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# Multiple choice question for engineering

## Set 1

1. The shear capacity of web comprises of strength
a) before onset of buckling strength only
b) post buckling strength only
c) before onset of buckling strength and post buckling strength
d) compression strength

Answer: c [Reason:] The shear capacity of web comprises of strength before onset of buckling strength and post buckling strength. strength before onset of buckling is contributed because of elastic behaviour wherein stresses are entirely elastic and the only requirement for the stiffeners is to keep the web flat.

2. What will happen when d/tw is sufficiently low?
a) web will yield under buckling before shear
b) web will yield under shear before buckling
c) web will not yield under shear
d) web will not yield under both shear and buckling

Answer: b [Reason:] When d/tw ratio is sufficiently low, the elastic critical stress increases above the value of yield shear stress and the web will yield under shear before buckling.

3. The nominal shear strength according to simple post-critical method is given by
a) Av
b) Avτb
c) τb
d) Avb

Answer: b [Reason:] Simple post-critical method based on the shear buckling strength can be used for web of I-section girders, with or without intermediate transverse stiffeners, provided that web has transverse stiffeners at the supports. The nominal shear strength is given by Vn= Avτb, where Av = area of web, τb = shear stress corresponding to web buckling.

4. The value of τb in the nominal shear strength equation according to simple post-critical method is given by
a) fyw / √ λw
b) fyww
c) fyww²
d) fyw/(√3 λw²)

Answer: d [Reason:] The value of τb in the nominal shear strength equation according to simple post-critical method is given by τb = fyw/√3 for λw ≤0.8, [1-0.8(λw -0.8)](fyw/√3) for 0.8 < λw<1.2, fyw/(√3 λw²) for λw ≥1.2, where fyw is yield strength of web, λw is non-dimensional web slenderness ratio for shear buckling stress.

5. The value of non-dimensional web slenderness ratio in the nominal shear strength equation according to simple post-critical method is given by
a) √(fyw/(√3τcr,e))
b) (fyw/(√3τcr,e))
c) (fyw/(τcr,e))
d) (fyw/(√3τcr,e))2

Answer: a [Reason:] The value of non-dimensional web slenderness ratio in the nominal shear strength equation according to simple post-critical method is given by λw =√(fyw/(√3τcr,e)), where fyw is yield strength of web, τcr,e is elastic critical shear stress of the web.

6. The elastic critical shear stress of the web is given by
a) kvπ2/[12(1+μ2)(d/tw)2].
b) kvπ2E/[12(1+μ2)(d/tw)2].
c) kvπ2E/[12(1-μ2)(d/tw)2].
d) kvE/[12(1-μ2)(d/tw)].

Answer: c [Reason:] The elastic critical shear stress of the web is given by τcr,e = kvπ2E/[12(1-μ2)(d/tw)2], where E is elastic modulus, μ is Poisson’s ratio, kv is constant which depends on spacing of transverse stiffeners and depth of web.

7. The value of kv in the elastic critical shear stress equation for c/d < 1 is given by
a) 4.0 – [5.35/(c/d)].
b) 4.0 + [5.35/(c/d)2].
c) 5.35 + [4/(c/d)2].
d) 5.35 – [4/(c/d)].

Answer: b [Reason:] The value of kv in the elastic critical shear stress equation is given by kv = 5.35 when transverse stiffeners are provided only at supports, kv = 4.0 + [5.35/(c/d)2] for c/d < 1.0, kv = 5.35 + [4/(c/d)2] for c/d ≥ 1.0, where c and d are spacing of transverse stiffeners and depth of web respectively.

8. Which of the following conditions are true when tension field method is used?
a) it is based on pre-buckling strength
b) c/d < 1.0
c) it may not be used for webs with intermediate stiffeners
d) it may be used for webs with intermediate stiffeners

Answer: d [Reason:] The tension field method, based on the post-shear buckling strength, may be used for webs with intermediate transverse stiffeners at supports, provided the panels adjacent to the panel angle tension field action or the end posts provide anchorage for the tension field and is c/d>1.0.

9. What is the value of nominal shear strength according to tension field method?
a) Avτb
b) 0.9wtftwfvsinφ
c) Avτb – 0.9wtftwfvsinφ
d) Avτb + 0.9wtftwfvsinφ

Answer: d [Reason:] In tension field method, the nominal shear strength is given by Vn = Avτb + 0.9wtftfvsinφ, where Av is area of web, τb is buckling strength or shear stress corresponding to web buckling, fv is yield strength of tension field which depends on inclination of tension field, wtf is the width of tension field, tw is width of web.

10. The value of fv in the nominal shear strength according to tension field method is given by
a) [fyw2+3 τb22]0.5
b) [fyw2-3 τb22]0.5
c) [fyw2-3 τb22] -Ψ
d) [fyw2+3 τb22]+Ψ

Answer: b [Reason:] The value of fv in the nominal shear strength according to tension field method is given by fv = [fyw2-3 τb22]0.5-Ψ , where fyw is yield stress of web, τb is buckling strength or shear stress corresponding to web buckling, Ψ is a parameter which depends on inclination of tension field and buckling strength.

11. What is the expression for Ψ in the fv for nominal shear strength according to tension field method is given by
a) 1.5 τb sin2φ
b) sin2φ
c) 1.5 τb
d) 1.5 τb /sin2φ

Answer: a [Reason:] The value of Ψ in the fv for nominal shear strength according to tension field method is given by Ψ =1.5 τb sin2φ, where τb is buckling strength or shear stress corresponding to web buckling, φ is inclination of tension field which depends on depth of web and spacing of stiffeners.

12. The inclination of tension field is
a) tan(c/d)
b) tan(d/c)
c) tan-1(c/d)
d) tan-1(d/c)

Answer: d [Reason:] The inclination of tension field is given by φ = tan-1(d/c), where d is depth of web and c is spacing between stiffeners. The change in angle of inclination of tension field affects the width and yield strength of tension field.

13. Which of the following is an expression for width of tension field?
a) wtf = d sinφ + (c-sc-st)cosφ
b) wtf = d cosφ + (c-sc-st)sinφ
c) wtf = d cosφ – (c+sc-st)sinφ
d) wtf = d sinφ – (c+sc-st)cosφ

Answer: b [Reason:] The width of tension field in the tension field action method is given by wtf = d cosφ + (c-sc-st)sinφ, where d is depth of beam, φ = inclination of tension field = tan-1(d/c), c is spacing between stiffeners, sc and st are anchorage lengths of tension field along the compression and tension flanges respectively and depends on reduced plastic moment capacity, inclination of tension field, thickness of web and yield stress of web.

14. The anchorage length of tension field is
a) s = (2 sinφ)(Mfr/fywtw)0.5
b) s = (2/ sinφ)(Mfr/fywtw)
c) s = (2/ sinφ)(Mfr/fywtw)0.5
d) s = (2/ sinφ)(Mfrfywtw)

Answer: c [Reason:] The anchorage length of tension field is s = (2/ sinφ)(Mfr/fywtw)0.5 where φ = inclination of tension field = tan-1(d/c), c is spacing between stiffeners, d is depth of beam, Mfr is reduced plastic moment capacity of the respective flange plate, fyw is yield stress of web and tw is thickness of web. The anchorage length should be less than or equal to spacing between stiffeners.

15. Which of the following expression for reduced plastic moment capacity is correct?
a) Mfr = 0.25bftf2fyf {1-[Nf/( bftffyfm0)2]}
b) Mfr = bftffyf {1-[Nf/( bftffyfm0)]}
c) Mfr = 0.25bftf {1+[Nf/( bftffyfm0)]}
d) Mfr = 0.25bf {1+[Nf( bftffyfγm0)2]}

Answer: a [Reason:] The reduced plastic moment capacity of respective flange plate is calculated after accounting for axial force in flange, due to overall bending and any external axial force in the cross section. It is given by Mfr = 0.25bftf2fyf {1-[Nf/( bftffyfm0)2]}, where bf and tf are width and thickness of flange respectively, fyf is yield stress of flange and Nf is the axial force in flange.

## Set 2

1. The production of sound welds is not governed by ______
a) type of joint
b) choice of electrode
c) type of metal plate
d) arc length

Answer: c [Reason:] The production of sound welds is governed by type of joint, its preparation, root opening, etc. The choice of electrode, welding position, welding current and voltage, arc length, rate of travel also affect the quality of weld.

2. Which of the following is not a reason for incomplete fusion?
a) surfaces to be jointed are coated with oxides
b) insufficient current supplied by welding equipment
c) high rate of welding
d) use of large electrode

Answer: d [Reason:] Incomplete fusion may result if surfaces to be jointed have not been cleaned properly and are coated with oxides and other foreign materials. Insufficient current supplied by welding equipment and high rate of welding will result in incomplete fusion.

3. Which of the following is true?
a) incomplete penetration is found in fillet welds
b) it is due to use of large size of electrodes
c) it is due to excessive welding current
d) it is due to insufficient welding rates

Answer: b [Reason:] Incomplete penetration is due to failure of weld metal to penetrate the complete depth of joint where full penetration has been specified. This defect is found in groove welds sue to unsuitable groove design for selected welding process, use of large size of electrodes, insufficient welding current, excessive welding rates.

4. Which of the following is not true?
a) Porosity is caused due to insufficient current
b) It is caused due to longer arc length
c) It may be due to poor welding procedure
d) It results in stress concentration

Answer: a [Reason:] Porosity is formed when gas pockets or voids are draped during cooling process. It may be due to excessively high current or longer arc length or due to poor welding procedure. Porosity results in stress concentration and reduced ductility of metal.

5. Which of the following is true regarding undercutting defect?
a) Undercutting is due to local increase of thickness of parent metal at weld toe
b) It is due to insufficient current
c) It can be corrected by depositing additional weld material
d) It is not easy to detect

Answer: c [Reason:] Undercutting is due to local decrease of thickness of parent metal at weld toe. This results in groove in base metal adjacent to toe of weld and left unfilled by weld metal during welding process. Undercutting may result in loss of gross section and will act as stress riser. This defect may be due to excessive current or longer arc length. It can be easily detected visually and can be corrected by depositing additional weld material.

6. Hot cracks can be prevented by __________
a) faster cooling
b) non uniform heating
c) pre-heating
d) slower cooling

Answer: d [Reason:] Hot cracks form as weld begin to solidify and are caused by brittle constituents (presence of sulphur, carbon, silicon and hydrogen). They can be prevented by more uniform heating and slower cooling.

7. Cold cracks can be prevented by __________
a) uniform heating
b) by use of low hydrogen electrode
c) faster cooling
d) slower cooling

Answer: b [Reason:] Cold cracks occur under room temperature run parallel to but under the weld in base metal. Use of low hydrogen electrodes along with proper pre-heating and post-heating may reduce possibility of cold cracks.

8. The types of welded joints does not depend on _________
a) size of members connected at joint
c) area available for welding
d) size of weld

Answer: d [Reason:] The types of welded joints depends on (i) size and shape of members connected at joint, (ii) type of loading, (iii) area available for welding at the joint, (iv) relative cost of various types of weld.

9. Which of the following are correct regarding butt joints over lap joints?
a) Lap joints eliminates eccentricity whereas butt joints develops eccentricity
b) Butt joints minimizes the size of connection
c) Lap joints are aesthetically pleasing over butt joints
d) Butt joint obtained from full penetration groove weld has 50% efficiency

Answer: b [Reason:] Butt joints eliminates eccentricity developed using lap joints. Butt joints minimizes the size of connection and are aesthetically pleasing over lap joints. Butt joint obtained from full penetration groove weld has 100% efficiency.

10. What is face reinforcement used in butt joint?
a) It is extra weld metal that makes throat dimensions greater than the thickness of the welded material
b) It is extra weld metal that makes the throat dimensions smaller than the thickness of the welded material
c) It is extra weld metal that makes the throat dimensions equal to the thickness of the welded material
d) It is parent metal makes that the throat dimensions smaller than the thickness of the welded material

Answer: a [Reason:] Face reinforcement is extra weld metal that makes the throat dimensions greater than the thickness of the welded material. The provision of reinforcement increases the efficiency of joint and ensures that depth of weld is at least equal to thickness of the plate.

11. When plates of two different thicknesses and/or widths are joined, the wider or thicker part should be reduced at the butt joint to make __________
a) thickness less than smaller part, the slope being steeper than one in five
b) thickness greater than smaller part, the slope being steeper than one in five
c) thickness equal to smaller part, the slope not being steeper than one in five
d) thickness equal to smaller part, the slope being steeper than one in five

Answer: c [Reason:] When plates of two different thicknesses and/or widths are joined, the wider or thicker part should be reduced at the butt joint to make thickness equal to smaller part, the slope not being steeper than one in five. When reduction is not possible, the weld metal shall be built up at the junction with thicker part to dimensions at least 25% greater than those of thinner part, or alternatively to the dimensions of thicker member.

12. Which of the following is not true regarding lap joint?
a) Connection using lap joint requires large number of erection bolts
b) It can accommodate minor errors in fabrication
c) Lap joints are well suited for shop as well as field welding
d) It introduces some eccentricity of loads

Answer: a [Reason:] Lap joints offer ease of fitting and ease of jointing. It can accommodate minor errors in fabrication or minor adjustment in length. They are well suited for shop as well as field welding. Connection using lap joint requires a small number of erection bolts. The main drawback of lap joint is that it introduces some eccentricity of loads, unless a double lap joint is used.

13. T-joints are not used to fabricate _________
a) I-shapes
b) T-shapes
c) Brackets
d) Plates joined at straight angles

Answer: d [Reason:] T-joints are used to fabricate built up sections such as T-shapes, I-shapes, plate girders, brackets and stiffeners where two plates are joined at right angles.

14. Match the pair

```	Types of joints					Use / Application
A) Butt joint			i) used to keep two or more plats in given plane
B) Lap joint			ii) used to join ends of flat plates of nearly equal thickness
C) Tee joint			iii) used to form built-up rectangular box sections
D) Corner joint		        iv) used to fabricate built-up sections
E) Edge joint		        v) plates with different thickness can be joined without any difficulty```

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
b) A-ii, B-v, C-iv, D-iii, E-i
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-v, E-i
d) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i

Answer: b [Reason:] Butt joint is used to join of flat plates of nearly equal thickness. Plates with different thickness can be joined without any difficulty using lap joints. Tee joint is used to fabricate built-up sections, where two plates are joined at right angles. Corner joint is used to form built-up rectangular box sections, which may be used as columns or beams to resist high torsional forces. Edge joints are not used in structural engineering applications, they are used to keep two or more plats in given plane.

## Set 3

1. Which of the following parameters control the quality of weld?
a) composition of electrode
b) size of electrode
c) size of metal plate
d) composition of metal plate

Answer: b [Reason:] The parameters control the quality of weld are size of electrode and the current that produces sufficient heat to melt the base metal and minimizes electrode splatter.

2. Why is electrode coated with a flux in shielded metal arc welding?
a) for shiny appearance of electrode
b) to make welding faster
c) to increase the melting of electrode
d) to protect the electrode

Answer: d [Reason:] The electrode is coated with a flux in shielded metal arc welding. Heat from electric current causes the combustion and decomposition of electrode. This creates a gaseous shield to protect the electrode, metal and molten pool from atmospheric contamination due to oxidation.

3. Which of the following can be non-low hydrogen process?
a) Shielded metal arc welding
b) Submerged arc welding
c) Gas-shielded metal arc welding
d) Flux core arc welding

Answer: a [Reason:] Shielded metal arc welding can be a low hydrogen process or non-low hydrogen process, while submerged arc welding, gas-shielded metal arc welding, flux core arc welding are low hydrogen process.

4. Why hydrogen not used excessively for welding?
a) increases welding rate
b) decreases welding rate
c) destroys the metal plate
d) affects the weld

Answer: d [Reason:] Hydrogen causes weld to crack. Hence most of the welding processes are low hydrogen welding process.

5. Which of the following is true about shielded metal arc welding?
a) equipment cost is high
b) cannot weld different types of metals
c) cannot be used for metal sheets under 1.5mm thickness
d) entire electrode can be used

Answer: c [Reason:] The following are some advantages of shielded metal arc welding : (i)low equipment cost, (ii)welds many different metals, (iii)welds can be performed in any position, (iv)process less affected by wind, (v)can be performed under most weather conditions. SomeThe disadvantages are : (i)not suitable for metal sheets under 1.5mm thickness,(ii) entire electrode cannot be used, about 25-50mm electrode is wasted.

6. Which of the following is not correct about submerged arc welding?
a) high deposition rate
b) short set-up time
c) high quality welds
d) slag removal needed

Answer: b [Reason:] The following are some advantages of submerged arc welding: (i) high deposition rate, (ii)high quality welds with good ductility, high impact strength, good corrosion resistance, (iii)good for welding long joints(in excess of 1m), (iv)no eye protection required. Some disadvantages are : (i) long set-up time, (ii)slag removal needed, (iii)used for flat or horizontal fillets only.

7. Choose the correct option regarding metal-active gas welding?
a) not suitable for thin metal sheets
b) need to stop welding to change the consumed electrode
c) equipment is not expensive
d) high deposition rate

Answer: d [Reason:] Gas-shielded metal arc welding is also called metal-active gas welding. The following are some advantages of gas-shielded metal arc welding : (i) suitable for metals as thin as 0.58mm, (ii)all welding positions can be used, (iii) no need to stop welding to change the consumed electrode, (iv)high deposition rates. Some disadvantages are : (i)welding equipment is expensive and complicated, (ii)cannot be performed outdoors in greater than 8km/hr breeze.

8. What is the differentiating factor between flux core arc welding and gas-shielded metal arc welding processes?
a) structure and chemical composition of electrode
b) structure and chemical composition of metal plate
c) time of welding
d) process of welding

Answer: a [Reason:] The structure and chemical composition of electrode wire is the differentiating factor between flux core arc welding and gas-shielded metal arc welding processes. Unlike gas-shielded metal arc welding, flux core arc welding electrode wire is not solid and consists of thin-walled metal tube filled with flux.

9. Which of the following is true about flux core arc welding?
a) low deposition rate
b) cannot weld narrow angles
c) slag removal required
d) generates less volume of fumes and smoke.

Answer: c [Reason:] The following are some advantages of flux core arc welding: (i)high deposition rates, (ii)can be used to groove angles as narrow as 30˚, (iii)welds in all positions can be made, (iv)has excellent weld pool control. Some disadvantages are: (i) slag removal required, (ii) generates large volume of fumes and smoke.

10. Which of the following welding process is preferred for field application?
a) Shielded metal arc welding
b) Submerged arc welding
c) Gas-shielded metal arc welding
d) Flux core arc welding

Answer: a [Reason:] Submerged arc welding, gas-shielded metal arc welding, flux core arc welding, electro slag welding can be used when welding is done in fabrication shop. For field applications, shielded metal arc welding is preferred.

11. Which of the following is not correct about electro slag welding?
a) high deposition rates
b) welds flat or vertical joints only
c) multiple electrodes may not be used
d) complicated set-up

Answer: c [Reason:] The following are some advantages of electro slag welding: (i) high deposition rates, (ii) multiple electrodes may be used, (iii)low distortion. Some disadvantages are: (i) welds flat or vertical joints only, (ii) complicated set-up, (iii)cooling water is needed.

12. Which of the following process does not have high deposition rate?
a) Shielded metal arc welding
b) Electro Slag welding
c) Gas-shielded metal arc welding
d) Flux core arc welding

Answer: a [Reason:] Flux core arc welding, gas-shielded metal arc welding, electro slag welding have high deposition rates.

13. Match the pairs

``` 	Welding Process 				Suitable Position of welding
A) Submerged arc welding			(i)  suitable for overhead works at site
B) Gas-shielded metal arc welding		(ii) not suitable for overhead positions
C) Shielded metal arc welding			(iii) can be used in all positions```

a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii

Answer: c [Reason:] Submerged arc welding and electro slag welding are not suitable for overhead positions. Flux core arc welding and gas-shielded metal arc welding can be used in all positions. Shielded metal arc welding is probably the best for overhead works, especially at site.

## Set 4

1. What is compression member?
a) structural member subjected to tensile force
b) structural member subjected to compressive force
c) structural member subjected to bending moment
d) structural member subjected to torsion

Answer: b [Reason:] Structural member which is subjected to compressive forces along its axis is called compression member. Compression members are subjected to loads that tend to decrease their lengths.

2. Which of the following is true about axially loaded column?
a) member subjected to bending moment
b) member subjected to axial force and bending moment
c) net end moments are not zero
d) net end moments are zero

Answer: d [Reason:] if the net end moments are zero, the compression member is required to resist load acting concentric to original longitudinal axis of member and is called axially loaded column or simply column.

3. Which of the following is true about beam column?
a) member subjected to bending moment
b) member subjected to axial force only
c) member subjected to axial force and bending moment
d) net end moments are zero

Answer: c [Reason:] If the net end moments are not zero, the member will be subjected to axial force and bending moments along its length. Such members are called beam-columns.

4. What are columns?
a) vertical compression members in a building supporting floors or girders
b) vertical tension members in a building supporting floors or girders
c) horizontal compression members in a building supporting floors or girders
d) horizontal tension members in a building supporting floors or girders

Answer: a [Reason:] The vertical compression members in a building supporting floors or girders are normally called as columns. They are sometimes called as stanchions. They are subjected to heavy loads. Vertical compression members are sometimes called posts.

5. Which of the following are true about roof trusses?
a) principal rafter are compression members used in buildings
b) principal rafter is bottom chord member of roof truss
c) struts are compression members used in roof trusses
d) struts are tension members used in roof trusses

Answer: c [Reason:] The compression members used in roof trusses and bracings are called as struts. They may be vertical or inclined and normally have small lengths. the top chord members of a roof truss are called principal rafter.

6. Knee braces are __________
a) long compression members
b) short compression members
c) long tension members
d) short tension members

Answer: b [Reason:] Short compression members at junction of columns and roof trusses or beams are called knee braces. They are provided to avoid moment.

7. Which of the following is not a load on columns in buildings?
a) load from floors
b) load from foundation
c) load from roofs
d) load from walls

Answer: b [Reason:] Axial loading on columns in buildings is due to loads from roofs, floors, and walls transmitted to the column through beams and also due to its own self weight.

8. Which of the following is correct?
a) moment due to wind loads is not considered in unbraced buildings
b) wind load cause large moments in braced buildings
c) wind loads in multi-storey buildings are not usually applied at respective floor levels
d) wind loads in multi-storey buildings are usually applied at respective floor levels

Answer: d [Reason:] Wind loads in multi-storey buildings are usually applied at respective floor levels and are assumed to be resisted by bracings. Hence in braced buildings wind loads do not cause large moments. But, in unbraced rigid framed buildings, the moment due to wind loads should also be taken into account in the design of columns.

9. What are loads on columns in industrial buildings?
a) wind load only
b) crane load only
c) wind and crane load
d) load from foundation

Answer: c [Reason:] In industrial buildings, loads from crane and wind cause moments in columns. In such cases, wind load is applied to the column through sheeting rails and may be taken as uniformly distributed throughout the length of column.

10. The strength of column does not depend on
a) width of building
b) material of column
c) cross sectional configuration
d) length of column

Answer: a [Reason:] The strength of column depends on material of column, cross sectional configuration, length of column, support conditions at the ends, residual stresses, imperfections.

11. Which of the following is not an imperfection in column?
a) material not being isotropic
b) geometric variations of columns
c) material being homogenous
d) eccentricity of load

Answer: c [Reason:] Imperfections in column include material not being isotropic and homogenous, geometric variations of columns and eccentricity of load.

## Set 5

1. Anderson bridge is used for _________
a) the measurement of self-inductance
b) the measurement of resistance
c) the measurement of capacitance
d) the measurement of impedance

Answer: a [Reason:] The Anderson bridge is one of the important bridges used for the measurement of self-inductances in terms of a standard capacitance value. Resistance is usually measured by making use of a Wheatstone’s bridge or Kelvin’s double bridge.

2. Anderson bridge is a modified form of ________
a) Wheatstone’s bridge
b) Maxwell bridge
c) Kelvin double bridge
d) Schering bridge

Answer: b [Reason:] The Anderson’s bridge is a modified form of Maxwell’s bridge which is used for the measurement of self-inductances in terms of a standard capacitance value. Wheatstone bridge and Kelvin bridge are used for the measurement of medium and low resistances respectively.

3. Anderson’s bridge is basically used for ________
a) measurement of capacitance
b) measurement of resistance
c) measurement of inductance
d) measurement of voltage

Answer: c [Reason:] Anderson’s bridge is used basically for the precise measurement of self-inductances in terms of a standard capacitance value over a wide range of values.

4. Balance equation for computing the inductance is ________
a) Lx = R3 R5
b) Lx = CR5
c) Lx = CR3
d) Lx = CR3 R5

Answer: d [Reason:] The balance equation for computing the self-inductance in an Anderson’s bridge is given by the equation, Lx = CR3 R5. where, C is the standard capacitance R3 and R5 are the known non-inductive resistances.

5. Balance equation for computing the resistance is
a) R1 = R2 R3R4
b) R1 = R2R4
c) R1 = R3R4
d) R1 = R2 R3

Answer: a [Reason:] The balance equation for computing the resistance in an Anderson’s bridge is given by the equation R1 = R2 R3R4. where, R2, R3 and R4 are the known non-inductive resistances.

6. When the capacitor used is imperfect, the inductance value changes.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] For an imperfect capacitor used in the Anderson bridge, the value of inductance remains unaffected. The value of R1 changes.

7. Anderson’s bridge is used for the measurement of capacitance.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a [Reason:] When a calibrated self-inductance is available, the value of unknown capacitance can be computed by making use of an Anderson’s bridge.

8. Anderson’s bridge is used for the measurement of ________
a) capacitance
b) resistance
c) inductance
d) impedance

Answer: a [Reason:] Anderson’s bridge is used for the measurement of capacitance. Unknown capacitance value can be measured accurately in terms of the self-inductance of one of the ratio arms of the bridge.

9. Anderson’s bridge makes use of a variable capacitance.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] An Anderson’s bridge makes use of a fixed capacitance value. Most of the other AC bridges used for the measurement of either capacitance, inductance or impedance make use of a variable capacitance.

10. Anderson’s bridge is very basic.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b [Reason:] An Anderson’s bridge is basically used for the measurement of unknown capacitance value in terms of the self-inductance of one of the standard ratio arms. It is a complex bridge comprising of equivalent star-delta networks for computation of resistance and inductance.

11. Bridge balance equations are ________
a) easy to derive
b) independent of the components
c) complex in nature
d) real in nature

Answer: c [Reason:] An Anderson’s bridge is basically used for the measurement of unknown capacitance value in terms of the self-inductance of one of the ratio arms. It consists of real as well as complex terms. It also comprises of star-delta equivalent networks for impedance computations.

12. Components in an Anderson’s bridge are ________
a) less
b) zero
c) intermediate
d) more

Answer: d [Reason:] An Anderson’s bridge is a complex type of bridge used basically for the measurement of unknown capacitance. It consists of several resistances, inductances and capacitances in the ratio arms.

13. Anderson’s bridge ________
a) can’t be shielded
b) can be fully shielded
c) can be partially shielded
d) can be shielded based on the components used

Answer: a [Reason:] An Anderson’s bridge is a complex circuit and a modified form of the Maxwell bridge. An Anderson’s bridge cannot be shielded due to the presence of an additional junction point.

14. What is the significance of Anderson bridge with respect to Q factor?
a) difficult to balance the bridge
b) easy to balance the bridge
c) intermediate balance can be achieved
d) no balance can be done

Answer: b [Reason:] An Anderson’s bridge is a modified form of the Maxwell bridge and is used for the measurement of unknown capacitance in terms of self-inductance of a standard value. It is easy to achieve balance condition in an Anderson bridge.

15. An Anderson’s bridge can be used to ________
a) measure mutual inductance
b) measure impedance
c) measure self inductance
d) measure stray capacitance