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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Toxicity is characterized by ____
a) Instability
b) Volume
c) Temperature
d) Dosage

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Identified character of toxicity is the concentration of lethal dosage, also known as LD50.

2. A waste to be called toxic, acute oral LD50 concentration should be ____ mg/kg.
a) 2200
b) 2300
c) 2400
d) 2500

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A waste to be called acute oral toxic, LD50 concentration should be less than 2,500 milligrams per kilogram.

3. A waste to be called toxic, acute dermal LD50 concentration should be ____ mg/kg.
a) 2200
b) 4300
c) 2400
d) 2500

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A waste to be called acute dermal toxic, LD50 concentration should be less than 4300 milligrams per kilogram.

4. LC50 is associated with toxicity. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] LC50 is the measurement of micrograms or milligrams of material per liter or ppm of air or water. Lower the amount, more toxic the material.

5. A waste to be called toxic, acute inhalation LC50 concentration should be ____ ppm.
a) 2200
b) 4300
c) 2400
d) 10000

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A waste to be called acute inhalation toxic, LC50 concentration should be less than 10000ppm.

6. _____test is done to determine toxicity level of waste.
a) EP
b) SD
c) AW
d) PO

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Extraction Procedure (EP), EP toxicity test is designed to identify which particular toxic constituent causes damage when improperly managed.

7. Leaching actions are observed for finding toxicity concentrations. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Leachate from landfill is extracted to analyse the concentration of toxic contaminants.

8. Maximum concentration of D004 waste is ___ mg/L.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The hazardous contaminant that has hazardous waste number D004 according to EPA is arsenic. The maximum concentration of arsenic is 5mg/L.

9. Maximum concentration of D009 waste is ___ mg/L.
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.3
d) 0.4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The hazardous contaminant that has hazardous waste number D009 according to EPA is mercury. The maximum concentration of mercury is 0.2mg/L.

10. Maximum concentration of D015 waste is ___ mg/L.
a) 0.2
b) 0.3
c) 0.4
d) 0.5

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The hazardous contaminant that has hazardous waste number D015 according to EPA is toxaphene. The maximum concentration of toxaphene is 0.5mg/L.

Set 2

1. _____ generates reports on hazardous waste shipments for TSDFs.
a) HWTS
b) HAWT
c) HTWS
d) HWPS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Hazardous Waste Tracking System (HWTS) generates reports on hazardous waste shipments for generators, transporters, and TSDFs for safe waste disposal.

2. ______should be obtained from generators for transporting of hazardous waste.
a) Hazardous waste manifest
b) Uniform hazardous waste manifest
c) Waste manifest
d) DOT rules form

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] According to EPA and DOT Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest, a form should be obtained for all HW generators, transporters and recyclers.

3. After receiving hazardous waste from generator the receiving facility has to sign the manifest. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] After the waste reaches the receiving facility, the receiver signs a manifest confirming the waste acceptance. This accounts for safe transportation and disposal of HW.

4. Tracking system should be dynamic. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The elected tracking system should be dynamic and have flexibility to change in response to changes during pollution prevention processes.

5. Tracking system can be improved by modifying _____ system.
a) Analyzing
b) Chemical component
c) Waste minimization
d) DOT

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Tracking system can be improved by modifying or constructing optimal waste minimisation system, an intensive data collection system program.

6. Which of the following can be used as a tracking tool?
a) Chemical analysis
b) HWRT
c) NPL
d) Barcoding system

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hazardous waste ongoing data collection is managed by tracking tools such as barcoding system and container labelling.

7. Tracking system has to be done to prevent ____
a) Illegal waste dumping
b) Waste minimisation
c) Waste generation
d) Waste analysis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Without the waste tracking system there would not be track of waste generated, therefore the generator can illegally dump waste on any site. Tracking system keeps record of quantity of waste generated and ensures safe disposal.

8. Hazardous waste tracking system is regulated by ____
a) NPL and RCRA
b) RCRA and CERCLA
c) EPA and DOT
d) CERCLA and EPA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and Department of Transportation (DOT) is responsible for tracking of waste for all generators, transporters and waste recyclers.

9. ____ tracks the status of every state with respect to changes made to the federal regulations of HW.
a) StATS
b) SbPTS
c) SuTSP
d) NPL

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] State Authorization Tracking System (StATS) keeps track of waste status of each state and abides to federal regulations associated with hazardous waste.

Set 3

1. Spill risk of hazardous waste is high during manufacturing. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Spill risk of hazardous waste is high during loading, transportation and unloading.

2. Labelling of container is done to ____
a) Leak proof material
b) Identify waste
c) Technical competence
d) To describe hazard

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Labelling of container is done to identify the waste, describe the possible hazard, and the remedial measures in case of spill.

3. Regulatory requirements for packaging, labelling and transportation of hazardous wastes are provided under ______
a) HWMR
b) NPL
c) HPS
d) QHIS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Regulatory requirements for packaging, labelling and transportation of hazardous wastes are provided under Rule 7 of the Hazardous Wastes Management & Handling Rules, 1989.

4. The containers must be able to withstand normal handling and retain integrity for a minimum period of ____ months.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The container should retain integrity for a minimum period of six months, and shall be of such strength, construction as not to break open or become defective during transportation period.

5. Container used for packing shall be of ____
a) Mild steel
b) Lead
c) Copper
d) Sulphur

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Container used for packing shall be of mild steel with suitable corrosion-resistant coating and roll-on roll-off cover.

6. Air vents should be provided while packing liquid material. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The containers for liquid HW should be completely closed. There should be no gas generation due to any chemical reaction within the container, and, hence, there should not be any need for air vents.

7. Which of the following shall be included on the container that contain HW?
a) Hazardous property
b) Lead content
c) Acid content
d) Manufacturing process

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The information on the label must include the code number of the waste, the waste type, the origin (name, address, telephone number of generator), hazardous property and the symbol for the hazardous property.

8. Transporter should not accept hazardous wastes from an occupier generator unless ____
a) Copies of manifest is provided
b) Chemical analysed
c) Listed
d) Coded

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Transporter shall not accept hazardous wastes from an occupier (generator) unless six-copies (with colour codes) of the manifest (Form 9) as per Rule 7 of the HW (M & H) Rules is provided by the generator.

9. White manifest copy has to be ____
a) Forwarded to SPCB by occupier
b) Signed by transporter
c) Retained by operator
d) Returned to transporter

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The white manifest copy has to be forwarded to the SPCB/PCC by the occupier (generator) of hazardous waste.

10. Yellow manifest copy has to be ____
a) Forwarded to SPCB
b) Signed by transporter
c) Retained by operator
d) Returned to transporter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The yellow manifest copy has to be signed by the transporter of hazardous waste and retained by the occupier.

11. Orange manifest copy has to be ____
a) Forwarded to SPCB
b) Signed by transporter
c) Retained by operator
d) Returned to transporter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The orange manifest copy has to be returned to the transporter by the operator of facility after accepting waste.

12. Pink manifest copy has to be ____
a) Forwarded to SPCB
b) Signed by transporter
c) Retained by operator
d) Returned to transporter

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The pink manifest copy has to be retained by the operator of a transport, storage and disposal facility.

13. Green manifest copy has to be ____
a) Forwarded to SPCB
b) Signed by transporter
c) Retained by operator
d) Forwarded to SPCB by operator of facility

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The green manifest copy has to be forwarded to the SPCB/PCC by the operator of TSD facility after disposal.

14. Blue manifest copy has to be ____
a) Forwarded to SPCB
b) Signed by transporter
c) returned to the occupier by the operator after disposal
d) Forwarded to SPCB by operator of facility

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The blue manifest copy has to be returned to the occupier by the operator of the facility after disposal.

15. In case of inter-state transportation of hazardous waste the generator shall obtain _____
a) NOC
b) NPL
c) RCRA
d) CERCLA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In case of inter-state transportation of hazardous waste the generator shall obtain No Objection Certificate (NOC) from the concerned State Pollution Control Board or Pollution Control Committee.

Set 4

1. The operator of a hazardous waste TSDF is required to obtain authorization as per provisions laid down under rule ____
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The operator of a hazardous waste Treatment, Storage and Disposal Facility (TSDF) is required to obtain authorization as per provisions laid down under rule 5 of HWMH and TM act 2008.

2. _____rule stipulates that the operator of facilities may store the hazardous waste for a period less than 90 days.
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Rule 7 of HWMH and TM act 2008 stipulates that the operator of facilities may store the hazardous waste for a period not more than 90 days.

3. SPCB can extend the storage period of a TSDF.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs) and Pollution Control Committees (PCCs) can extend the storage period in a TSDF maximum up to six months of their annual capacity.

4. ____rule deals with association of occupiers for identifying sites for establishing the TSDFs.
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Rule 18 (1) of the HWMH and TM act 2008 deals with government, occupier, operator or any association of occupiers for identifying sites for establishing the TSDFs.

5. ____rule deals with design and setting up of TSDFs.
a) 18 (1)
b) 18 (2)
c) 18 (3)
d) 18 (4)

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Rule 18 (2) deals with the design and setting up of TSDFs as per the guidelines of CPCB.

6. ____rule deals with the monitoring of TSDF by SPCB.
a) 18 (1)
b) 18 (2)
c) 18 (3)
d) 18 (4)

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Rule 18 (3) deals with the monitoring by SPCB with respect to the setting up and operation of TSDFs.

7. ____ and ____ rules deals with the responsibility of the operator of a TSDFs
a) 18 (1), (2)
b) 18 (2), (3)
c) 18 (3), (4)
d) 18 (4), (5)

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Rule 18 (4) and 18 (5) deal with the responsibility of the operator of a TSDFs for safe operation of the TSDFs during operation and post-closure period.

8. ____rule deals with the transportation of the hazardous waste from TSDFs.
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Rule 20 deals with the transportation of the hazardous waste in accordance with the HWMH and TM rules as well as rules from Motor Vehicle Act, 1988.

9. ____rule deals the requirement of proper labelling and packaging of hazardous wastes.
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Rule 19 deals with the requirement of proper labelling and packaging of hazardous wastes for its safe handling, storage and transportation.

10. ____rule deals with the requirement of six colored manifest copies.
a) 18
b) 19
c) 25
d) 21

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Rule 21 deals with the requirement of six colored manifest copies as per Form 13 of the HWMH and TM Rules.

11. ____rule with the liabilities of the operator of a facility in case of damages.
a) 18
b) 19
c) 25
d) 21

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Rule 25 deals with the liabilities of the operator of a facility in case of damages caused to the environment due to the improper handling and disposal of hazardous waste.

Set 5

1. A discussion of uncertainty is critical for _____
a) Characterization of risk
b) Chemical analysis
c) Pathway analysis
d) Data calculation

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A discussion of uncertainty is critical to the full characterization of risk, because it provides a better understanding of the implications and limitations of the risk assessment (EPA 1991a).

2. ________ is a valuable tool for prioritizing the contaminants.
a) Chemical analysis
b) Pathway analysis
c) Uncertainty analysis
d) Site analysis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Uncertainty analysis is a valuable tool for prioritizing the contaminants and exposure pathways of concern to guide the acquisition of additional data to reduce uncertainty in risk predictions.

3. What is the formula to calculate Hazard Index (HI)?
a) HI = (C*I*ED*EF)/ (BM*AT*RfD)
b) HI = (C*I*EF)/ (BM*AT*RfD)
c) HI = (C*I*ED*EF)/ (BM*AT)
d) HI = (C*I*ED)/ (BM)

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Where, C = concentration of the chemical in the contaminated medium I = estimated intake rate of the contaminant ED = exposure duration EF = exposure frequency BM = body mass AT = averaging time RfD = reference dose for the chemical of interest If the HI is below 1, it is highly unlikely that exposure to the chemical would lead to an adverse health effect. If the HI is greater than unity (LO), remediation may be warranted.

4. A quantitative uncertainty analysis requires knowledge about the _____
a) Frequency
b) Duration
c) Intensity
d) Potential range of values likely to encompass the true but unknown value

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A quantitative uncertainty analysis requires knowledge about the potential range of values likely to encompass the true but unknown value for each parameter used in the equations employed for a reasonable estimate of the risk to a maximally exposed individual.

5. To evaluate the magnitude of uncertainty about a risk estimate ______ procedure should be utilized.
a) Statistical error propagation
b) Mathematical error propagation
c) Geographical error propagation
d) Scientific error propagation

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Statistical error propagation procedures also provide the most appropriate means for prioritizing and ranking the assumptions and model subcomponents that dominate the uncertainty in the risk estimate.

6. What is the first step under parameter uncertainty analysis?
a) Specify the maximum conceivable range of potential values relevant for unknown parameters with respect to the endpoint
b) Specify a subjective probability distribution (pdf) for values occurring within this range
c) Account for dependencies and/or correlations among parameters
d) List all uncertain parameters

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] To perform parameter uncertainty analysis, the first step according to (IAEA 1989) is to list all uncertain parameters (include additional parameters to represent uncertainty in model structure).

7. Uncertainty in the point estimate that is less than one order of magnitude is considered ____
a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) Very high

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Uncertainty in the point estimate that is less than one order of magnitude is considered low, uncertainty in the point estimate greater than that of one order of magnitude but less than two orders of magnitude is considered moderate, and uncertainty that is more than that of two orders of magnitude is considered high according to EPA, 1989.

8. An uncertainty analysis is additionally useful to weigh the benefits against the _____
a) Costs of alternative remedial actions
b) Chemical plans
c) Exposure plans
d) Toxicity actions

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Performing quantitative analysis of uncertainty using analytical or numerical methods to obtain uncertainty in the components of the risk assessment equations into an evaluation of uncertainty in the overall result reduces cost for remedial actions.

9. If the cost of remediation required to reduce exposure or risk is low, a quantitative uncertainty analysis is not required. True or False
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] For small contaminated sites with inexpensive remediation options, it is sensible to clean up the property than to undertake a detailed risk analysis and its attendant uncertainty.

10. If screening calculations indicate that the risk is below risk levels of concern, a quantitative uncertainty analysis may not be necessary for site. True or False
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Detailed analyses will indicate true risk is even less than initially estimated because screening calculations are designed to provide a risk estimate that is highly improbable to underestimate the true risk.