test tones in octave steps from 125 to 8000 Hz, the signal intensity ranging from –10 dB to +100 dB. Speech audiometry normally allows measurements to be made within the frequency range of 300–3000 Hz. Pure-tone audiometry has several advantages, which makes it specifically suitable for making threshold sensitivity measurements.

5. ___________ amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by the power supply in the ECG circuit.
a) low pass filters
b) high pass filters
c) band pass filters
d) notch filters

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] CMRR of the order of 100–120 dB with 5 kW unbalance in the leads is a desirable feature of ECG machines. A notch filter is employed to suppress the hum noise generated by the power supply in the ECG circuit.The instability of the baseline, originating from the changes of the contact impedance, demands the application of the automatic baseline stabilizing circuit.

6. The unit of sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is ________
a) m/mV
b) mm/V
c) mm/mV
d) m/V

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The unit of sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is mm/mV. The sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is typically set at 10 mm/mV. Time measurements and heart rate measurements are made horizontally on the electrocardiogram. For routine work, the paper recording speed is 25 mm/s.

7. The volume of blood out side the dialyzer is known as priming volume.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as priming volume. It is desirable that this should be minimal. Priming volume of present day dialyzers range from 75 to 200 ml, depending on the membrane area geometry and operating conditions.

8. The range of CMRR of Foetal electrocardiogram is ______________
a) 0-120 dB
b) 0-200 dB
c) 0-150 dB
d) 0- 130 dB

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The range of CMRR of Foetal electrocardiogram is 0-120 dB. After proper placement of the electrodes, the signals are amplified in a preamplifier which provides a very high input impedance (100 MW) and a high sensitivity and good common mode rejection ratio (up to 120 dB). Abdominal FECG processing circuit is used for computing foetal heart rate.

9. Power Line Hum is responsible for most of common-mode interfering signal.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is True. Power Line Hum is responsible for most of common-mode interfering signal. This is suppressed by a notch filter following the input amplifier. A sizable common-mode signal manages to pass through the input amplifier, a circumstance to be expected whenever electrodes spaced a few centimetres apart are attached to the human body in a hospital environment.

10. What is the role of Cupraphan in haemodialysis?
a) used to check conductivity of dialyzer
b) used as membrane
c) used to check blood leakage
d) not at all used

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cupraphan is the commonly used membrane for haemodialysis. During haemodialysis, different substances of varying molecular weight are to be removed. It is a membrane consisting of natural cellulose and is considered puncture-proof, and of high tenacity and elasticity.

11. Which of the following is the property of instrumentational amplifier?
a) Extremely low input impedance
b) high bias and offset currents
c) low slew rate
d) Very high CMRR

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Instrumentational amplifiers have very high CMRR. Instrumentational amplifiers have extremely high input impedance. Instrumentational amplifiers have low bias and offset currents. Instrumentational amplifiers have high slew rate.

12. Foetal ECG signal detected via electrodes placed on mother’s abdomen is complex and requires attenuation of maternal signals for obtaining FHR.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is True. Foetal ECG signal detected via electrodes placed on the mother’s abdomen is complex and requires attenuation of maternal signals for obtaining FHR. Also, due to the overlapping of the foetal ECG with the maternal ECG, about 20% to 50% of the expected pulses may be missing.

13. The blood is a good conductor of electricity.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is False. The blood is not a good conductor of electricity. Blood is a poor conductor of electricity. This principal is used in Coulter counters to count the number of RBCs in the blood.

14. The range of FHR measurement due to substitution logic is between __________ bpm.
a) 20-220
b) 60-260
c) 40-240
d) 0-200

View Answer

Answer: c 16.Explanation: The range of FHR measurement due to substitution logic is between 40-240 bpm. The range of FHR measurement is limited to 40–240 bpm because of the substitution logic. Thereafter, the output of logic circuits go to standard heart rate computing circuits. The substitution logic requires a delay time to establish a missing foetal trigger pulse. It is thus kept as 270 ms.

Set 3

1. Ambulatory monitoring of ECG is called ____________
a) Event Cardiography
b) Holter Cardiography
c) Real-Time Cardiography
d) Implantable Cardiography

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ambulatory monitoring of ECG is called ‘Holter Cardiography’, after Dr Norman Holter who introduced this concept in 1962. A Holter monitor is a type of ambulatory electrocardiography device, a portable device for cardiac monitoring (the monitoring of the electrical activity of the cardiovascular system) for at least 24 hours (often for two weeks at a time).

2. Which of the following type of systems are not available for ambulatory ECG monitoring?
a) Holter monitors
b) Event Recorders
c) Time Recorders
d) Implantable Loop Recorders

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Currently, following four types of systems are available for ambulatory ECG monitoring: I) Holter Monitors II) Event Recorders III) Real-Time Continuous Cardiac Monitoring System IV) Implantable Loop Recorders.

3.The current state of Holter technology uses small recorders, which size is about _______
a) 75 x 20 x 90 cm
b) 75 x 95 x 20 cm
c) 75 x 20 x 95 mm
d) 75 x 95 x 20 mm

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The current state of Holter technology uses small recorders (size 75 x 95 x 20 mm; weight about 190 g) with flashcard technology to record and store data from 2 to 3 ECG leads attached to the patient’s chest and collected continuously over 24 to 48 hours.

4. Who provides an excellent review of ambulatory cardiac event recorders?
a) Handelsman
b) Benz
c) Alfonso
d) Friesen

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] An excellent review of ambulatory cardiac event recorders is provided by Benz in 1999. The major advantage of these devices compared with a traditional Holter monitor is that they are small, allow ECG monitoring for longer time periods, and can provide nearly real time data analysis when the patient transmits a recording in proximity to the symptomatic event.

5. The monitor automatically transmits recorded data transtelephonically to a central monitoring station for subsequent analysis when, an arrhythmia is detected by an arrhythmia algorithm.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In Real-Time Continuos Cardiac Monitoring Systems, the monitor is equipped with software that analyzes the rhythm data continuously and automatically. The monitor automatically transmits recorded data transtelephonically (by wireless network or land phone line) to a central monitoring station for subsequent analysis when, an arrhythmia is detected by an arrhythmia algorithm.

6. In the data recording, the normal speed of sub miniature tape recorder is ___________
a) 3 cm/s
b) 2 cm/s
c) 3 mm/s
d) 2 mm/s

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In data recording, the core of the modern ambulatory monitoring system is a multichannel sub-miniature tape recorder running normally at a speed of 2 mm/s. At this speed, a C-120 entertainment cassette will run for 24 hours.

7. In data recorders, during replay, the tape is run at ________ to achieve rapid manual or automatic scanning of ambulatory records.
a) 80 times of recording speed
b) 70 times of recording speed
c) 60 times of recording speed
d) 50 times of recording speed

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In data recorders, during replay, the tape is run at 120 mm/s (60 times the recording speed) to achieve rapid manual or automatic scanning of ambulatory records. The tape recorders used for this purpose have some special features as compared to the usually available entertainment tape recorders.

8. Which of the following is not an arrhythmic condition?
a) Cardiographic beat
b) Bradycardia
c) Dropped beat
d) Ectopic beat

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The analyzer part in automatic scanning of ambulatory records look for four arrhythmic conditions. These are bradycardia, tachycardia, dropped beat and premature beat. A threshold control is associated with each of these and when the appropriate threshold is exceeded, an alarm condition is generated.

9. Which CPU has overall system control responsibility?
a) Control
b) Acquisition
c) Control and timing
d) Acquisition and display

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The control and timing CPU has overall system control responsibility. It also handles individuals functions such as keyboard and direct writer interface, tape deck control, timing data processing, and arrhythmia count totalizing via a high speed interrupt system.

10. Full form of P-FCB is ________
a) Planar-Functional Circuit Board
b) Planar-Fashionable Circuit Branch
c) Planar-Functional Circuit Board
d) Planar-Fashionable Circuit Board

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The full form of F-PCB is Planar-Fashionable Circuit Board. Sometimes in Holter monitoring, patient need typically 6 to 10 wires worn around the body throughout the day. To overcome these problems, a wearable electrocardiogram acquisition system implemented with planar-fashionable circuit board (F-PCB)-based shirt is explained by Yoo.

Set 4

1. Which one of the following is not the category of ECG compression techniques?
a) Transformation domain
b) Parameter Extraction
c) Frequency domain
d) Time domain

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Several ECG compression techniques have been proposed in the last few decades. These techniques can be classified into three major categories: i) Time domain ii) Transformation domain iii) Parameter Extraction.

2. The scan-along polygonal approximation and the amplitude zone time epoch coding are the examples of the __________ category of ECG compression techniques.
a) Transformation domain
b) Time domain
c) Parameter extraction
d) Frequency domain

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In the time domain category, the compression technique is applied directly to the samples of ECG signal in the time domain to remove redundant information. Examples include the scan-along polygonal approximation and the amplitude zone time epoch coding.

3. Which of the following techniques are not include in transformation domain category?
a) Wavelet transform
b) Discrete cosine transform
c) Fourier descriptors
d) Combine discrete cosine and Fourier transform

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In the transformation domain category, ECG samples are transformed to another domain. Examples include Fourier descriptors, discrete cosine transform, wavelet transform and combine discrete cosine and wavelet transform.

4. Who suggest a new discrete wavelet transform for compressing ECG signals with minimum loss of diagnostic information?
a) Alshamali
b) Friesen
c) Al-Ajlouni
d) Cox and Nolle

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Various Wavelet-based ECG compression techniques have been found to give lower distortion for the same compression ratios. A new discrete wavelet transform has been suggested by Al-Ajlouni for compression ECG signals with minimum loss of diagnostic information.

5. Full form of AZTEC _______________
a) Amplitude Zone Tech Epoch Coding
b) Amplitude Zone Time Epoch Coding
c) Arrhythmia Zone Tech Epoch Coding
d) Arrhythmia Zone Time Epoch Coding

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cox and Nolle suggested AZTEC (Amplitude-Zone-Time-Epoch-Coding) a pre-processing program for real time ECG rhythm analysis at an approximate data reduction rate of 10:1.

6. AZTEC contains digital logic, which is able to detect….
a) Baseline wander
b) QRS complex
c) R-R interval
d) Motion artifact

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] AZTEC contains digital logic, which is able to detect base line wander. Also, the sum of absolute values of all slopes is used for noise detection, but sudden bursts of muscle artifact or an excursion from baseline is distinguishable from an ECG wave only if the condition persists.

7. A signal of poor quality that cannot be processed is called chaotic.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The module runs once every second, depending upon the quality of the signal. If the signal is ‘chaotic’ (a signal of poor quality that cannot be processed) or ‘noisy’ (a signal of intermediate quality), no processing is carried out.

8. In a detection of waveform of ECG signal, a wave is considered as a T wave if _______
a) It occurs within a 120 ms interval
b) Its peak occurred within 1/6th the R-R interval
c) It occurs within a 200 ms interval
d) Its peak occurred within 1/3rd the R wave height

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] AT wave following a QRS is also searched. A wave is considered as a T wave if (i) it occurs within a 200 ms interval, (ii) its peak occurred within 1/3rd the R–R interval +80 ms or within 240 ms whichever is greater, following the preceding R wave, and (iii) its height is half the height of a normal R wave.

9. The four measurements of QRS and a fifth measurement called ________ based on height, duration and offset to those of the patient’s normal QRS are compared.
a) QRS polarity
b) R-to-R interval
c) Wiggle
d) Distance D

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The four measurements of QRS and a fifth measurement called ‘distance D’ based on height, duration and offset to those of the patient’s normal QRS are compared. Beats are classified on the basis of their deviation from the normal and may be definitely normal, probably normal, probably PVC or definitely PVC.

10. Cox and Nolle suggested AZTEC – pre-processing program for real time ECG rhythm analysis at an approximate data reduction rate of _______________
a) 1:10
b) 10:1
c) 1:20
d) 20:1

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cox and Nolle suggested AZTEC (Amplitude-Zone-Time-Epoch-Coding) a pre-processing program for real time ECG rhythm analysis at an approximate data reduction rate of 10:1.

Set 5

1. In which type of electromagnetic flowmeter,the probe magnet is energized with sine wave?
a) Sine wave electromagnetic flowmeter
b) Square wave electromagnetic flowmeter
c) Sawtooth wave electromagnetic flowmeter
d) Impulse wave electromagnetic flowmeter

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In a sine wave flowmeter, the probe magnet is energized with a sine wave and consequently the induced voltage will also be sinusoidal in nature. The major problem encountered with the sinusoidal type of magnetic field is that the blood vessel and the fluid contained in it act as the secondary coil of a transformer when the probe magnet is excited.

2. In which type of electromagnetic blood flowmeter, the energizing voltage given to magnet is a square wave?
a) Sine wave electromagnetic flowmeter
b) Square wave electromagnetic flowmeter
c) Sawtooth wave electromagnetic flowmeter
d) Impulse wave electromagnetic flowmeter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] This differs from a sine wave flowmeter in that the energizing voltage given to the magnet is a square wave and therefore, the induced voltage is also a square wave. The square wave flowmeter has less stringent requirements of phase stability than the sine wave type as it can suppress the quadrature voltages relatively easily.

3. The preamplifier used in square wave blood flowmeter has a CMRR of_______ dB.
a) 96
b) 100
c) 106
d) 110

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The preamplifier used by Goodman (1969(a)) has a CMRR of 106 dB (200,000 : 1) with a common mode input impedance of 150 MW. The preamplifier gain is of the order of 1000. The preamplifier also must incorporate the facility for ‘probe balance’ by which signals in phase with the magnet current can be selected to balance background voltages in phase with flow voltages.

4. What is the common mode input impedance of preamplifier used in square wave blood flowmeter?
a) 110 MW
b) 130 MW
c) 150 MW
d) 180 MW

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The preamplifier used by Goodman (1969(a)) has a CMRR of 106 dB (200,000 : 1) with a common mode input impedance of 150 MW. The preamplifier gain is of the order of 1000. The preamplifier also must incorporate the facility for ‘probe balance’ by which signals in phase with the magnet current can be selected to balance background voltages in phase with flow voltages. A calibrating signal of 30 mV amplitude can be connected to the preamplifier with an input selector switch.

5. A calibrating signal of _____ mV amplitude can be connected to preamplifier with an input selector switch
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The preamplifier used by Goodman (1969(a)) has a CMRR of 106 dB (200,000 : 1) with a common mode input impedance of 150 MW. The preamplifier gain is of the order of 1000. The preamplifier also must incorporate the facility for ‘probe balance’ by which signals in phase with the magnet current can be selected to balance background voltages in phase with flow voltages. A calibrating signal of 30 mV amplitude can be connected to the preamplifier with an input selector switch.

6. What is used to recover the signal, which is analogue of the flow rate being measured?
a) Low-pass filter
b) Phase sensitive detector
c) Gating Circuit
d) Bandpass filter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A phase sensitive detector is used to recover the signal, which is an analogue of the flow rate being measured. This type of demodulator not only offers maximum signal-to-noise ratio but also helps in the rejection of interfering voltages at frequencies well below the carrier frequency.

7. The major problem encountered with the sinusoidal type of magnetic field is that the blood vessel and the fluid contained in it act as the primary coil of a transformer when the probe magnet is excited.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False, The major problem encountered with the sinusoidal type of magnetic field is that the blood vessel and the fluid contained in it act as the secondary coil of a transformer when the probe magnet is excited. As a result, in addition to the induced flow voltage, there is an induced artefact voltage generally referred to as ‘transformer voltage’.

8. _______ instruments are now available for the measurement of blood velocity,volume flow,flow direction, flow profile and to visualize the internal lumen of blood vessel.
a) Transit-time
b) Doppler-shift
c) Square wave
d) Sine wave

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] For routine clinical measurements, the transcutaneous Doppler instrument has, by far, superseded the transit-time type. Therefore, most of the recent efforts have been concentrated on the development of Doppler-shift instruments, which are now available for the measurement of blood velocity, volume flow, flow direction, flow profile and to visualize the internal lumen of a blood vessel.

9. Which of the following is a non-invasive technique to measure blood velocity in a particular vessel from surface of body?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Ultrasonic
c) NMR
d) Laser Doppler

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ultrasonic is a non-invasive technique to measure blood velocity in a particular vessel from the surface of the body. It is based on the analysis of echo signals from the erythrocytes in the vascular structures. Because of the Doppler effect, the frequency of these echo signals changes relative to the frequency which the probe transmits.

10. Which of the following is a non invasive method for measurement of peripheral blood flow or blood flow in various organs?
a) Electromagnetic
b) Ultrasonic
c) NMR
d) Laser Doppler

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nuclear magnetic resonance principle offers yet another non-invasive method for the measurement of peripheral blood flow or blood flow in various organs. The method pertains to a quantum mechanical phenomenon related to the magnetic energy levels of the nucleus of some elements and their isotopes.

11. The Angular frequency of precession is given by W=2pv=rBo,where Bo is _______
a) ratio of magnetic moment to angular momentum
b) density of steady magnetic field
c) frequency of radiation
d) length of coil

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The angular frequency (Larmor frequency) of this precession is given by: W = 2p v = r Bo Where r is the ratio of the magnetic moment to the angular momentum (the magnetic gyro ratio) and Bo is the density of the steady magnetic field and v is the frequency of radiation.

12. For blood flow measurement work,behavior of the two hydrogen atoms of water is studied.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True, For blood flow measurement work, behaviour of the two hydrogen atoms of water is studied, since blood is approximately 83% water. Due to the magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom, the nucleus behaves as a microminiature magnet which can be affected by externally applied magnetic fields

13. The magnitude of magnetization can be related to either flow velocity or flow rate.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] True, The magnitude of the magnetization can be related to either flow velocity or flow rate. Since the magnetization can be changed at some point in a magnetic field, and the change detected at some distal point, it is possible to determine the transport time between the two points.

14. The Angular frequency of precession is given by W=2pv=rBo, where r is____________
a) ratio of magnetic moment to angular momentum
b) density of steady magnetic field
c) frequency of radiation
d) length of coil

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The angular frequency (Larmor frequency) of this precession is given by: W = 2p v = r Bo Where r is the ratio of the magnetic moment to the angular momentum (the magnetic gyro ratio) and Bo is the density of the steady magnetic field and v is the frequency of radiation.

15. The Angular frequency of precession is given by W=2pv=rBo, where v is _____________
a) ratio of magnetic moment to angular momentum
b) density of steady magnetic field
c) frequency of radiation
d) length of coil

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The angular frequency (Larmor frequency) of this precession is given by: W = 2p v = r Bo Where r is the ratio of the magnetic moment to the angular momentum (the magnetic gyro ratio) and Bo is the density of the steady magnetic field and v is the frequency of radiation.

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