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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The weight of vehicles affects ____________
a) pavement thickness
b) ruling gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) pavement thickness, ruling gradient and limiting gradient

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Weight transfer and load transfer are two expressions used somewhat confusingly to describe two distinct effects: the change in load borne by different wheels of even perfectly rigid vehicles during acceleration, and the change in center of mass (CoM) location relative to the wheels because of suspension compliance or cargo shifting or sloshing. In the automobile industry, weight transfer customarily refers to the change in load borne by different wheels during acceleration.This is more properly referred to as load transfer, and that is the expression used in the motorcycle industry.

2. Volume of traffic which would immediately use a new road or an improved one when opened to traffic, is known as ___________
a) general traffic
b) development traffic
c) normal traffic growth
d) current traffic

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Because Normal traffic growth is the increase in traffic volume due to the general increase in no of transportation vehicles from year to year.

3. The length of the side of warning sign boards of roads is ___________
a) 45 cm
b) 60 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 05 cm

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Road signs in the Republic of India are similar to those used in some parts of the United Kingdom, except that they are multilingual. Most urban roads and state highways have signs in the state language and English. National highways have signs in the Hindi and English. In 2012, the Tourism department of Kerala announced plans to upgrade road signs in the state to include maps of nearby hospitals. The Noida Authority announced plans to replace older signboards with new fluorescent signage.

4. Reinforcement in cement concrete slab of road pavements, is placed ____________
a) longitudinally
b) longitudinally and transversely
c) in the form of welded wire mesh
d) transversely

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In concrete pavement the longitudinal reinforcing steel is continuous throughout the pavement length. It is a joint less concrete pavement sufficiently reinforced to control cracking, without the aid of weakened transverse joints such as are used in ordinary or conventional type of jointed concrete pavement. Reinforced bars in the concrete are lapped to form continuous reinforcement holding the pavement together in all kinds of weather and preventing formation of large cracks that would otherwise reduce the service life of the pavement. CRCP has all the good features of concrete pavements such as durability, high structural strength, non-skid surface and good visibility at night, wet or dry—features which make concrete, and especially continuously reinforced concrete, a permanent road surfacing material.

5. Driving vehicles on wet surfaced roads, is dangerous because it may ___________
a) overturn
b) slip
c) skid
d) slip and skid

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] An automobile skid is an automobile handling condition where one or more tires are slipping relative to the road, and the overall handling of the vehicle has been affected. In (automotive) vehicle dynamics, slip is the relative motion between a tire and the road surface it is moving on. This slip can be generated either by the tire’s rotational speed being greater or less than the free-rolling speed, or by the tire’s plane of rotation being at an angle to its direction of motion.

6. The absolute minimum sight distance required for stopping a vehicle moving with a speed of 80 km ph, is ____________
a) 100 cm
b) 120 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 60 cm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] SSD = lag distance + braking distance. = v.t + v2/2gf.

= 22.22*2.5 + (22.2)2/(2*9.81*0.35).

= 126.5 (near to 120)

Where v is in m/s and t = reaction time(2.5sec acc. to IRC).

7. Enoscope is used to determine ___________
a) spot speed
b) average speed
c) travel time
d) average time

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Enoscope consists of a simple open housing containing a mirror mounted on a tripod at the side of the road in such a way that an observer’s line of sight turned through 90o. The observer stands at one end of section and on the other end enoscope is placed and measure the time taken by the vehicle to cross the section (fig 6.2). Advantages of this method are that it simple and eliminate the errors due to parallax and considerable time is required to time each vehicle, which lengthen the study period and under heavy traffic condition it may be difficult to relate ostentatious to proper vehicle are the disadvantages of enoscope method.

8. An Executive Engineer of roads, executes works under direct control of _________
a) Superintending Engineer
b) Secretary to the Govt
c) Chief Engineer
d) Junior engineer

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] On large construction projects, the superintendent’s (otherwise known as a ‘foreman’ outside the USA) job is to run the day-to-day operations on the construction site and control the short-term schedule. The role of the superintendent also includes important quality control and subcontractor coordination responsibilities. It is common for most finance-related tasks (especially labor and material cost control) and long-term scheduling to be handled by a project manager. The project manager and superintendent need to cooperate and share control effectively. Superintendents are almost universally stationed on the construction site, while project managers are usually based in the contractor’s office with part-time on site responsibilities.

9. In ideal pavement is constructed with _________
a) bricks
b) hard soil
c) portland cement concrete
d) tar

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Plain cement concrete (PCC) is used to provide rigid impervious bed to RCC in foundation where the earth is soft and yielding. PCC can be used over brick flat soling or without brick flat soling. Plain cement concrete can also called only “cement concrete (CC)” or “binding concrete”.

10. The head of public works department of any Indian state, is ____________
a) Transport Minister
b) Chief Engineer
c) Superintending Engineer
d) Executive Engineer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A chief engineer is a senior engineer in an organization. Typically they are in charge of an engineering department, and duties vary considerably depending on the industry. In public works, such as for a city, county, military division, or federal program, the engineering department often has a chief engineer. This is typically shown as “Office of the Chief Engineer” in organizational charts. This person or group is separate from the other engineering offices, and functions to coordinate their activities from an engineering perspective.

Set 2

1. ___________ is the interruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures.
a) Pathophysiology
b) Societal Limitation
c) Functional Limitation
d) Modality-Specific

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Modality-Specific is a task that is specific to a single sense or movement pattern. Interruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures is called Pathophysiology. Functional limitation is restriction or lack of ability to perform an action in the manner or within the range consistent with the purpose of an organ or organ system.

2. A task that is specific to a single sense or movement pattern is called _________ in rehabilitation engineering perspective.
a) Functional Limitation
b) Modality-Specific
c) Societal Limitation
d) Pathophysiology

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Interruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures is called Pathophysiology.A task that is specific to a single sense or movement pattern is called Modality- Specific. Functional limitation is restriction or lack of ability to perform an action in the manner or within the range consistent with the purpose of an organ or organ system.

3. _______________ is not a passive transducer.
a) Doppler effect transducer
b) IR sensor
c) Strain gauge
d) Ultrasonic transducer

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Strain gauge transducer is an active transducer. Its working principle is based on change in resistance. Ultrasonic transducers need power to operate. So do the IR sensors and doppler effect transducers.

4. _________ is called the Aesthetics of appearance.
a) lymphosis
b) cosmesis
c) orthosis
d) homeostasis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Orthosis is a modality-specific appliance that aids the performance of a function or movement by augmenting or assisting the residual capabilities of that function or movement. Aesthetics of appearance is called cosmesis.

5. Which of the following filter is used to amplify frequency above certain value?
a) band stop filter
b) low pass filter
c) band pass filter
d) high pass filter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Low pass filter amplifies signals below a certain frequency. High pass filter amplifies signal above a certain frequency. Band pass filter amplifies frequencies with in a certain band. Band stop filter amplifies all the frequencies except those in a certain band.

6. From the options given below, select the one that best describes: Transcutaneous.
a) passing to the heart
b) passing to the bones
c) passing to the skin
d) passing to the lungs

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] This term generally used with the type of surgical instrument to be used. It is also used to describe the interaction of rehabilitation devices. Transcutaneous means passing to the skin.

7. _____________ is not a soft tissue.
a) ligament
b) bone
c) tendons
d) skin

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Biological soft tissues are nonlinear, anisotropic, fibrous composites, and detailed description of their behavior is the subject of active research. Hard tissue, mineralized tissue, and calcified tissue are often used as synonyms for bone when describing the structure and properties of bone or tooth. One can separate these tissues based on their mode of loading: cartilage is generally loaded in compression; tendons and ligaments are loaded in tension; and muscles generate active tension.

8. Which is the correct characteristic of Blood vessels?
a) Soft tissue
b) Connective ans soft tissue
c) Connective and hard tissue
d) Hard tissue

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Option d is correct which says blood is a soft and connective tissue. Soft tissues include tendon, ligament, blood vessels etc. Hard tissues include bones.

9. Muscles are the reservoir for calcium and phosphorus, essential minerals for various cellular activities which happen throughout the human body.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is False. Muscles are not the reservoir for calcium and phosphorus, essential minerals for various cellular activities which happen throughout the human body. Bones serve as a reservoir for calcium and phosphorus, essential minerals for various cellular activities that occur throughout the body. The composition of bone depends on a large number of factors: the species, which bone, the location from which the sample is taken, and the age, sex, and type of bone tissue, for example, woven, cancellous, cortical.

10. Bones are living tissues.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is True. Bones are living tissues. hey also are responsible for the production of blood cells and act a mineral reservoir in the body. They keep growing. T They also play the role of protection of internal soft organs like the brain is protected by skull and lungs and heart by rib cage.

Set 3

1. The term ___________ is used when referring to the frequency content of a signal.
a) angular momentum
b) spectrum
c) scope
d) bandwidth

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The term spectrum is used when referring to the frequency content of a signal. The basic motivation for developing frequency analysis tools is to provide a mathematical and pictorial representation for the frequency components that are contained in any given signal. Most biomedical signals of practicalinterest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal components.

2. The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as _______________
a) time domain analysis
b) mathematical analysis
c) spectral analysis
d) pseudo analysis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as frequency or spectral analysis. The term spectrum is used when referring to the frequency content of a signal. Most biomedical signals of practicalinterest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal components.

3. Most biomedical signals of practicalinterest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal components. For the class of periodic signals, such a decomposition is called a _______ series.
a) fourier
b) discontinuous
c) continuous
d) frequency

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Its is called Fourier series. The term spectrum is used when referring to the frequency content of a signal. The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as frequency or spectral analysis.

4. Most biomedical signals of practical interest can be decomposed into a sum of sinusoidal signal components. For the class of finite energy signals, the decomposition is called the ____________
a) Fourier series
b) Fourier transform
c) Laplace transform
d) Laplace series

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] For the class of finite energy signals, the decomposition is called the Fourier transform. For the class of periodic signals, such decomposition is called a Fourier series. The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as frequency or spectral analysis.

5. The ratio of response to stimulus is called the transfer function.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is true. The ratio of response to stimulus is called the transfer function. H(f) = R(f)/S(f) The process of obtaining the spectrum of a given signal using the basic mathematical tools is known as frequency or spectral analysis.

6. Each component in the FFT series can then be represented as: A cos (wt) + iB sin (f) where
a) A = The phase angle of the component
b) f = An FFT coefficient
c) t = temperature
d) w = Angular frequency of the component

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] w = Angular frequency of the component is the correct answer. Other all are incorrect explanation of the variables. A = An FFT coefficient f = The phase angle of the component and t = time.

7. Which of the following transform is best suited for spatial filtering, edge detection, feature extraction, data compression, pattern recognition, speech recognition, image compression and texture analysis?
a) wavelet transform
b) laplace transform
c) fourier transform
d) short time fourier transform

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The wavelet transform has very good time resolution at high frequencies and good frequency resolution at low frequencies. In biomedical engineering, wavelet transform have been widely used in many research areas including spatial filtering, edge detection, feature extraction, data compression, pattern recognition, speech recognition, image compression and texture analysis. Wavelets are a relatively new signal processing method. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that decompose a signal into multiple signal bands. It separates and retains the signal features in one or a few of these bands.

8. AAMI stands for ____________________
a) American Association of Medical Instrumentation
b) Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation
c) Association of American Medical Instrumentation
d) American Association of Measurement Instruments

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation, USA is an association for propelling the advancement, and protected and powerful utilization of restorative innovation established in 1965 by Robert D. Corridor, Jr. what’s more, Robert J. Allen, President and Vice President individually of Tech/Reps, Inc. AAMI is an intentional association, and in spite of the fact that its suggested practices and gauges once in a while reverberate other social insurance rules, consistence with these models isn’t really required by administrative associations that review medicinal services offices.

9. Digital filters are sensitive to temperature as compared with analog filters.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] False. Digital filters are insensitive to temperature as compared with analog filters. The are also insensitive to ageing, voltage drift and external interference as compared to analog filters. Theri response is completely reproducible and predictable, and software simulations can exactly reflect product performance.

10. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that decompose a signal into multiple signal bands.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is true. A wavelet transform is almost always implemented as a bank of filters that decompose a signal into multiple signal bands. Wavelets are a relatively new signal processing method. . Thus, one of the biggest advantages of using the wavelet transform is that signal features can be easily extracted. In many cases, a wavelet transform outperforms the conventional FFT when it comes to feature extraction and noise reduction.

Set 4

1. Sudden involuntary drop in body core temperature below 35*C (95*F) is called __________
a) Accidental hyperthermia
b) Accidental misothermia
c) Accidental exothermia
d) Accidental hypothermia

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Sudden involuntary drop in body core temperature below 35*C (95*F) is called Accidental hypothermia. In this the body temperature drops very quickly. If not treated on time can lead to patients death.

2. Which of the following has the widest range of temperature measurement?
a) RTD
b) Thermocouple
c) Thermistor
d) Mercury thermometer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Thermocouple has the widest range of temperature measurement from -1840C to +23000C. RTD has a range of -2000C to +8500C. Thermistor has a range of 00C to 1000C where as conventional mercury thermometers range is -370C to +3560C.

3. The junction at higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The junction at higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction.the junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature. The cold junction is usually kept at 00C.

4. When two wires of different material are joined together at either ends, forming two junctions which are maintained at different temperature, a thermo-motive force is generated causing a current to flow around the circuit. This arrangement is called ___________
a) thermal pair
b) thermistor
c) thermocouple
d) thermostat

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] This arrangement is called thermocouple. The junction at higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction. The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature.

5. When two wires of different material are joined together at either ends, forming two junctions which are maintained at different temperature, a _________ force is generated
a) thermo-motive
b) electro-motive
c) chemical reactive
d) mechanical

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When two wires of different material are joined together at either ends, forming two junctions which are maintained at different temperature, a thermo-motive force is generated causing a current to flow around the circuit. This arrangement is called thermocouple. The junction at higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction. The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature.

6. The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple called measuring junction.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature. The cold junction is usually kept at 00C. The junction at higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction.

7. The lower temperature junction in thermocouple is maintained at ________
a) -273 K
b) 0 K
c) -327 K
d) 273 K

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The lower temperature junction in thermocouple is maintained at 273 K (00C). The junction at lower temperature in the thermocouple is called the reference temperature. The junction at higher temperature in thermocouple is termed as measuring junction.

8. The resistance Rt of a metallic conductor at any temperature t is given by ___________
a) Rt = Ro(1+ɑt)
b) Rt = Ro(1-ɑt)
c) Rt = Ro(ɑt-1)
d) Rt = Ro(10+ɑt)

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The resistance Rt of a metallic conductor at any temperature t is given by Rt = Ro(1+ɑt). Ro is the resistance at 0*C. ɑ is temperature coefficient of resistivity.

9. RTD stands for ________
a) resistance temperature device
b) resistance temperature detector
c) reluctance thermal device
d) resistive thermal detector

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] RTD stands for Resistance Temperature Device. It is a passive sensor and requires current excitation to produce an output voltage. RTD has very low temperature coefficient. Voltage drop across RTD is much larger than thermocouple output voltage.

10. Thermister is used to measure _____________
a) temperature
b) pressure
c) height
d) displacement

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Thermistor is used to measure temperature. It is a temperature transducer. With change in temperature its resistance changes. Thus its working principle is variable resistance. Thermistors are the oxides of certain metals like manganese, cobalt and nickel which have large negative temperature coefficient, i.e. resistance decreases with increase in temperature.

Set 5

1. The energy must be reflected and returned through a single 30° prism, so that it passes through the prism in both directions is called __________
a) Cornu mounting
b) Mono mounting
c) Littrow mounting
d) Trio mounting

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Quartz shows the property of double refraction. Therefore, two pieces of quartz, one right-handed and one left handed are taken and cemented back-to-back in the construction of 60° prism (Cornu mounting), or the energy must be reflected and returned through a single 30° prism, so that it passes through the prism in both directions (Littrow mounting).

2. Most modern instruments now use a _______ as a dispersing element in the monochromator.
a) Prism monochromators
b) Holographic gratings
c) Diffraction gratings
d) Replica gratings

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Most modern instruments now use a diffraction grating as a dispersing element in the monochromator, as prisms in general have a poorer stray light performance and require complex precision cams to give a linear wavelength scale. Replica gratings can even be produced more cheaply than prisms and require only a simple sine bar mechanism for the wavelength scale.

3. A typical reflection grating may have 1200 grooves/mm, which means the grooves are spaced at about _______ intervals.
a) 800 nm
b) 600 nm
c) 860 nm
d) 680 nm

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A typical reflection grating may have 1200 grooves/mm, which means the grooves are spaced at about 800 nm intervals. The grating may have a width of 20 mm or more, giving a total of at least 24,000 grooves.

4. What is reproduced from a master holographic grating by moulding its grooves onto a resin surface or silica substrate?
a) Diffraction grating
b) Replica grating
c) Silicate glasses
d) Fused silica

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Holographic gratings used in commercial spectrophotometers are either original master gratings produced directly by an interferometer or are replica gratings. Replica gratings are reproduced from a master holographic grating by moulding its grooves onto a resin surface on a glass or silica substrate.

5. What is the utilization wavelength limit for quartz?
a) 300 nm
b) 350 nm
c) 180 nm
d) 210 nm

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Normally, the absorbance of any material should be less than 0.2 at the wavelength of use. Below 300 nm, quartz or fused silica is utilized. The limit for quartz is 210 nm.

6. Which material is used to reduce the reflections from glass surfaces?
a) Manganese Flouride
b) Magnesium oxide
c) Magnesium Flouride
d) Manganese oxide

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Reflections from glass surfaces are reduced by coating these with magnesium fluoride, which is one-quarter wavelength in optical thickness. With this, scattering effects are also greatly reduced.

7. With the use of _______ chromatic aberrations and other imperfections of the lenses are minimized.
a) Lenses
b) Mirrors
c) Slits
d) Diaphragm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] To minimize light losses, lenses are sometimes replaced by front-surfaced mirrors to focus or collimate light beam in absorption instruments. Mirrors are aluminized on their front surfaces. With the use of mirrors, chromatic aberrations and other imperfections of the lenses are minimized.

8. _______ are often used for splitting the beam.
a) Multilayer coated lenses
b) Silvered films
c) Silicate glasses
d) Half-silvered mirrors

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The two beams must retain the spectral properties of the incident beam. Half-silvered mirrors are often used for splitting the beam. However, they absorb some of the light in the thin metallic coating. Beam splitting can also be achieved by using a prismatic mirror or stack of thin horizontal glass plates, silvered on their edges and alternatively oriented to the incident beam.

9. The sample holder is generally inserted somewhere in the interval between the ______and _______
a) Silvered film and multi-layered coating
b) The light source and the detector
c) The light source and silvered film
d) Silvered film and the detector

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Gases may be contained in cells which are sealed or stoppered to make them air-tight. The sample holder is generally inserted somewhere in the interval between the light source and the detector. For the majority of analyses, a 10 mm path-length rectangular cell is usually satisfactory.

10. In sample holders, for such applications, a 50 cm path-length with about a ________ volume cell is employed.
a) 0.3 ml
b) 3 liters
c) 0.3 liters
d) 3 ml

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Studies of dilute or weakly-absorbing liquid samples, or of samples where trace components must be detected, require a cell with a long path-length. For such applications, a 50 cm path-length with about a 300 ml volume cell is employed.

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