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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The branch of geology which deals with the morphology, classification, mechanism and causes of development of these rock structures is called as
a) Rock geology
b) Structural geology
c) Basic geology
d) Lithology

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The basic definition of structural geology is “the branch of geology which deals with the morphology, classification, mechanism and causes of development of these rock structures”. Hence the answer Structural Geology.

2. Stratification can be seen widely in which of the following rocks?
a) Igneous rocks
b) Metamorphic rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks
d) Fossil rocks

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Most sedimentary rocks are deposited under conditions which favour development of distinct layers piled up one above another, from bottom to top. These layers also called beds or strata.

3. Outcrop is seen on land everywhere on earth. State true or false.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Solid rocks are not exposed everywhere on the surface of the earth. These are mostly covered with a thick or thin layer of loose deposit called alluvium or in most common language as soil. Hence rock or the outcrop is not seen everywhere on earth.

4. Most widespread rock on earth is
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) All are in equal quantities

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] It is said that sedimentary rocks are superficially the most widespread rocks, forming more than 75% of the exposed surface of the earth.

5. Which of the following about lamination is not true?
a) It is closely related to stratification
b) It is literally paper thin
c) It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained igneous rocks
d) It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained sedimentary rocks

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The term lamination is closely related to stratification. It is a layered structure developed in extremely fine grained sedimentary rocks made up of clay and silt. The layers are paper thin literally speaking.

6. The maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a rock with the horizontal is
a) Dip
b) Heave angle
c) Strike
d) Depth

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The definition of dip is “The maximum angle of inclination of a layer of a rock with the horizontal”. It is expressed both in terms of degree of inclination and direction of inclination.

7. Angle of dip is measured using which instrument?
a) Compass
b) Theodolite
c) Tacheometer
d) Clinometer

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The direction of dip is determined with a simple compass whereas the angle of dip is determined with an instrument called clinometer, which comes built in with the compass.

8. Which among the following is not a type of dip?
a) Widespread dip
b) Primary dip
c) Secondary dip
d) Local and regional dip

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The types of dips are primary, secondary, local and regional. Widespread dip is not considered as a dip.

9. The term “intrusion” is basically associated with which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any type of rock

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Igneous rocks are formed from cooling and crystallization of hot molten material called magma/lava depending on the place of occurrence. The magma gets intruded or injected into the pre-existing rocks of any type- called the host rocks and takes variously shaped forms on cooling. These forms are commonly termed as Intrusion.

10. The dip which involves tectonic forces is
a) Primary dip
b) Secondary dip
c) Local and Regional dip
d) No dip involves tectonic forces

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Secondary dip is the inclination induced in the strata after its deposition due to the tectonic forces to which such strata have been subsequently subjected. Secondary dips may range in value up to vertical.

11. A coal seam is exposed on a horizontal ground. If it is 30° towards West. Its width of outcrop on a level ground is 360 m. What is its true thickness?
a) 120 m
b) 150 m
c) 160 m
d) 180 m

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The equation to calculate True thickness is given by True thickness = Width of outcrop * Sin 30° By substitution and calculation, we get 180 m. True thickness = 360 * sin (30°) = 180 m

12. At a dam site, a bed of sandstone is exposed on horizontal ground. If it is 25° towards East. Its width of outcrop on a level ground is 240 m, what is its vertical thickness?
a) 101.9 m
b) 99.9 m
c) 111.9 m
d) 121.9 m

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Vertical thickness = Width of outcrop * tan (angle of inclination) Vertical thickness = 240 * tan (25°) = 111.91 m

13. The study of outcrop dimensions doesn’t involve which of the following aspect?
a) Width
b) Thickness and depth
c) Dip and strike
d) Rock composition and type

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The study of rock composition and type of rock is not done under the outcrop dimensions whereas the rest are thoroughly studied under the topic.

14. Foliation is a primary structure of which type of rock?
a) Igneous rock
b) Sedimentary rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) Not associated with any rock

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Stratification and lamination are the most common primary structures of sedimentary rocks; crystalline structure is typical of igneous rocks and foliation is a typical primary structure of metamorphic rocks.

15. The dip of a layer measured in the direction that is at right angle to strike is
a) True dip
b) Apparent dip
c) Straight dip
d) Normal dip

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When the dip of a layer is measured in a direction that is essentially at right angles to the strike of that particular layer, then it is called true dip. When the dip of a layer is measured in any other direction, which is not at right angles to its strike direction, it is called an apparent dip.

Set 2

1. What is the stage when the bankfull stage is crossed?
a) Overflow stage
b) Flood stage
c) Dead stage
d) Excess stage

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Normally, the river flows much below bankfull stage; abnormally; however, the bankfull, the stage may be crossed when the river is said to be in a flood stage.

2. The distance water travels in a unit time is
a) Speed
b) Unit speed
c) Velocity
d) Acceleration

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Velocity is defined as the distance water travels in a unit time within its channel.

3. What is the term defining the capacity of a river to transport the material?
a) Gradient
b) Competence
c) Flow type
d) Fluvial

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Competence defines the capacity of a river to transport the material and is represented by the largest size of a particle that can be transported at a given velocity.

4. The term which is a function of cross-sectional area of the channel and flow velocity is
a) Gradient
b) Competence
c) Discharge
d) Stream line

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Discharge is defined as the volume that passes at a given point in the channel in a unit time. It is a function of cross-sectional area of the channel and flow velocity.

5. The mechanical loosening and removal of the material from the rocks due to pressure exerted by the running water is called
a) Gradient
b) Weathering
c) Hydraulic action
d) Cavitation

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Hydraulic action is the mechanical loosening and removal of the material from the rocks due to pressure exerted by the running water. The higher velocity, the greater is the pressure of the running water and hence greater is its capacity to bodily move out parts of the rock.

6. Which among the following is not true about cavitation?
a) It occurs everywhere
b) It is distinct process
c) It is a rare process
d) It is observed where river water acquires exceptionally high velocity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Cavitation is a distinct and rare type of hydraulic action performed by running water. It is particularly observed where river water suddenly acquires exceptionally high velocity such as at the location of a waterfall.

7. There is a spontaneous change from liquid to vapour state and back to liquid state at the point of fall of waterfall. State true or false.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is known that where stream velocity exceeds 12m/sec, the water pressure developed at the impinging points equals vapour pressure and there is spontaneous change from liquid to vapour state and back to liquid state at that point.

8. What is the principal method of stream erosion and involves wearing away of the bedrocks?
a) Hydraulic action
b) Abrasion
c) Attrition
d) Corrosion

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Abrasion is the principal method of stream erosion and involves wearing away of the bedrocks and rocks along the banks of a stream or river by the running water with the help of sand grains, pebbles and gravels and all such particles that are being carried by it as load.

9. The term for wear and tear of the load sediments being transported by a moving natural agency through the process of mutual impacts is
a) Hydraulic action
b) Abrasion
c) Attrition
d) Corrosion

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Attrition is the term used for the term for wear and tear of the load sediments being transported by a moving natural agency through the process of mutual impacts and collisions which they suffer during their transport.

10. Factor which doesn’t affect velocity is
a) Gradient of the channel
b) Volume of the water in the stream
c) Type of water flowing
d) Roughness of the channel

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The velocity of a stream itself depends on: the gradient of the channel; the roughness of the channel along the base and the sides; the volume of the load in the stream at a given place.

Set 3

1. Which of the following is not dependent on result of equilibrium condition of polymerization reaction?
a) degree of polymerization
b) chain length distribution
c) limiting monomer conversion
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The result of equilibrium condition is felt on degree of polymerization, chain length distribution and also on the conversion of monomer to polymer.

2. How the increase in temperature to higher values, does affect the equilibrium state of propagation reaction?
a) shifts forward
b) shifts backwards
c) remains constant
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The shifting of equilibrium takes place in reverse reaction as the propagation reaction is exothermic. Initially the effect of reverse reaction rate constant, kdp is not felt, but it increases progressively with higher temperatures and at a critical temperature, the overall polymerization reduces to zero.

3. What is the value of overall rate of polymerization at ceiling temperature?
a) exceptionally high
b) exceptionally low
c) zero
d) cannot be determined

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] When the temperature is initially increased from a low level, rate increases due to gain in the value of kp. Initially the effect of reverse reaction rate constant, kdp is not felt, but it increases progressively with higher temperatures and at a critical temperature, the rate of propagation is equal to rate of de-propagation and the overall polymerization reduces to zero.

4. What is the critical temperature Tc called, if ∆Hᵒ and ∆Sᵒ are both negative in radical polymerization?
a) ceiling temperature
b) floor temperature
c) theta temperature
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] If both ∆Hᵒ and ∆Sᵒ are negative, then the critical temperature is called the ceiling temperature, above which it is thermodynamically impossible to convert monomer to polymer.

5. What is the critical temperature called, if ∆Hᵒ and ∆Sᵒ are both positive in radical polymerization?
a) ceiling temperature
b) floor temperature
c) theta temperature
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] If both ∆Hᵒ and ∆Sᵒ are positive, then the critical temperature is called the floor temperature, below which it is thermodynamically impossible to convert monomer to polymer.

6. What is the approximate ceiling temperature of tetrahydrofuran?
a) 70ᵒC
b) 160ᵒC
c) 300ᵒC
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Tetrahydrofuran shows a ceiling temperature of 70ᵒC above which its polymerization does not take place.

7. How does the viscosity of molten sulphur vary near 160ᵒC and above it?
a) goes minimum and then rises sharply
b) goes maximum and falls rapidly
c) remains constant
d) cannot be determined

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The viscosity of molten sulphur passes through minimum at approximately 160ᵒC and the rises sharply. The hemolytic cleavage of S8 ring yield diradical and gives rise to free radical polymerization of further heating.

8. Which of the following does not affect the critical temperature, Tc?
a) heat of polymerization
b) conditions affecting monomer concentration
c) reaction medium
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Tc is affected by the conditions affecting monomer concentration, the heat of polymerization and the reaction medium.

9. What does the intersection point of kdp and kp[M] curves give, where kp and kdp are the rate constants of propagation and depropagation reaction, respectively, when kdp and kp[M] are plotted against temperature of reaction?
a) critical monomer concentration
b) critical ceiling temperature
c) kp/kdp
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The intersection point of the given curves in the plot of kdp and kp[M] against the temperature, gives the value of ceiling temperature, at which the rate of polymerization is zero.

Set 4

1. How many methylol groups are present in a typical novolac molecule?
a) 3-5
b) 6-8
c) 0
d) 2

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A typical novolac molecule contains around 6 aromatic rings linked through methylene linkages and having practically no methylol groups attached to it. Thus they are soluble and fusible.

2. If the resinification reaction is stopped at early stages, a low molecular weight product A, having 3-4 aromatic rings and 3-5 methylol groups, which is soluble in alkalis and alcohol is formed. What is the name of the product A?
a) resole
b) resitol
c) resite
d) novolac

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] If the resinification reaction is stopped at early stages, a low molecular weight product soluble in alkalis and alcohol is obtained. It is known as resole or A-stage resin, which has 3-4 aromatic rings and 3-5 methylol groups. It may be either linear or may be lowly branched.

3. What is the name of the B- staged resin formed in resinification process?
a) resol
b) resitol
c) resite
d) novolac

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The reaction of resols with other reactive species and also among each other leads to the production of B-staged resins, known as resitols, which are mildly cross-linked molecules.

4. Resin P, on further heating turns into completely cross-linked resin Q, which is totally insoluble and infusible. Resin P is slightly heat fusible and insoluble in alkalis and alcohols but partly soluble in acetone. What are the names of resin P and Q?
a) resol and resitol
b) resitol and resite
c) resol and resite
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Resitols being slightly heat fusible on further heating turn into fully cured or cross-linked resin known as resite or C-staged resin which is totally insoluble and infusible.

5. Which of the following phenolic resins are suitable for the decorative laminates?
a) caustic soda catalyzed resols
b) ammonia catalyzed resols
c) spirit resols
d) resites

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Caustic soda catalyzed resols are suitable for mechanical and decorative laminates while ammonia catalyzed resols are used for electrical laminates.

6. What are the temperature and pressure conditions in compression moulding technique in the moulding of phenolic moulding powder?
a) 160-170 ᵒC and 1500-3000 psi
b) 100-120 ᵒC and 1000-1500 psi
c) 160-170 ᵒC and 500-1000 psi
d) 100-200 ᵒC and 1500-3000 psi

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Compression moulding is operated to mould the phenolic moulding powders by using a pressure of about 1500-3000 psi and temperature of 160-170 ᵒC.

7. What is the approximate phenol formaldehyde ratio used is the preparation of casting grade phenolic resins?
a) 1:2.2
b) 2:1
c) 3:1
d) 1:2

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The casting grade phenolics are prepared from highly pure grades of phenol and formaldehyde using more than 2 moles of formaldehyde per mole of phenol and employing alkaline catalyst.

8. Why is a stainless steel kettle used in the production of casting grade phenolics?
a) to minimize corrosion’
b) to minimize color formation
c) to maximize color formation
d) to increase strength

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] To minimize color formation, a stainless steel kettle is used in the process of formation and a mild temperature of 70-75 ᵒC is maintained.

9. What type of phenolics is extensively used as objects of art and jewellery?
a) laminated phenolics
b) cast phenolics
c) oil-soluble phenolics
d) resols

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Due to their attractive colours and transparency, self-lubricating properties and good machinability, the cast phenolics are used as objects of art and jewellery and as handles of tools and umbrella, knobs, etc.

10. How is the cross-linking of novolacs better accomplished along with the presence of additional formaldehyde?
a) use of acidic catalyst
b) use of basic catalyst
c) additional phenol
d) none of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The cross-linking of novolacs is better accomplished using a basic catalyst. An insoluble, infusible, cross-linked polymer products is then formed in a single step.

Set 5

1. Which of the following resistances is provided by the presence of chlorine in CR molecules?
a) resistance to flex cracking
b) ozone resistance
c) flame resistance
d) resistance to oxidative aging

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] CR compounds exhibit some inherent flame resistance due to the presence of chlorine in the molecules.

2. Which one of the following conditions does not resemble to hot nitrile rubbers?
a) high temperature 25-50 C
b) high gel content
c) little gel content
d) branched units

View Answer

Answer: Hot nitrile rubbers are formed by copolymerization at around 25-50 C which have characteristic toughness due to the presence of gels and branch units in polymer chains.

3. Which property of NBR-PVC blends mends its way to be used in footwear soling?
a) good weathering resistance
b) good abrasion resistance
c) good flame resistance
d) solvent resistance

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Good abrasion resistance had led to the use of NBR-PVC blends in footwear soling.

4. What is the polymerization temperature of isobutylene to give high molecular weight polyisobutylene?
a) 80 C
b) -80 C
c) 25 C
d) -25 C

View Answer

Answer: Isobutylene can be commercially polymerizaed to high molecular weight polyisobutylene using cationic catalysts such as boron trifluoride at a temperature of -80 C.

5. What is the monomer composition of IIR polymer or Butyl Rubber?
a) isobutylene
b) isoprene
c) isoprene and isobutylene
d) isoprene, isobutylene and chloroprene

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Butyl rubber or isobutylene-isoprene rubber (IIR) is formed by the copolymerization of isoprene and isobutylene monomers.

6. Which of the following properties does not correspond to butyl rubbers?
a) poor resilience
b) low heat build-up
c) high internal viscosity
d) good flexibility even below -40 C

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Butyl rubber retains its flexibility even below -40 C by not crystallizing at lower temperatures. The methyl side groups of butyl rubber hinder elastic movements, thus giving rise to high internal viscosity and consequently, high heat build-up and poor resilience.

7. Butyl Rubber usually exhibits high gas permeability. State true or false.
a) true
b) false

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The densely packed structure of the linear hydrocarbon chains makes butyl rubber exhibit unusually low gas permeability.

8. Polyisobutylene rubbers can be vulcanized easily using conventional curing systems. State true or false.
a) true
b) false

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Polyisobutylene is rubbery in nature but it cannot be vulcanized easily using conventional curing systems because of the absence of unsaturation in the chain molecules.

9. Which of the following is used for vulcanization of butyl rubber to produce vulcanizates with improved heat resistance and aging characteristics?
a) sulphur
b) oxime and red lead
c) phenol-formaldehyde resins
d) carbon black

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Vulcanization with phenol-formaldehyde resins produces the vulcanizates with improved heat resistance and aging characteristics as compared to other vulcanizing agents.

10. How can the curing of halobutyl rubbers be done conveniently?
a) sulphur cure
b) amine cure
c) quininoid cure
d) all of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Curing of chlorobutyl or bromobutyl rubbers can be conveniently done following conventional sulphur cure or quininoid cure, resin cure, amine cure or simply metal oxide cure.

11. What approx proportion of third diene monomer is added to produce EPDM rubber?
a) 9-10%
b) 4-5%
c) 19-20%
d) 12-15%

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] EPDM ruuber is a terpolymer formed by the copolymerization of a non-conjugated diene as a third monomer in small proportions, upto 5%, along with ethylene and propylene.

12. Which of the following does not resemble to EPDM rubbers?
a) high density
b) moderate tear strength
c) good heat stability
d) good storage stability

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EPDM rubbers have low density around 0.85 gram per cubic centimeters.

13. Which of the following is used as curing agent for acrylate rubbers?
a) sulphur
b) zinc oxide and stearic acid
c) aliphatic amines and polyamines
d) metal peroxides

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Acrylate rubbers are readily cured using aliphatic linear amined and polyamines.

14. What is the monomer composition of polymer named Vamac?
a) methyl acrylate, ethylene, curing site monomer
b) propylene, ethylene, ethyl acrylate
c) ethyl acrylate, ethylene
d) ethyl acrylate, ethylene, cure site monomer

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A terpolymer of methyl acrylate, ethylene and a cure site monomer is known as Vamac in the trade.

15. Which monomer pairs copolymerize to give nitroso rubber?
a) trifluoronitrosomethane and tetrafluoroethylene
b) tetrafluoronitrosomethane and trifluoroethylene
c) trifluoronitrosomethane and trifluoroethylene
d) tetrafluoronitrosomethane and tetrafluoroethylene

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Nitroso Rubber is an alternating copolymer of trifluoronitrosomethane and tetrafluoroethylene of high molecular weight.