Multiple choice question for engineering
1. An orthographic projection map is a map projection of __________
d) Top view
Answer: c [Reason:] Like the stereographic projection and gnomonic projection, orthographic projection is a perspective (or azimuthal) projection, in which the sphere is projected onto a tangent plane or secant plane. The point of perspective for the orthographic projection is at infinite distance. It depicts a hemisphere of the globe as it appears from outer space, where the horizon is a great circle. The shapes and areas are distorted, particularly near the edges.
Question 2 to 5 is for the diagram drawn below:-
2. Taking ‘A’ as the FRONT VIEW. Which view will letter ‘D’ represent?
Answer: c [Reason:] This represents the side view of an object.
3. Which view will letter ‘C’ represent?
Answer: b [Reason:] This is the bottom view representation of the any object. C represents the bottom view.
The dotted small rectangle represents that the particular object is on the other side of the viewing plane.
4. Which view will letter ‘E’ represent?
Answer: b [Reason:] This is the back view representation of the any object. E represents the back view.
The dotted circle represents that the particular object is on the other side of the viewing plane.
5. Which view will letter ‘B’ represent?
Answer: d [Reason:] This is the top view representation of the any object. B represents the top view.
Questions 6 and 7 are for the diagram drawn below:-
6. ‘A’, ‘B’ view will be represented by which figure?
Answer: c [Reason:] : In the option, figure a, the bottom figure i.e. the staircase type figure formed represents the ‘A’ portion of the object given in the question, top figure attached to the bottom figure represents the ‘B’ portion of the object given in the question.
7.’F’, ‘E’ view will be represented by which figure
Answer: a [Reason:] In the option, figure c, the top figure i.e. the small triangle formed represents the ‘E’ portion of the object given in the question, right figure attached to the triangle represents the ‘F’ portion of the object given in the question.
8. Any object can be viewed from_________ mutually perpendicular views.
Answer: d [Reason:] The front, top, and right-side views are commonly considered the core group of views included by default, but any combination of views may be used depending on the needs of the particular design, these are – front, back, top, bottom, right side, left side views.
9. The given figure below will represent which type of three views?
Answer: b [Reason:] In the option, figure b, the top figure represents the top view, left figure represents side view and the centre figure represents the front view. And this option exactly matches with the main object given in the question.
10. The given figure below will represent which type of three views?
Answer: d [Reason:] In the option, figure d, the top figure represents the top view, left figure represents side view and the centre figure represents the front view. And this option exactly matches with the main object given in the question.
1. There are many types of heat treating processes available to steel. The most common are ____________ quenching, and tempering.
Answer: c [Reason:] Annealing is the process of heating the steel to a sufficiently high temperature to relieve local internal stresses. It does not create a general softening of the product but only locally relieves strains and stresses locked up within the material. Annealing goes through three phases: recovery, recrystallization, and grain growth. The temperature required to anneal a particular steel depends on the type of annealing to be achieved and the alloying constituents.
2. ____________is any weapon, artwork, utensil or architectural feature made of iron especially used for decoration.
b) Design work
c) Mason work
d) Makeup work
Answer: a [Reason:] There are two main types of ironwork: wrought iron and cast iron. While the use of iron dates as far back as 4000BC, it was the Hittites who first knew how to extract it and develop weapons. Use of iron was mainly utilitarian until the Middle Ages, it became widely used for decoration in the period between the 16th and 19th century.
3. Wrought ironwork is forged by a blacksmith using an__________
Answer: d [Reason:] Anvils are as massive as they are practical, because the higher their inertia, the more efficiently they cause the energy of striking tools to be transferred to the work piece. On a quality anvil, the smith’s hammer should rebound with almost as much energy as the smith puts into the downward stroke, ultimately making the smith’s job easier and less physically strenuous.
4. The figure shown below represents which instrument?
a) Hammer base
b) Knife cutter
c) Hammer striker
Answer: d [Reason:] The primary work surface of the anvil is known as the face. It is generally made of hardened steel and should be flat and smooth with rounded edges for most work. Any marks on the face will be transferred to the work. Also, sharp edges tend to cut into the metal being worked and may cause cracks to form in the workpiece. The face is hardened and tempered to resist the blows of the smith’s hammer, so the anvil face does not deform under repeated use. A hard anvil face also reduces the amount of force lost in each hammer blow. Hammers, tools, and work pieces of hardened steel should never directly strike the anvil face with full force, as they may damage it; this can result in chipping or deforming of the anvil face.
5. To inhibit corrosion, at least 11% chromium is added to steel so that a hard oxide forms on the metal surface; this is known as_________________
a) ironless steel
b) cast iron
c) hard iron
d) stainless steel
Answer: d [Reason:] Stainless steels are notable for their corrosion resistance, which increases with increasing chromium content. Molybdenum additions increase corrosion resistance in reducing acids and against pitting attack in chloride solutions. Thus, there are numerous grades of stainless steel with varying chromium and molybdenum contents to suit the environment the alloy must endure.
6. Which type of iron is presented by the following diagram?
a) Iron (II) oxide
b) Iron (I) oxide
c) Iron (III) oxide
d) Iron oxide
Answer: d [Reason:] Iron (III) oxide or ferric oxide is the inorganic compound with the formula Fe2O3. It is one of the three main oxides of iron, the other two being iron (II) oxide (FeO), which is rare, and iron (II, III) oxide (Fe3O4), which also occurs naturally as the mineral magnetite. As the mineral known as hematite, Fe2O3 is the main source of iron for the steel industry.
7. The carbon in typical steel alloys may contribute up to ___________of its weight.
Answer: c [Reason:] Varying the amount of carbon and many other alloying elements, as well as controlling their chemical and physical makeup in the final steel (either as solute elements, or as precipitated phases), slows the movement of those dislocations that make pure iron ductile, and thus controls and enhances its qualities.
8. Plain carbon-iron alloys with a higher than 2.1% carbon content are known as_____________
a) coke iron
b) wrought iron
c) cast iron
d) pig iron
Answer: c [Reason:] With modern steelmaking techniques such as powder metal forming, it is possible to make very high-carbon (and other alloy material) steels, but such are not common. Cast iron is not malleable even when hot, but it can be formed by casting as it has a lower melting point than steel and good cast ability properties. Certain compositions of cast iron, while retaining the economies of melting and casting, can be heat treated after casting to make malleable iron or ductile iron objects.
9. What is the raw material which is not needed for steel production?
b) Ferro alloys
Answer: a [Reason:] Steel is made when iron is combined with carbon and other elements like-
• Flux (Limestone and Dolomite)
• Silica or Sand
• Ferro alloys.
10. Which is not a type of steel?
a) Low-speed Steel
b) Carbide Steel
c) Cobalt Steel
d) Stainless Steel
Answer: a [Reason:] Types of steel are-
• Stainless Steel
• Carbide Steel
• Carbon Steel
• High-speed Steel
• Cobalt Steel.
1. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed?
Answer: b [Reason:] If tensile reinforcement of beam should exceed 4% of total gross area then some crack will be developed in concrete.
2. The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than?
a) 12 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 8 mm
Answer: a [Reason:] Minimum diameter of longitudinal bar in RCC column shall not be less than 12mm (IS456:2000, cl 184.108.40.206 d). Indian standards specify 12mm as the least diameter of a vertical bar and 5mm as the least diameter of lateral bar or stirrup.
3. The number of treads in a flight is equal to _________
a) risers in the flight
b) risers plus one
c) risers minus one
d) risers plus three
Answer: c [Reason:] It is often not simply the sum of the individual tread lengths due to the nosing overlapping between treads. If there are N steps, the total run equals N-1 times the going: the tread of the last step is part of a landing and is not counted.
4. A foundation rests on __________
a) base of the foundation
b) foundation soil
d) foundation soil and subgrade
Answer: d [Reason:] A foundation (or, more commonly, base) is the element of an architectural structure which connects it to the ground, and transfers loads from the structure to the ground. Foundations are generally considered either shallow or deep. Foundation engineering is the application of soil mechanics and rock mechanics (Geotechnical engineering) in the design of foundation elements of structures.
5. For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed?
a) 1/10th of span
b) 1/30th of span
c) 1/15th of span
d) 1/5th of span
Answer: b [Reason:] Design codes prescribe beam width limitations to minimise the shear lag effect on the formation of full-width plastic hinges and achieving the expected capacity. However, owing to insufficient experimental and analytical studies, empirical design formulas for the beam width limitation, with remarkably different results, have been implemented in different design codes. In this paper, parametric studies of the influence of key parameters on the behaviour of wide beam–column connections are conducted based on available test results. An effective beam-width model is analytically developed using the equivalent-frame representation, where the effects of torsion of transverse beams and flexure around the joint core are considered. The validity of the model is verified using flexural strengths of test specimens, covering a wide range of design parameters.
6. Design of R.C.C. simply supported beams carrying U.D.L. is based on the resultant B.M. at ____________
a) mid span
c) every section
d) quarter span
Answer: a [Reason:] Since BM is maximum at midspan, design should be done for maximum bending moment so that it will take care for other section. Moment formula we are using is (wl2 / 8) which mid span moment.
7. High strength concrete is used in prestressed member?
a) To ovecome bursting stresses at the ends
b) To provide high bond stresses
c) To overcome cracks due to shrinkage
d) To overcome bursting stresses, provide high bond stresses and overcome cracks
Answer: d [Reason:] The primary difference between high-strength concrete and normal-strength concrete relates to the compressive strength that refers to the maximum resistance of a concrete sample to applied pressure. Although there is no precise point of separation between high-strength concrete and normal-strength concrete, the American Concrete Institute defines high-strength concrete as concrete with a compressive strength greater than 6,000 psi.
8. The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to?
a) monolithic character
b) moulding in any desired shape
c) fire-resisting and durability
d) monolithic character, moulding any shape and fire-resisting
Answer: d [Reason:] Reinforced concrete (RC) is a composite material in which concrete’s relatively low tensile strength and ductility are counteracted by the inclusion of reinforcement having higher tensile strength or ductility. The reinforcement is usually, though not necessarily, steel reinforcing bars (rebar) and is usually embedded passively in the concrete before the concrete sets. Reinforcing schemes are generally designed to resist tensile stresses in particular regions of the concrete that might cause unacceptable cracking and/or structural failure. Modern reinforced concrete can contain varied reinforcing materials made of steel, polymers or alternate composite material in conjunction with rebar or not. Reinforced concrete may also be permanently stressed (in tension), so as to improve the behaviour of the final structure under working loads.
9. Cracking of the concrete section is nearly impossible to prevent.
Answer: a [Reason:] However, the size and location of cracks can be limited and controlled by appropriate reinforcement, control joints, curing methodology and concrete mix design. Cracking can allow moisture to penetrate and corrode the reinforcement. This is a serviceability failure in limit state design. Cracking is normally the result of an inadequate quantity of rebar, or rebar spaced at too great a distance. The concrete then cracks either under excess loading, or due to internal effects such as early thermal shrinkage while it cures.
Ultimate failure leading to collapse can be caused by crushing the concrete, which occurs when compressive stresses exceed its strength, by yielding or failure of the rebar when bending or shear stresses exceed the strength of the reinforcement, or by bond failure between the concrete and the rebar.
10. The architect is usually the lead designer on buildings, with a structural engineer employed as a sub-consultant.
Answer: b [Reason:] The degree to which each discipline actually leads the design depends heavily on the type of structure. Many structures are structurally simple and led by architecture, such as multi-storey office buildings and housing, while other structures, such as tensile structures, shells and gridshells are heavily dependent on their form for their strength, and the engineer may have a more significant influence on the form, and hence much of the aesthetic, than the architect.
1. _____________is the technique of estimating or determining the fair price or value of a property such as a building, a factory, other engineering structures of various types.
b) capital value
Answer: c [Reason:] By valuation the present value of a property is determined. The present value of property may be decided by its selling price, or income or rent it may fetch. The value of property depends on its structure, life, maintenance, location, bank interest, legal control, etc. The value also depends on supply on demand and the purpose for which valuation is required.
2. What is the capitalized value of a property fetching a net annual rent of Rs.1000 and the highest rate of interest prevalent being 5%, rate of interest is 8% ?
Answer: d [Reason:] For Rs.5.00 interest, capital Rs.1000.00
To get Rs.1000.00 interest, capital = (100/5)*1000
In short capitalized value is – Net annual income*Year’s purchase
For the same net income if the rate of interest is 8% the capitalized value, = 1000*(100/8)
3. A pumping set with a motor has been installed in a building at a cost of Rs.2500.00. Assuming the life of the pump as 15 years, work out the amount of annual instalment of sinking fund required to be deposited to accumulate the whole amount of 4% compound interest.
Answer: b [Reason:] The annual sinking fund, I= Si / [(1+i)n-1] = 2500*0.04/(1+0.04)15-1 = 2500*0.05 = Rs.125
The owner is to deposit Rs.125/- annually in 4% compound interest carrying investment for 15 years to accumulate Rs.2500/-.
4. An old building has been purchased by a person at a cost of Rs.30000/- excluding the cost of the land. Calculate the amount of annual sinking fund at 4% interest assuming the future lie of the building as 20 years and the scrap value of the building as 10% of the cost of purchase.
Answer: d [Reason:] The total amount of sinking fund to be accumulated at the end of 20 years.
S = 30000 * 90/100 = Rs.27000.00
Annual instalment of sinking fund.
I= Si / [(1+i)n-1] = 27000*0.04/(1+0.04)20-1 = 27000*0.0336 = Rs.907.20
Annual Instalment for sinking fund required for 20 years = Rs.907.20.
5. In this method, it is assumed that the property will lose its value by a constant percentage of its value at the beginning of every year. This method is called?
a) Sinking fund method
b) Constant percentage method
c) Straight line method
d) Quantity survey method
Answer: c [Reason:] In this method a fixed amount of the original cost is deducted every year, so that at the end of the utility period only the scrap value is left.
Annual depreciation D = Original cost-scrap value/life in year = C-S/n,
Where C- original cost, S- scrap value, n-life of the property in years and D- annual depreciation. The book value after the number of years, say N years = original cost – N*D.
6. A property fetches a net annual income of Rs.900 deducting all outgoings. Workout the capitalized value of the property if the rate of interest is 6% per annum.
Answer: a [Reason:] Year’s purchase = 100/6 = 16.67
Capitalized value of the property = Net income * Y.P. = 900*16.67 = Rs.15003.00.
7. A building costing Rs.700000.00 has been constructed on a freehold land measuring 100 sq m recently in a big city. Prevailing rate of land in the neighbourhood is Rs.150.00 per sq m. Determine the net rent of the property, if the expenditure on an outgoing including sinking fund is Rs.24000.00 per annum. Work out also the gross rent of the property per month.
a) 48000/-, 8000/-
b) 18000/-, 6000/-
c) 46700/-, 6000/-
d) 48000/-, 6000/-
Answer: d [Reason:] Cost of construction = Rs.700000.00
Cost of land @Rs.150.00 per sq m = 100*150 = Rs.150000.00
On building @ 6% on the cost of construction = 700000.00 *6/100 = Rs.42000.00
On the land @ 4% on the cost of land = 700000.00 *6/100 = Rs.6000.00
Total net rent per year = Rs.48000.00
Gross rent = Net rent + outgoings = 48000+24000.00 =72000.00 per annum
Gross rent per month =72000/12 =6000.00.
8. Find the plinth area required for the residential accommodation for an assistant engineer in the pay scale of Rs.400.00 to 1000.00 per month.
a) 293.33 sq m.
b) 93.33 sq m.
c) 983.33 sq m.
d) 23.33 sq m.
Answer: b [Reason:] Average pay = 400+1000/2 = Rs. 700.00 per month.
Average monthly rent @ 10% of salary = 700.00/10 = Rs.70.00
Average annual rent 70.0*12 = Rs.840.00.
Capital cost of the building @ 6%interest = 840*100/6 = Rs.14000.00
Plinth area required @Rs.150.00 per sq m of plinth area = 14000/150 = 93.33 sq m.
Normally the quarter for the assistant engineer should be constructed at the cost of Rs.14000.00 having plinth area of 93.33 sq m.
But due to the increase in the cost of construction, this may be increased by 100% and the capital cost of construction may be fixed as Rs.2800.00 and the approximate plinth area of 93.33.
9. Obsolescence is the annual periodic payments for repayments of the capital amount invested by a party.
Answer: b [Reason:] An annuity is a series of payments made at equal intervals. Examples of annuities are regular deposits to a savings account, monthly home mortgage payments, monthly insurance payments and pension payments. Annuities can be classified by the frequency of payment dates. The payments (deposits) may be made weekly, monthly, quarterly, yearly, or at any other regular interval of time.
An annuity which provides for payments for the remainder of a person’s lifetime is a life annuity.
10. Scrap value is the net annual letting value of a property, which is obtained after deducting the amount of yearly repairs from the gross income.
Answer: b [Reason:] In financial accounting, scrap value is associated with the depreciation of assets used in a business. In this situation, scrap value is defined as the expected or estimated value of the asset at the end of its useful life. Scrap value is also referred to as an asset’s salvage value or residual value.
1. A ___________ power supply is one that outputs hundreds or thousands of volts.
a) alternate current
d) direct current
Answer: b [Reason:] A special output connector is used that prevents arcing, insulation breakdown and accidental human contact. Federal Standard connectors are typically used for applications above 20 kV, though other types of connectors (e.g., SHV connector) may be used at lower voltages. Some high-voltage power supplies provide an analog input or digital communication interface that can be used to control the output voltage.
2. The two types of current limiting used are electronic limiting and _________________
a) inductance limiting
b) capacitor limiting
c) resistance limiting
d) impedance limiting
Answer: d [Reason:] Some supplies use current limiting instead of cutting off power if overloaded. The two types of current limiting used are electronic limiting and impedance limiting. The former is common on lab bench PSUs, the latter is common on supplies of less than 3 watts output. A foldback current limiter reduces the output current to much less than the maximum non-fault current.
3. As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, is _______
a) 120 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 75 litres
d) 195 litres
Answer: b [Reason:] For domestic purposes – 135 litres to 225 litres
For industrial purposes – 50 litres to 450 litres.
4. Most commonly used pump for lifting water in water supply mains, is _________
a) axial-flow pump
b) reciprocating pump
c) rotary type pump
d) centrifugal pump
Answer: a [Reason:] An axial flow pump, or AFP, is a common type of pump that essentially consists of a propeller in a pipe. The propeller can be driven directly by a sealed motor in the pipe or mounted to the pipe from the outside or by a right-angle drive shaft that pierces the pipe.
Fluid particles, in course of their flow through the pump, do not change their radial locations since the change in radius at the entry (called ‘suction’) and the exit (called ‘discharge’) of the pump is very small. Hence the name “axial” pump.
5. Water supply system includes ________
a) construction of dams
b) digging a well for water
c) construction of canals
d) entire arrangement from source to distribution.
Answer: d [Reason:] A water supply system typically includes:
1. A drainage basin.
2. A raw water collection point (above or below ground) where the water accumulates, such as a lake, a river, or groundwater from an underground aquifer. Raw water may be transferred using uncovered ground-level aqueducts, covered tunnels or underground water pipes to water purification facilities.
3. Water purification facilities. Treated water is transferred using water pipes (usually underground).
4. Water storage facilities such as reservoirs, water tanks, or water towers. Smaller water systems may store the water in cisterns or pressure vessels. Tall buildings may also need to store water locally in pressure vessels in order for the water to reach the upper floors.
5. Additional water pressurizing components such as pumping stations may need to be situated at the outlet of underground or above ground reservoirs or cisterns (if gravity flow is impractical).
6. A pipe network for distribution of water to the consumers (which may be private houses or industrial, commercial or institution establishments) and other usage points (such as fire hydrants).
7. Connections to the sewers (underground pipes, or aboveground ditches in some developing countries) are generally found downstream of the water consumers, but the sewer system is considered to be a separate system, rather than part of the water supply system.
6. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at __________
a) lower point
b) higher joint
c) junction points
Answer: a [Reason:] The drain valve is subject to severe erosion due to the combined effect of drain discharge under high differential pressure at plant startup and the spouting of oxidized scale inside the piping.
Although drain valve have a short operating life due to their severe usage conditions, we offer a selection of drain valve with enhanced erosion resistance in an effort to increase their operating life.
7. Turbidity of raw water is a measure of ___________
a) Suspended solids
b) Acidity of water
Answer: a [Reason:] The definition of Turbidity is the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by suspended solids that are usually invisible to the naked eye. The measurement of Turbidity is an important test when trying to determine the quality of water. It is an aggregate optical property of the water and does not identify individual substances; it just says something is there.
8. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove ___________
Answer: b [Reason:] Water disinfection means the removal, deactivation or killing of pathogenic microorganisms. Microorganisms are destroyed or deactivated, resulting in termination of growth and reproduction. When microorganisms are not removed from drinking water, drinking water usage will cause people to fall ill.
9. Aeration of water is done to remove ________
Answer: a [Reason:] Aeration of liquids (usually water) is achieved by:
-passing the liquid through air by means of fountains, cascades, paddle-wheels or cones.
-passing air through the liquid by means of the Venturi tube, aeration turbines or compressed air which can be combined with diffuser(s) air stone(s), as well as fine bubble diffusers, coarse bubble diffusers or linear aeration tubing. Ceramics are suitable for this purpose, often involving dispersion of fine air or gas bubbles through the porous ceramic into a liquid. The smaller the bubbles, the more gas is exposed to the liquid increasing the gas transfer efficiency. Diffusers can also be designed into the system to cause turbulence or mixing if desired.
10. Percussion drilling is unsuitable in _______
a) unconsolidated sand
b) unconsolidated gravel
c) consolidated rocks
d) quick sand
Answer: d [Reason:] Percussion drilling is a manual drilling technique in which a heavy cutting or hammering bit attached to a rope or cable is lowered in the open hole or inside a temporary casing. The technique is often also referred to as ‘Cable tool’. Usually a tripod is used to support the tools.