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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. DoD cleanup policy is determined centrally under the _____
a) DERP
b) HERP
c) AERP
d) CERP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] DoD cleanup policy is determined centrally under the Defense Environmental Restoration Program (DERP). DERP includes two major components, Other Hazardous Waste Operations (OHW) and the Installation Restoration Program (IRP).

2. The _____ program for the cleanup of closed or abandoned hazardous waste sites is administered by EPA.
a) Superfund
b) HZAMAT
c) NPL
d) HPS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Superfund program for the cleanup of closed or abandoned hazardous waste sites is administered by EPA under the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA).

3. Which of the following is EPA’s demonstration program for innovative cleanup technologies?
a) NPL
b) HPS
c) SITE
d) SIGHT

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] EPA is encouraging on active research and demonstration program for innovative cleanup technologies, it includes Superfund Innovative Technology Evaluation (SITE) Program and the Environmental Technology Verification (ETV) Program.

4. _____ are the most common contaminants in hazardous sites according to EPA data analysis.
a) VOC
b) Metals
c) PAH
d) PCB

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Volatile organic compounds (VOC) are the most common contaminants, followed by metals and semi-volatile organic compounds. Chlorinated VOC are the most common organic contaminant, followed by other VOC, PCB, PAH, and phenols.

5. The use of _____ technologies for all types of VOCs is expected to continue according to EPA analysis.
a) SBE
b) SVE
c) SAP
d) SAL

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The use of soil vapor extraction (SVE) technologies for all types of VOCs is expected to continue at current levels, and may even increase according to EPA analysis.

6. USTs containing petroleum products are regulated by RCRA. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Underground storage tanks (USTs) containing petroleum products or hazardous chemicals are also regulated under RCRA. Tank owners are responsible for remediation.

7. _____soil remediation technology uses liquids and mechanical processes to scrub soils.
a) SVE
b) Soil washing
c) NPL
d) HPS

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Soil washing is a soil remediation technology which uses liquids (usually water, occasionally combined with solvents) and mechanical processes to scrub soils.

8. _____soil remediation technology is used for remediating unsaturated soils contaminated with SVOC.
a) SVE
b) Soil washing
c) NPL
d) HPS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Soil vapor extraction (SVE), also known as soil venting or vacuum extraction, is an accepted, recognized, and cost-effective technology for remediating unsaturated soils contaminated with VOCs and SVOCs.

9. Which of the following technique is successful in treating petroleum hydrocarbons?
a) SVE
b) Soil washing
c) NPL
d) Landfarming

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Landfarming is an above-ground remediation technology that reduces the concentration of petroleum constituents present in soils through processes associated with bioremediation.

10. Soil flushing is accomplished by passing an extraction fluid through in-place soils using an injection or infiltration process. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In situ soil flushing is an innovative remediation technology that floods contaminated soils with a solution that moves the contaminants to an area where they can be removed.

11. _____ reduces the mobility of hazardous substances and contaminants in the environment.
a) SVE
b) Soil washing
c) Solidification
d) Landfarming

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Solidification or stabilization, is a waste fixation technology, reduces the mobility of hazardous substances and contaminants in the environment through both physical and chemical means.

12. _____solidification method is used for treating hydrocarbon-contaminated soil.
a) SVE
b) Soil washing
c) Asphalt batching
d) Landfarming

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Asphalt batching, a stabilization or solidification method for treating hydrocarbon-contaminated soils, incorporates petroleum-laden soils into hot asphalt mixtures.

13. _____solidification uses a powerful source of energy to melt soil.
a) SVE
b) Soil washing
c) Asphalt batching
d) Vitrification

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Vitrification, or molten glass, is a method of stabilization/solidification that uses a powerful source of energy to melt soil or other earthen materials at extremely high temperatures (1600–2000 degree Celsius).

14. _____in situ remediation technology that combines elements of bioventing and vacuum-enhanced pumping.
a) Bioslurping
b) Soil washing
c) Asphalt batching
d) Vitrification

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Bioslurping is a new in situ remediation technology that combines elements of bioventing and vacuum-enhanced pumping to recover free product from the groundwater and soil.

15. _____soil remediation process injects air into the contaminated media at a rate designed to maximize in situ biodegradation.
a) Bioslurping
b) Bioventing
c) Asphalt batching
d) Vitrification

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The bioventing process injects air into the contaminated media at a rate designed to maximize in situ biodegradation and minimize or eliminate the off-gassing of volatilized contaminants to the atmosphere.

Set 2

1. The use of adsorbent to remove targeted substance in a solution is called _____
a) Sorption
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
d) Chemical analysis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Adsorption is the process of removing contaminant from a solution using adsorbent, with physical adhesion of molecules to surface without chemical reaction.

2. _____process involves penetration of molecules to remove contaminants.
a) Sorption
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
d) Chemical analysis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Absorption process involves penetration of molecules or particles into solid adsorbent to remove contaminants.

3. _____is defined as the interaction of a contaminant with a solid.
a) Sorption
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
d) Chemical analysis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Sorption can be defined as the interaction of a contaminant with a solid. Sorption is common term which refers to both adsorption and absorption.

4. Removal of organic and inorganic substance from aqueous waste through activated carbon is accomplished by _____
a) Sorption
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
d) Chemical analysis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Organic and inorganic substance removal from aqueous waste through activated carbon is accompanied by adsorption of chemical substance on carbon matrix.

5. Adsorption process is due to ____ force.
a) Van der waal
b) Gravitational
c) Henry
d) Bohr

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Adsorption process is a physical process and is caused due to van der waal molecular forces which are irreversible.

6. Inorganic compounds are more likely to be adsorbed on activated carbon. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Organic compounds that are less soluble in water are more likely to be adsorbed on activated carbon.

7. Desorption of ammonia or HCl from air is an example of _____
a) Sorption
b) Absorption
c) Adsorption
d) Chemical analysis

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Gas absorption occurs when soluble components of gas mixture is dissolved in liquid. Absorption can either be physical or chemical process.

8. Which of the following factors control sorption phenomenon?
a) Physical and chemical
b) Biological
c) Ecological
d) Environmental

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Chemical and physical characteristics of the contaminant, composition of the surface of the solid, and the fluid media controls sorption process and rate.

9. ______is the contaminant that adheres to the sorbing material.
a) Sorbate
b) Sorbent
c) Sorption
d) Adsorbent

View Answer

Answer: Sorbate is the contaminant that adheres to the sorbent. Sorbate will usually be an organic molecule and the sorbent will be the soil.

10. Water solubility of contaminant impacts sorption behaviour. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Water solubility, ionic character, water partition coefficient, acid or base chemistry and oxidation or reduction chemistry of contaminant impacts sorption behaviour.

Set 3

1. What is the iron and steel constitute of e-waste?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] E-waste consists of iron and steel constitute about 50%, followed by plastics (21%), non-ferrous metals (13%) and other constituents.

2. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature?
a) Lead
b) Glass
c) Plastic
d) Iron

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The presence of elements like lead, mercury, arsenic, cadmium, selenium, hexavalent chromium, and flame retardants beyond threshold quantities make e-waste hazardous in nature.

3. In 2006, the IAER projected that _____ electronic and electrical appliances would become e-waste by 2010.
a) 1 billion
b) 2 billion
c) 3 billion
d) 4 billion

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In 2006, the International Association of Electronics Recyclers (IAER) projected that 3 billion electronic and electrical appliances would become WEEE or e-waste by 2010.

4. According to the Comptroller and Auditor- General’s (CAG) report what is the amount of e-waste generated annually?
a) 4LT
b) 5LT
c) 6LT
d) 7LT

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] According to CAG report over 4 lakh tonnes of electronic waste, 1.5 MT of plastic waste, 1.7 MT of medical waste, 48 MT of municipal waste are generated in the country annually.

5. What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?
a) Arsenic
b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Cadmium

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Semiconductors, diodes, microwaves, LED’s (Light-emitting diodes), solar cells releases arsenic into the environment.

6. What is the hazardous pollutant released from electron tubes?
a) Arsenic
b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Cadmium

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Electron tubes, filler for plastic and rubber, lubricant additives releases barium into the environment.

7. What is the hazardous pollutant released from batteries?
a) Arsenic
b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Cadmium

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Batteries, pigments, solder, alloys, circuit boards, computer batteries, monitor cathode ray tubes (CRT) releases cadmium when handled improperly.

8. Insulators release chrome. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Chrome is released by dyes or pigments, switches, solar panels whereas, insulators release cobalt.

9. What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?
a) Arsenic
b) Barium
c) Cobalt
d) Copper

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Conductor in cables, copper ribbons, coils, circuitry, and pigments releases copper pollutant into environment.

10. What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards?
a) Arsenic
b) Barium
c) Lead
d) Copper

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Lead rechargeable batteries, solar, transistors, lithium batteries, PVC, (polyvinyl chloride) stabilizers, lasers, LED’s, thermoelectric elements, and circuit boards releases lead pollutant into environment.

11. What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones?
a) Lithium
b) Barium
c) Lead
d) Copper

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mobile telephones, photographic equipment, video equipment (batteries) releases lithium pollutant into environment.

12. What is the hazardous pollutant released from calculators?
a) Lithium
b) Mercury
c) Lead
d) Copper

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Components in copper machines and steam irons; batteries in clocks and pocket calculators, switches, LCDs release mercury into environment when improperly handled.

13. Nickel is released from ____
a) Display
b) Calculator
c) Alloy
d) Transformers

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nickel is released into environment from alloys, batteries, relays, semiconductors, and pigments.

14. Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?
a) Lithium
b) PCBs
c) Lead
d) Copper

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Transformers, capacitors, softening agents for paint, glue, and plastic contains PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls).

Set 4

1. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from _____
a) PoPS
b) PCBs
c) PPPs
d) SoPS

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs). POPs are chemicals that remain integral in the environment for long periods.

2. How many countries signed the Stockholm Convention?
a) Over 100
b) Over 150
c) Over 110
d) Over 120

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Over 150 countries signed the Convention and it entered into action on 17 May 2004, 90 days after the approval by the fiftieth country.

3. When did the PoPs Convention enter force for Australia?
a) 17 August 2004
b) 16 August 2004
c) 18 August 2004
d) 19 August 2004

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Australia ratified the Convention on 20 May 2004, and obligations of PoPs convention entered into force on 18 August 2004.

4. How many dangerous PoPs did the Convention plan to eliminate?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Stockholm Convention established an initial list of 12 key POPs chemicals for which signatories are required to reduce the dangers to human health and the environment arising from their release into surrounding.

5. The aim of Stockholm Convention is to target additional POPs for action. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The aim of convention is to eliminate dangerous POPs, support the transition to safer alternatives, clean-up old stockpiles and equipment containing POPs and to work together for a POPs-free future to prevent harm.

6. Which is the financial mechanism for the Stockholm Convention?
a) GIF
b) GAF
c) GEF
d) GAP

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Global Environmental Facility (GEF) is the selected acting financial mechanism for the Stockholm Convention. The Stockholm Convention is the most significant global legally binding tool for targeting POPs and to reduce effects.

7. How many nations initially signed Stockholm Convention?
a) 91
b) 92
c) 93
d) 94

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) harmonized the organisation of the Stockholm Convention, which was originally signed by 92 nations and the European Community on 3 May 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden.

8. Stockholm Convention, and requires parties to submit proposals of new POPs. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Stockholm Convention and the CLRTAP Protocol on POPs allowance is described in Article 8 and Annex D of the Stockholm Convention, and it requires parties to submit proposals of new POPs according to a set of stringent screening criteria.

9. Article 6 target additional POPs. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Article 6 ensures that stockpiles and wastes consisting of contaminated with POPs are managed safely and in an environmentally sound manner without effecting people or environment. Article 8 targets additional PoPs.

10. When did India ratify for the Stockholm Convention?
a) 2001
b) 2003
c) 2004
d) 2005

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] India’s Union Cabinet gave its consent to ratify and assent to the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants on 20 October 2005. The Convention will allow India to avail technical as well as financial assistance for employing measures to meet the obligations.

Set 5

1. Stripping is widely used to remove _____
a) Volatile components
b) Organic matter
c) Inorganic matter
d) Chemicals

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Stripping is widely used to remove volatile components of a liquid mixture by passing stream of gas.

2. Gases passed in stripping process can be ____
a) Evaporated
b) Boiled
c) Condensed
d) Cooled

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Gases passed in stripping process can be condensed which may yield the organic matter directly.

3. Exotic gases can be used for stripping. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Air and steam (which assist volatilisation) are frequently used for stripping, but more exotic gases are used in special cases.

4. Which of the following aqueous waste can be subjected to stripping?
a) Lead
b) Platinum
c) Ammonia
d) Arsenic

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Ammonia rich aqueous waste, phenolic waste, any aqueous waste with volatile organic compounds or contaminants can be subjected to stripping.

5. What do CG stands for in stripping theory (Henry’s law)?
a) Contaminant
b) Contaminant in gaseous phase
c) Contaminant in liquid phase
d) Contaminant in solid phase

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Stripping theory is given by H = CG / CL. Where, CL is the ratio of the contaminant at equilibrium in the liquid phase, CG is the contaminant in the gaseous phase and H is Henry’s constant.

6. Height of packed stripping tower affects ____
a) Removal efficiency
b) Contaminants
c) Standards
d) Temperature

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The height of packed stripping tower affects the removal efficiency of the contaminant.

7. _____flow through the air stripper will control the removal rate of the contaminants?
a) Air-to-water
b) Boiling point-to-air
c) Heating point-to-water
d) Water-to-air

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Increase in air-to-water flow ratio will usually result in greater removal rates of contaminants.

8. The pressure drop in tower should be between _____ N/m2 per meter of tower height to prevent flooding.
a) 100 to 200
b) 200 to 300
c) 200 to 400
d) 400 to 500

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The pressure drop in the tower should be between 200 to 400 N/m2 per meter of tower height to avoid flooding. The flooding velocity depends upon the type and size of packing and liquid mass velocity of the contaminant.

9. The air stripper is an example of a _____ contactor.
a) Liquid-gas
b) Liquid-liquid
c) Liquid-solid
d) Liquid-plasma

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The air stripper is an example of a liquid-gas contactor and the most efficient type of liquid-gas contactor is the packed tower for better contaminant removal.

10. Smaller packing material size in stripping increases ____
a) Contaminant removal
b) Air removal
c) Waste removal
d) Gas removal

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Smaller packing material size in stripping increases the area available for stripping and improves the transfer process, thus maximises contaminant removal.

11. Rotary air stripping uses ____ force
a) Centripetal
b) Centrifugal
c) Gravitational
d) Pressure

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Rotary air stripping uses the centrifugal force caused by a rotating cylinder instead of gravity to pull the liquid through the packing material, enhancing removal rate.