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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. WAP is used to conduct detailed ____
a) Analysis
b) Experiment
c) Transport
d) Import

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Waste Analysis Plan (WAP) documents the procedure which is required for detailed physical and chemical analysis.

2. A WAP is required for all TSDFs and generators of hazardous waste. True or False.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Waste Analysis Plan is required for all TSDFs and generators of hazardous waste to meet LDR standards.

3. A WAP reduces _____
a) Improper handling
b) Import
c) Export
d) Analysis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Waste Analysis Plan reduces the liabilities, thus decreases improper handling and management of waste.

4. WAP comply requirement under law ____
a) SARA
b) CERCLA
c) RCRA
d) HAP

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The plan works under the Federal law RCRA 40 CFR 262.11, which requires the generator to analyse if the waste generated is hazardous.

5. To determine characteristics of waste, laboratory analysis is required. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] To determine characteristics of wastes sampling methods, tools required for sampling, sample holding time and laboratory analysis are required.

6. A prohibited waste should not be disposed on _____ according to LDR.
a) Land
b) Air
c) Water
d) Facility

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A prohibited waste should not be disposed on land, it has to be treated either on-site or off-site.

7. Management of hazardous waste is listed under part ____ of LDR program.
a) 458 and 578
b) 262 and 268
c) 111 and 211
d) 258 and 269

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Management of hazardous waste such as accumulation of waste in tanks are listed in part 262 and 268 of LDR requirements.

8. Parts 264 through 268 and 270 concerns about waste _____ requirements.
a) Analysis
b) Import
c) Export
d) Transport

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Parts 264 through 268 and 270 concerns about waste analysis methodologies for safe management.

9. Small Quantity Generators are subjected to regulation under ____ part of LDR.
a) 261
b) 262
c) 265
d) 268

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] SQGs are generators of > 100 kg/month and < 1000 kg/month of hazardous waste subjected to regulation of LDR under Part 262.

Set 2

1. The Clean Water Act (CWA) regulates _____
a) Discharge of pollutants into the waters of the United States
b) Discharge of pollutants into the waters of the United Kingdom
c) Discharge of pollutants into the air of the United States
d) Discharge of pollutants into the waters of India

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Under the CWA, EPA has implemented pollution control programs, such as setting wastewater standards for industry and water quality standards for all contaminants in surface waters.

2. Section _____ of CWA regulates discharges of hazardous substances.
a) 311(b)(2)(B)
b) 311(b)(2)(A)
c) 312(b)(2)(A)
d) 311(b)(1)(A)

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Section 311(b)(2)(A) of CWA regulates discharges of hazardous substances, which also includes formaldehyde. The list of designated hazardous substances is found at 40 CFR 116.4.

3. The CWA made it unlawful to discharge any pollutant from a point source into navigable waters, unless a permit was obtained. True of False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EPA’s National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program controls discharges. Industrial, municipal, and other facilities must obtain permits if their discharges go directly to surface waters.

4. The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 was the first major U.S. law to address water pollution.
a) 1945
b) 1946
c) 1947
d) 1948

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 grew public awareness and concern for controlling water pollution led to sweeping amendments in 1972.

5. The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 became CWA. True or False.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 was the first key U.S. law to address water pollution, it was amended in 1972 and the law Clean Water Act (CWA).

6. The CWA reduced the amount of pollution from ____
a) Point sources
b) Non-point sources
c) Chemicals
d) Mining

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Clean Water Act has been accredited with pointedly reducing the amount of pollution that enters the U.S. waterways from point sources, municipal and industrial discharges.

7. The discharge of regulated chemicals into surface waters is controlled by _____
a) SARA
b) CERCLA
c) NPDES
d) PDAC

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The discharge of regulated chemicals into surface waters is controlled by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) which entails contaminators to obtain federal permits for each chemical they discharge.

8. The maximum amount of pollution that each waterway could absorb is known as ____
a) TMDL
b) TSML
c) TDSML
d) TDS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The TMDL establishes a target for total load of pollutant the water body can assimilate and allocates the load to point sources which is known as the waste load allocation and nonpoint sources known as the load allocation.

9. _____ requires EPA to establish regulations to protect human health from contaminants present in drinking water.
a) SAWD
b) SDWA
c) ASAW
d) SWSA

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) permits EPA to develop national drinking water standards and safeguard agreement with these standards, and guides EPA to protect underground sources of drinking water through the regulation of underground injection of fluids to prevent pollution.

10. Who is responsible for the clean-up of oil spill?
a) HWS
b) APS
c) Oil Pollution Act
d) SARA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The CWA and the Oil Pollution Act provide federal authority to prevent, respond to and clean up an oil spill or the threat of an oil spill.

11. Which section of CWA regulates land disposal of sludge?
a) Section 402
b) Section 403
c) Section 404
d) Section 405

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Section 405 of the CWA regulates the land application and the land disposal of sludge – the solid, semisolid or liquid untreated residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a treatment facility.

12. Which CWA program controls water pollution by regulating point sources?
a) SPCC
b) PCC
c) NPDES
d) PDA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The NPDES program controls water pollution by regulating point sources that discharge pollutants into the waters of the United States.

13. Which section of CWA is responsible for monitoring of wetlands?
a) Section 402
b) Section 403
c) Section 404
d) Section 405

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Section 404 of the CWA establishes a program to regulate the discharge of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States, including wetlands.

14. Which CWA program manages non-point source pollution?
a) NPSMP
b) NSPPP
c) NSGOP
d) NPSRA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The CWA under Section 319 established the Nonpoint Point Source (NPS) Management Program to manage nonpoint sources of pollution.

15. When did CWA come into existence?
a) 1970
b) 1971
c) 1972
d) 1973

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] CWA was enacted in 1948 and was called the Federal Water Pollution Control Act, but the Act was suggestively reorganized and expanded in 1972. Federal Water Pollution Control Act became Clean Water Act with amendments in 1972.

Set 3

1. When did the Toxic Substances Control Act came into force?
a) 1974
b) 1975
c) 1976
d) 1977

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Toxic Substances Control Act came into force on 1976. It provides EPA with authority to necessitate reporting, keeping records and restrictions relating to chemical substances.

2. What is the purpose of TSCA compliance monitoring program?
a) Inspection
b) Analysis
c) Import
d) Export

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EPA and the States verify TSCA agreement through a complete TSCA compliance monitoring program which includes inspecting the facilities, revising records and taking enforcement action where necessary for pollution prevention.

3. What is the TSCA compliance assistance?
a) Providing tools
b) Providing funds
c) Chemical analysis
d) Clean-up

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The TSCA compliance assistance program provides businesses, federal facilities, local governments and tribes with tools helps to meet environmental regulatory requirements and also assists on disposal of toxins.

4. ______ plays a major role in the regulation of most industrial chemicals in the US.
a) RCRA inventory
b) SARA inventory
c) CERCLA inventory
d) TSCA inventory

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Section 8 of TSCA requires EPA to compile, keep current records and publish a list of chemical substance that is being manufactured, including imports, in the US for uses under TSCA inventory.

5. According to TSCA a chemical substance maybe ______
a) Organic or inorganic
b) Pollutant
c) Contaminant
d) Soluble

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] TSCA defines a chemical substance as any organic or inorganic substance of a particular molecular identity, including any mixture of these substances occurring in whole or in part by result of a chemical reaction or occurs in nature.

6. Chemicals substances on the Inventory include pesticides. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Chemicals substances on the Inventory includes organics, Inorganics, polymers and chemical substances of unknown or inconstant composition, complex reaction and biological materials (UVCBs).

7. Any chemical that is not on the Inventory is considered as _____
a) New chemical substance
b) Old chemical substance
c) Existing chemical substance
d) Flag chemical substance

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] According to regulations under TSCA, if a chemical is on the Inventory, it is considered an existing chemical substance in United States commerce. Any chemical that is not on the Inventory is considered a new chemical substance.

8. The chemicals are added to the Inventory only after_____
a) Receiving complete NOC by EPA
b) Receiving complete NOC by UNEPA
c) Receiving complete DOC by EPA
d) Receiving complete NOOC by USEPA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The company must provide a Notice of Commencement of Manufacture or Import (NOC) to EPA within 30 calendar days of the date the substance is first manufactured. Once complete NOC is received by EPA, the reported substance is considered to be on the Inventory.

9. Low Volume Exemptions (LVEs) do not require NOC. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] LVEs, LoREXs, TMEs and substances used for research and development do not require an NOC and are not added to the Inventory.

10. EPA’s collecting of the public TSCA Inventory information is updated ____ a year.
a) Once
b) Twice
c) Thrice
d) Four times

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] TSCA Inventory information is updated twice a year to include new and corrected TSCA Inventory chemical listings.

11. What is the aim of TSCA?
a) Regulation new chemicals
b) Classification of new chemicals
c) Export of new chemicals
d) Import of new chemicals

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] TSCA is a United States law signed on October 11, 1976 which regulates the introduction of new or already existing chemicals.

Set 4

1. A ______________ body consists of a series of connected “simpler” shaped bodies.
a) Composite
b) Non-composite
c) Digital
d) Binary

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A composite body consists of a series of connected simpler shaped bodies. That is the body is having two material as it’s constitutes. The main thing is that the single material is having the properties of two different materials.

2. Composite materials are of no use for the any engineers.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The composite materials are of much importance to the chemical engineer. This means that the composite materials are variedly used in the chemical industries. It can be used in the bridges made for the pipelines, etc.

3. The composite materials are lighter than their constituent material.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Yes the composite materials are lighter than the constituent material. This means that the density of the former is lighter than the latter. Thus imparting many qualities to the materials. Thus the material can be used variedly. This means that the moment of inertia of the structure is low.

4. Determine the moment of area of the area below about x-axis.
tough-engineering-mechanics-questions-answers-q4
a) 101 x 106 mm4
b) 1 x 106 mm4
c) 10 x 106 mm4
d) 15 x 106 mm4

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The product of the centroid of the section to its mass to the total mass of the body is the centre of mass. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the centroid or the centre of mass.

5. Composite materials can be of __________ shapes for the determination of the moment of composite areas.
a) Any
b) Circular only
c) Rectangular only
d) Oval only

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The composite materials can be of any shape. This means that the shape of the material can be varied. Thus any shape can be imparted to the composite materials and then be used in the industries variedly.

6. The total of all the masses of small particles adds up to give the total body mass of the composite body. This mass lies along with gravity gives a force vector which is being passed by ________
a) Axis of rotation
b) Axis of rolling
c) Centre of Gravity
d) Centre of mass

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The total body mass along with the product of gravity always passes through the centre of gravity. All the forces are parallel is the right answer. Thus the total sum of all these small weights add up to the total weight of the body. Which passes through the centre of gravity.

7. Determine the moment of area of the area below its centroid axis.

engineering-mechanics-questions-answers-moment-inertia-composite-areas-q7

a) 28.125 x 106 mm4
b) 1 x 106 mm4
c) 10 x 106 mm4
d) 17 x 106 mm4

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The product of the centroid of the section to its mass to the total mass of the body is the centre of mass. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the centroid or the centre of mass.

8. One of the use of the centre of mass or centroid of the composite bodies is as in the simplification of the loading system the net force acts at the ___________ of the loading body.
a) Centroid
b) The centre axis
c) The corner
d) The base

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In the simplification of the loading system the net force acts at the centroid of the composite body. That is if the loading system is in the form of the triangle then at the distance 2 by 3 of the base the net force of the loading will act. And the load will be half the area of the loading.

9. If any external force also is applied on the distributed loading on which the moment of inertia is to be determined on the composite body then?
a) The net force will act at the centroid of the structure only
b) The net load will not be formed as all the forces will be cancelled
c) The net force will act on the base of the loading horizontally
d) The net force will not to be considered, there would be a net force of the distribution, and rest will be the external forces

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The external forces are treated differently. They are not added by the force of the distributed loading. That is the force not only acts at the centroid always. It can be shifted also. Depending on the external forces. Thus the use of centroid or centre of mass.

10. Two of the things of the composite materials are to be known so that their moment of inertia can be varied. Which of the following is one of them?
a) Weight of the centre of gravity
b) Weight of the body
c) Location of the centroid of gravity
d) Location of the centre of mass

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The centre of the gravity’s location and the weight of the composite body is needed to be known. This means that if both of the quantities of the composite body is known then the moment of inertia of the body can be altered. Thus both are very important things to be known about the composite bodies.

11. The number of particle does affect the moment of inertia. A composite body is consisted of __________ number of particles.
a) Infinite
b) Finite
c) Hundreds
d) Thousands

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The various bodies are composed of infinite number of particles. They are very small in size. They can’t be seen by our naked eyes. Thus the number of particles is not thousands nor hundreds. But it is uncountable.

12. We use sometimes the measures to know the direction of moment of inertia. It is done by right handed coordinate system. Which is right about it for the composite bodies (consider the mentioned axis to be positive)?
a) Thumb is z-axis, fingers curled from x-axis to y-axis
b) Thumb is x-axis, fingers curled from z-axis to y-axis
c) Thumb is y-axis, fingers curled from x-axis to z-axis
d) Thumb is z-axis, fingers curled from y-axis to x-axis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] As right handed coordinate system means that you are curling your fingers from positive x-axis towards y-axis and the thumb which is projected is pointed to the positive z-axis. Thus visualizing the same and knowing the basic members of axis will not create much problem.

13. We often use the centre of mass of the composite area to calculate the moment of inertia. The centre of mass for these composite body is the ratio of ________ to _________
a) The product of centroid and mass to the total weight
b) The addition of centroid and weight to the total weight
c) The subtraction of centroid and weight to the total weight
d) The product of centroid and mass to the total mass

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The product of the centroid of the section to its mass to the total mass of the body is the centre of mass. Thus the answer. The ratio is generally used to locate the coordinate of the centroid or the centre of mass.

14. What is not the condition for the equilibrium in three dimensional system of axis for the composite bodies if we are determining the moment of inertia for them?
a) ∑Fx=0
b) ∑Fy=0
c) ∑Fz=0
d) ∑F≠0

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] For the equilibrium in the three dimensional system of axis we have all the conditions true as, ∑Fx=0, ∑Fy=0 and ∑Fz=0. Also we have the summation of the forces equal to zero. Which is not a non-zero value.

15. We sometimes use the moment caused by the force so as to determine the moment of inertia of the body. The moment is the cross product of which two vectors?
a) Force and Radius vectors
b) Radius and Force vectors
c) Force and Radius scalars
d) Radius and Force scalars

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The cross product needs to take in the proper sequence. If not taken then the answer is just the opposite of the true answer. That’s why, the answer is not the Force and Radius vectors, but the Radius and Force vectors. Because the moment has its direction, as many of the cross products have, and thus precaution needs to be taken.

Set 5

1. What is the moisture content in slurry for wet process?
a) 35-50%
b) 12%
c) 40-45%
d) 100%

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The moisture content in slurry for wet process is 35-50%. 12% is the moisture content for dry process.

2. The use of crushed aggregates may results in 10 to 20% higher compressive strength. Is this statement true or false?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The use of crushed aggregates may results in 10 to 20% higher compressive strength due to development of stronger aggregate-mortar bond.

3. In a dry environment, concrete strength will be loosed as much as ________ % in moist environment.
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Laboratory tests show that concrete strength will be loosed as much as 50% in dry environment as compared to moist environment.

4. After finishing concrete surface must be kept ________
a) Dry
b) First dry it and then wet it
c) First wet it and then dry it
d) Wet

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] After finishing concrete surface must be kept wet, so that it’d be prevented from evaporation.

5. A _________ paste structure undergoes _________ creep.
a) Good, high
b) Poor, high
c) Good, average
d) Poor, low

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The amount of paste content and its quality is one of the most important factors influencing creep. A poorer paste structure undergoes higher creep.

6. The rate of creep rapidly _________ with time.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Doesn’t affect
d) Depends on the temperature

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The rate of creep rapidly decreases with time. The time taken by a concrete structure to attained creep is 5 years.

7. The rate of creep generally ____ with the ____ of the size of aggregates.
a) Increase, increase
b) Decrease, decease
c) Increase, decrease
d) 2.5, 12mm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The rate of creep generally decreases with the increase of the size of aggregates. Time rate of deformation of a material subject to stress at a constant temperature. It is the slope of the creep vs. time diagram obtained in a creep test.

8. Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes _________
a) Low volume
b) Volumetric strain
c) Volumetric stress
d) W/c ratio

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes volumetric strain in freshly hardened concrete.

9. “Shrinkage in concrete is caused mainly by loss of water by evaporation or by hydration of cement”. Is this statement true or false?
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Shrinkage in concrete is caused mainly by loss of water by evaporation or by hydration of cement.

10. Dry intervals in surface wetting leads to ____________
a) Cracking
b) Fogging
c) High strength
d) Good workability

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Dry intervals or patches can lead to crazing or cracking on the slab surface. The effect of surface wettability on the dynamics of crack formation and their characteristics are examined during the drying of aqueous colloidal droplets containing nano particles.

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