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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Tissue engineering is developed invitro.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Tissue engineering has a primary focus on developing in vitro bioartificial tissues, typically based on cells derived from donor tissue. These tissues can be used as transplants to improve biological function in the recipient. An alternative form of tissue engineering is in vivo alteration of cell growth and function.

2. Hyaline is characterized by its:
a) White appearance
b) Glassy appearance
c) Red appearance
d) Crystal appearance

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A hyaline substance is one with a glassy appearance. In histopathological medical usage, a hyaline substance appears glassy and pink after being stained with haematoxylin and eosin — usually it is an acellular, proteinaceous material. An example is hyaline cartilage, a transparent, glossy articular joint cartilage.

3. Hyaline is always associated with cartilage.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Some mistakenly refer to all hyaline as hyaline cartilage; however, hyaline applies to other material besides the cartilage itself. Arterial hyaline is seen in aging, high blood pressure, diabetes mellitus and in association with some drugs (e.g. calcineurin inhibitors). It is bright pink with PAS staining.

4. What do you mean by Extracorporeal?
a) Outer layer of the tissue
b) Outside of the body
c) Inner layer of the tissue
d) Inside of the body

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] An extracorporeal is a medical procedure which is performed outside the body.

5. Tissue engineering increases the risk of fatality of the experimental animals.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Use of artificial tissue constructs is for toxicological and pharmacological testing of potential new drugs. In this case the artificial tissue or combination of tissues acts as a surrogate, reducing the need to use animals for such testing.

6. The neurotransmitters are classified into ___________
a) Two broad categories
b) Three broad categories
c) Six broad categories
d) Eight broad categories

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] There are two broad categories of neurotransmitters: Small-molecule neurotransmitters and Neuropeptides.

7. Pressure ulcers affects mainly the _______
a) Nephron
b) Lungs
c) Skin
d) Kidney

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Pressure ulcers, also known as pressure sores, pressure injuries, bedsores, and decubitus ulcers, are localized damage to the skin and/or underlying tissue that usually occur over a bony prominence as a result of pressure, or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction. The most common sites are the skin overlying the sacrum, coccyx, heels or the hips, but other sites such as the elbows, knees, ankles, back of shoulders, or the back of the cranium can be affected.

8. Cadaver skin is the Permanent covering for wound.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Allograft, cadaver skin or homograft is human cadaver skin donated for medical use. Cadaver skin is used as a temporary covering for excised (cleaned) wound surfaces before autograft (permanent) placement.

9. What does Cadaver means?
a) Ancient live body
b) Live body
c) Artificial body
d) Deceased body

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A cadaver, also called corpse (singular) in medical, literary, and legal usage, or when intended for dissection, is a deceased body.

10. The scaffold of bone is also done.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] This type of bone graft is based on the concept of bone tissue engineering, which focused on creating a device that enhances bone repair and regeneration by incorporating bone progenitor cells and growth factors to stimulate cells into a scaffold made of various natural or synthetic biomaterials or their combination.

11. In cryopreservation organs cannot be conserved.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cryo-preservation or cryo-conservation is a process where organelles, cells, tissues, extracellular matrix, organs or any other biological constructs susceptible to damage caused by unregulated chemical kinetics are preserved by cooling to very low temperatures.

12. Chondrocyte is the cell which secretes _________
a) Liver cells
b) Bone cells
c) Cartilage cells
d) Heart cells

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Chondrocyte is a cell which has secreted the matrix of cartilage and become embedded in it.

13. What type of tissue is articulate cartilage?
a) Muscle
b) Epithelial
c) Connective
d) Nervous

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Articular cartilage is a thin layer of specialized connective tissue with unique viscoelastic properties. Its principal function is to provide a smooth, lubricated surface for low friction articulation and to facilitate the transmission of loads to the underlying subchondral bone.

14. What do you mean by Arthrotomy?
a) Opening of joints
b) Opening of skin
c) Opening of liver
d) Opening of heart

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Arthrotomy, also known as Arthroplasty, is an open joint procedure done under general anesthesia in the hospital. The recovery is significantly longer, three to eight weeks, and more painful than the TMJ Arthrocentesis or TMJ Arthroscopy.

15. Carticel uses other body cells to recover damage.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Carticel also known as ACI (Autologous Chondrocyte Implantation) uses your body’s own cartilage cells to treat your knee cartilage injury. These cells can help form new cartilage in the knee which is very similar to the old cartilage in the body.

Set 2

1. The physical and chemical methods are the type of which of the following treatment?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In primary treatment, physical and chemical methods, e.g. sedimentation, coagulation etc. are included.

2. The biological method is the type of which of the following treatment?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In secondary treatment, biological methods (e.g. activated sludge) are conducted after primary treatment.

3. Centrifugation is a type of dewatering process.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Dewatering is the removal of water from solid material or soil by wet classification, centrifugation, filtration, or similar solid-liquid separation processes, such as removal of residual liquid from a filter cake by a filter press as part of various industrial processes.

4. What do you mean by “Stillage”?
a) Still water
b) Still waste
c) Storage and transport
d) Growth medium

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A stillage is like a pallet or skid but with a cage or sides or some form of support specifically tailored to the material it is intended to carry. Some are designed to be stackable. A stillage is any device on which a cask of ale is placed for service.

5. What is the use of comminutors?
a) To reduce the size of the particle
b) To collect waste
c) To commercialize goods and waste
d) To increase the size of the particle

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Comminute defines to reduce the size or divided into small particles (comminuted) or it can be defined as powdered or pulverized.

6. For turbidity and color removal slow sand filter is used.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Slow sand filter are more efficient for bacterial removal and less turbidity and color removal whereas for rapid sand filter it is applicable and vice versa of slow sand filter.

7. Slow sand filter is similar to rapid sand filter in terms of coagulation.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In terms of coagulation, slow sand filter is not required and in rapid sand filter it is required.

8. Coagulation and flocculation are different.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Coagulation is essentially instantaneous whereas flocculation requires some more time and gentle agitation to achieve “Aggregation” of the particles.

9. Which of the following is not a coagulant?
a) Alum
b) Ferric chloride
c) Aluminum chloride
d) Aspirin

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Anticoagulant drugs are used to reduce the ability of the blood to clot. Examples of anticoagulants include aspirin, heparin and warfarin.

10. Polyelectrolyte solution can be viscous.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Polyelectrolyte properties are thus similar to both electrolytes (salts) and polymers (high molecular weight compounds) and are sometimes called polysalts. Like salts, their solutions are electrically conductive. Like polymers, their solutions are often viscous.

11. What is sludge blanket?
a) Blanket of waste
b) Anaerobic digester
c) Aerobic digester
d) Simple sludge

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Upflow anaerobic sludge blanket (UASB) technology, normally referred to as UASB reactor, is a form of anaerobic digester that is used for wastewater treatment. The UASB reactor is a methanogenic (methane-producing) digester that evolved from the anaerobic clarigester.

12. What is the term “Gin”?
a) A magical spirit
b) Liquor
c) Non-liquor
d) Gas

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Gin is liquor which derives its predominant flavour from juniper berries (Juniperus communis). Gin is one of the broadest categories of spirits, all of various origins, styles, and flavour profiles that revolve around juniper as a common ingredient.

13. The anaerobic digester tanks volume is upto?
a) 2,000 m3
b) 12,000 m3
c) 24,000 m3
d) 200 m3

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The anaerobic digesters tanks volume is upto 12,000 m3 and equipped with heating coils for accurate temperature control normally in the mesophilic range (25o-38o, usually 28o-32o in anaerobic digestion).

14. What do you mean by ponding?
a) Level to increase water concentration
b) Water body
c) Accumulation
d) Treated effluent

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Ponding means the untreated effluent accumulating on the surface of the filter bed.

15. In alternating double filtration (ADF), the filters are reversed.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The filters are reversed, in this way, heavy film growth is promoted the first filter to receive the effluent, but when the filter sequence is reversed it becomes nutrient limited, encouraging excess film removal.

Set 3

1. What value of angle φ is between the plate and cone in Cone-and-Plate viscometer?
a) More than 3°
b) Less than 3°
c) More than 2°
d) More than 5°

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The angle φ between the plate and cone is very small, usually less than 3°, and the fluid to be measured is located in this small gap. Large cone angles are not used for routine work for a variety of reasons, the most important being that analysis of the results for non-Newtonian fluids would be complex or impossible.

2. A small spherical ball of diameter 5mm is thrown into a well of water and it moves with a terminal velocity 10cm/s. Calculate the density of the spherical ball. Given that viscosity of water is 0.01poise.
a) 1.0083 gm/cm3
b) 1.0000 gm/cm3
c) 1.0023 gm/cm3
d) 1.0073 gm/cm3

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] According to Stoke’s theorem, bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-viscosity-measurement -q2

3. Which one of the following is not applicable to rotating spindle viscometer?
a) Penicillium chrysogenum
b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
c) Aspergillus niger
d) Streptomyces aureofaciens

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Penicillium chrysogenum has a Shear rate (s-1) of 1-15 and is a Casson plastic and applicable under Turbine impeller.

4. Which one of the following is not applicable to Coaxial cylinder?
a) Endomyces sp.
b) Streptomyces aureofaciens
c) Penicillium chrysogenum
d) Xanthomonas campestris

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Xanthomonas campestris has a Shear rate (s-1) of 0.0035-100 and is a pseudoplastic, K increases continually; n levels off when xanthan concentration reaches 0.5%; cell mass (max 0.6%) has relatively little effect on viscosity.

5. Oil flows in a pipe 100 mm bore diameter with a Reynolds’ Number of 500. The density is 800 kg/m3. Calculate the velocity of a streamline at a radius of 40 mm. The viscosity µ = 0.08 Ns/m2.
a) 0.60 m/s
b) 0.26 m/s
c) 0.36 m/s
d) 0.66 m/s

View Answer

Answer: c bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-viscosity-measurement -q5

6. What influences viscosity?
a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Velocity
d) Speed

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Along with the shear rate, temperature really is the dominating influence. The higher the temperature is, the lower a substance’s viscosity is. Consequently, decreasing temperature causes an increase in viscosity. For some fluids a decrease of 1°C already causes a 10 % increase in viscosity.

7. A capillary tube is 30 mm long and 1 mm bore. The head required to produce a flow rate of 8 mm3/s is 30 mm. The fluid density is 800 kg/m3. Calculate the dynamic viscosity of the oil.
a) 20.1 cP
b) 24.1 cP
c) 20.0 cP
d) 24.0 cP

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Rearranging Poiseuille’s equation we get bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-viscosity-measurement -q7

8. Taking question 7 into consideration, and calculate the kinematic viscosity of the oil.
a) 30.11 cSt
b) 30.19 cSt
c) 35.11 cSt
d) 35.19 cSt

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] v = μ/ρ = 0.0241/800 = 30.11×10-6 m2/s or 30.11 cSt.

9. Which of the following factors do not determine the Blood viscosity?
a) Color
b) Erythrocyte deformability
c) Plasma viscosity
d) Temperature

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Five primary factors determine blood viscosity. These include hematocrit, erythrocyte deformability, plasma viscosity, erythrocyte aggregation, and temperature. Hematocrit is the most obvious determinant of WBV. A higher percentage of red blood cells (RBCs) results in thicker blood.

10. At the bottom of a uniform cylindrical vessel of 30 cm height a horrizontal capillary tube of 2mm inner diameter and 10 cm length is connected to discharge the liquid. Calculate the rate of discharge of the liquid if the vessel contains water of viscosity 0.01 poise to its 2/3 capacity. Take the density of water as 1 gm/cc.
a) 7.59 cm3/s
b) 6.59 cm3/s
c) 7.69 cm3/s
d) 6.69 cm3/s

View Answer

Answer: c bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-viscosity-measurement -q10

11. Taking question 10 into consideration, and Calculate the rate of discharge of the liquid if the vessel contains oil of viscosity 0.84 poise to its 2/3 capacity. Take the density of oil as 0.9 gm/cc.
a) 0.08 cm3/s
b) 0.06 cm3/s
c) 1.08 cm3/s
d) 1.06 cm3/s

View Answer

Answer: a bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-viscosity-measurement -q11

Set 4

1. Which of the following type of yield is referred to as “Maximum possible yields”?
a) Instantaneous yields
b) Theoretical yields
c) Observed yields
d) Non- instantaneous yields

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Theoretical yields are sometimes referred to as maximum possible yields because they represent the yield in the absence of competing reactions.

2. The equation for aerobic production of acetic acid from ethanol is ____________

C2H5OH + O2 → CH3CO2H + H2O
(ethanol) (acetic acid)
Acetobacter aceti bacteria are added to vigorously-aerated medium containing 10 g l-1 ethanol. After some time, the ethanol concentration is 2 g l-1 and 7.5 g l-1 acetic acid is produced. Calculate the Observed yield.
a) 0.94 g g-1
b) 0.95 g g-1
c) 0.92 g g-1
d) 0.96 g g-1

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Using a basis of I litre, the observed yield over the entire culture period is obtained from equation:

bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-yields-cell-culture -q2

3. Refer to Q2 and, calculate the theoretical yield.
a) 1.20 g g-1
b) 1.10 g g-1
c) 1.30 g g-1
d) 1.40 g g-1

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Theoretical yield is based on the mass of ethanol actually used for synthesis of acetic acid. From the stoichiometric equation:

bioprocess-engineering-questions-answers-yields-cell-culture -q3

4. How many grams of carbon is/are in one mole?
a) 1 gram
b) 2 grams
c) 12 grams
d) 100 grams

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A sample of 12 grams of carbon is equal to one mole. The amount of moles in a substance can be determined using that substance’s molar mass. The molar mass is the amount of grams in one mole of a substance. The molar mass is the average atomic mass for a substance.

5. What is the molarity of 245.0 g of H2SO4 dissolved in 1.000 L of solution?
a) 2.408 M
b) 2.508 M
c) 2.598 M
d) 2.498 M

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] MV = grams / molar mass (x) (1.000 L) = 245.0 g / 98.0768 g mol¯1 x = 2.49804235 M to four sig figs, 2.498 M.

6. What is the molarity of 5.30 g of Na2CO3 dissolved in 400.0 mL solution?
a) 0.150 M
b) 0.125 M
c) 0.155 M
d) 0.120 M

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] MV = grams / molar mass (x) (0.4000 L) = 5.30 g / 105.988 g mol¯1 0.12501415 M x = 0.125 M (to three sig figs).

7. What is the unit of specific growth rate?
a) g-1
b) g/h
c) gl/h
d) h-1

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Specific growth rate = μ = 1/X dX/dt where, X = cell mass concentration (g/L) t = time (h).

8. What do you mean by the term “Ks”?
a) Saturation constant
b) Half saturation constant
c) Variable shape constant
d) Solution constant

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ks is the half-saturation constant or shape factor of the Monod equation. Ks equals the substrate concentration (mg/L) at which μ equals ½ of μmax.

9. The yield coefficient is not used in growth kinetic relationship of which of the following growth kinetics?
a) Zero order kinetics
b) First order kinetics
c) Second order kinetics
d) Monod’s kinetics

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The yield coefficient, commonly referred to as the substrate-to-biomass yield, is used to convert between cell growth rate dX/dt and substrate utilization rate dS/dt. The yield coefficient and the specific growth rate used to develop three types of microbial growth kinetic relationships; Monod , first order ,and zero order kinetics.

10. What is the yield coefficient if the initial substrate concentration is 10 g/l and biomass is 0.1 g/l. The substrate is then consumed and produces 5.3 g/l of biomass?
a) 0.50 g biomass/ g substrate
b) 0.52 g biomass/ g substrate
c) 0.54 g biomass/ g substrate
d) 0.56 g biomass/ g substrate

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Yield = (5.3 – 0.1 g biomass) / (10 g substrate) = 0.52 g biomass/ g substrate.

11. What is the yield coefficient if the initial substrate concentration is 20 g/l and biomass is 0.2 g/l. The substrate is then consumed and produces 6.0 g/l of biomass?
a) 0.09 g biomass/ g substrate
b) 0.19 g biomass/ g substrate
c) 0.20 g biomass/ g substrate
d) 0.29 g biomass/ g substrate

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Yield = (6.0 – 0.2 g biomass) / (20 g substrate) = 0.29 g biomass/ g substrate.

Set 5

1. Positive pressure is the pressure in which air flows only inside.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In Positive pressure air or gas pressure is greater than that of the atmosphere. Air will flow out of the room instead of in, so that any airborne microorganisms (e.g., bacteria) does not contaminate the environment in the bioreactor.

2. The vessel of bioreactor is draining from _________
a) Top
b) Below
c) Bottom
d) Side

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The vessel must be fully draining via a harvest nozzle located at the lowest point of the reactor.

3. The vessel should have the minimum number of internal structures.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Industrial fermenters are designed for in situ steam sterilisation under pressure. The vessel should have a minimum number of internal structures, ports, nozzles, connections and other attachments to ensure that steam reaches all parts of the equipment. For effective sterilisation, all air in the vessel and pipe connections must be displaced by steam.

4. Simple gate and globe valves are not better valves.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Common designs such as simple gate and globe valves have a tendency to leak around the valve stem and accumulate broth solids in the closing mechanism. Although used in the fermentation industry, they are unsuitable if a high level of sterility is required.

5. For smaller vessels, which type of sealing is required between the gap of fermenter and the stirrer?
a) Mechanical seal
b) Double-mechanical seal
c) Magnetic seal
d) Non-magnetic seal

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] On smaller vessels, magnetic drives can be used to couple the stirrer shaft with the motor; with these devices, the shaft does not pierce the fermenter body. A magnet in a housing on the outside of the fermenter is driven by the stirrer motor; inside, another magnet is attached to the end of the stirrer shaft and held in place by bearings. Sufficient power can be transmitted using magnetic drives to agitate vessels up to at least 800 litres in size.

6. Glass fermenters is used for about _____
a) 50 litres capacity
b) 100 litres capacity
c) 300 litres capacity
d) 30 litres capacity

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Glass is used to construct fermenters up to about 30 litres capacity. The advantages of glass are that it is smooth, non-toxic, corrosion-proof and transparent for easy inspection of the vessel contents.

7. Copper is not suitable for the construction of the fermenters.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Copper and copper-containing materials must be avoided in all parts of the fermenter contacting the culture because of its toxic effect on cells.

8. Cheaper grades of stainless steel is not preferred in the construction of the fermenter.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cheaper grades of stainless steel may be used for the jacket and other surfaces isolated from the broth.

9. Electro polishing is also referred as _________
a) Anodic polishing
b) Cathodic polishing
c) Electron polishing
d) Non-ionic polishing

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Electropolishing, also known as electrochemical polishing, anodic polishing or electrolytic polishing (especially in the metallography field), is an electrochemical process that removes material from a metallic workpiece. It is used to polish, passivate, and deburr metal parts. It is often described as the reverse of electroplating.

10. Which sparger consist of a single open or partially-closed pipe providing a stream of air bubbles?
a) Perforated sparger
b) Orifice sparger
c) Nozzle sparger
d) Porous sparger

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nozzle spargers are used in many agitated fermenters from laboratory to production scale. These spargers consist of a single open or partially-closed pipe providing a stream of air bubbles.

11. Which of the following sparger is most suitable for agitated fermenters?
a) Perforated sparger
b) Orifice sparger
c) Nozzle sparger
d) Porous sparger

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nozzle spargers are used in many agitated fermenters from laboratory to production scale. These spargers consist of a single open or partially-closed pipe providing a stream of air bubbles; advantages compared with other sparger designs include low resistance to gas flow and small risk of blockage.

12. A water cooled condenser is a heat exchanger.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A water-cooled condenser is a heat exchanger that removes heat from refrigerant vapor and transfers it to the water running through it. Having the refrigerant vapor condensed on the outside of a tube does this. In doing so, the vapor condenses and gives up heat to the water running inside the tube.

13. Is bioreactor and fermentor same?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Bioreactor: A vessel that provides you the facility of carrying out a chemical process involving the organisms or biochemically active substances which are derived from such organisms is called a bioreactor. Fermentor: The device that is able to perform the process of fermentation is known as fermentor.

14. All bioreactors deal with ___________
a) Homogenous systems
b) Heterogeneous systems
c) Non-heterogeneous systems
d) Isolated systems

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] All bioreactors deal with heterogeneous systems dealing with two or more phases, e.g., liquid, gas, solid. Therefore, optimal conditions for fermentation necessitate efficient transfer of mass, heat and momentum from one phase to the other.

15. Anaerobic fermenters are complex than aerobic fermenters.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Industrial fermenters can be divided into two major classes, anaerobic and aerobic. Anaerobic fermenters require little special equipment except for removal of heat generated during the fermentation process, whereas aerobic fermenters require much more elaborate equipment to ensure that mixing and adequate aeration are achieved.

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