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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. When was the Rotterdam convention adopted?
a) February 2004
b) February 2005
c) January 2004
d) February 2006

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Convention was adopted and opted for signature at a Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Rotterdam on 10 September 1998 and came into force on 24 February 2004.

2. When was the first Rotterdam conference held?
a) February 2004
b) March 2004
c) August 2004
d) September 2004

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The first Conference of the Parties to the Rotterdam Convention was held in September 2004, it resulted in addition of 14 new chemicals to Annex III and the adoption of a new section on arbitration and conciliation.

3. What is the main objective of Rotterdam convention?
a) To protect human health and environment from toxic pesticides and hazardous chemicals
b) To protect human health and environment from chemicals
c) Chemical analysis of hazardous substance
d) Pathway analysis of chemical substance

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The objective of the convention is to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among parties in international trade of certain pesticides and hazardous chemicals to protect human health and environment from harm.

4. The convention obligates for implementing _____ procedure.
a) CIP
b) PIC
c) CRG
d) OUF

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The convention creates legally binding obligations for implementation of the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.

5. The PIC helps participating countries to learn about ____
a) Characteristics of hazardous chemicals
b) Characteristics of chemicals
c) Characteristics of toxins
d) Characteristics of pesticides

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] PIC helps to learn about characters of hazardous chemicals that maybe shipped to them, to initiate decision making process on future import of chemicals.

6. This Convention does not apply to banned or severely restricted chemicals. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Convention applies to banned or severely restricted chemicals and severely hazardous pesticide formulations. It does not apply to narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances, radioactive materials, wastes, chemical weapons, pharmaceuticals, chemicals used as food additives.

7. Who initiated PIC procedures?
a) UNEP and FAO
b) UNEP and FO
c) UN and FAO
d) UNEPO and FAOP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The convention was built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated by UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme) and FAO (Food and Agriculture Organisation of US) in 1989 and ceased on 24 February 2006.

8. How many pesticides did the convention initially covered?
a) 21
b) 22
c) 23
d) 24

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The convention initially covered 22 pesticides and 5 industrial chemicals. These hazardous chemicals have been banned with respect to human and environment concern.

9. What is the purpose of PIC?
a) To ensure that restricted hazardous chemicals are not exported
b) To ensure that restricted hazardous chemicals are not imported
c) Chemical analysis
d) Prevent PoP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The PIC procedure neither ban nor restrict any chemicals, it does not also mean that any individual country must automatically prohibit their import. Parties should give priority to national decisions on imports, and requirements related to the export controls.

10. What chemicals are covered under the Rotterdam convention?
a) Insecticide
b) Herbicide
c) Pesticide
d) Rodenticide

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Rotterdam Convention applies to industrial chemicals and pesticides that have been banned or severely restricted in party countries or are severely hazardous pesticide formulations.

11. How many chemicals does the current convention covers?
a) 38
b) 39
c) 40
d) 42

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Currently, the convention covers 39 hazardous chemicals. Among these chemicals, 24 are pesticides, 11 are industrial chemicals and 4 are severely hazardous pesticide formulations.

Set 2

1. When did SARA come into force?
a) 1985
b) 1986
c) 1987
d) 1988

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) was passed on October 17, 1986.

2. Which of the following act does SARA amend?
a) RCRA
b) HPS
c) CERCLA
d) TSCA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] SARA amends the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) which has been passed by the U.S. Congress in 1980 to help solve the problems relating to hazardous waste sites.

3. SARA provides resources to ______ citizens for clean-up of hazardous site.
a) Georgia
b) Indian
c) Australian
d) French

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] SARA provides residents of Georgia with the resources needed to clean up hazardous waste sites, also emergency plans which has to be followed in case of a dangerous substance release into environment.

4. What initiated the passage SARA?
a) Shortage of funds for CERCLA
b) US Congress
c) Rise in import activities
d) Rise in export activities

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A shortage of funds for Superfund initiated the passage of SARA, as well as Bhopal gas tragedy in India, in which a gas leak at a U.S. possessed pesticide plant exposed lakhs of people to methyl isocyanate gas.

5. SARA legislation was passed after two years of the Bhopal incident. True or False.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] SARA comprises a tax on chemical and petroleum industries. It mainly provides the federal government with the authority to respond directly to the releases of hazardous substances that could risk health or the environment.

6. Under SARA the _____ is responsible for risk assessment.
a) UNEPA
b) EPA
c) USEPA
d) UKEPA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Under SARA the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is responsible for assessing the degree of risk to human health and environment at sites on NPL.

7. Title III of SARA enhances _____
a) Emergency planning
b) Risk assessment
c) Chemical analysis
d) Pathway analysis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EPCRA of 1986 which is known as SARA Title III, establishes emergency planning and reporting requirements for industry and government sectors and helps in risk management.

8. SARA is enforced by _____ in EPA.
a) OSHA
b) OSKO
c) SOIOD
d) OSWER

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] SARA is enforced by the Office of Solid Waste and Emergency Response (OSWER) under EPA. OSWER manages hazardous Superfund sites with both long-term and short-term clean-up remedial plans and reduces pollution.

9. An example of long-term regulation by SARA is the Superfund Remedial Response Program. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Under Superfund Remedial Response Program site maintenance is evaluated after clean-up is conducted, and is carried until the site is removed from the NPL.

10. The Emergency Response and Removal Program was developed to ____
a) Immediate removal of HW
b) Clean-up of HW
c) Planned removal of HW
d) Intermediate removal of HW

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Emergency Response and Removal Program was developed to immediately remove the hazardous substances from a public site and to prevent the extension of hazardous substances and oil into the surrounding environment.

11. GECAP under SARA provides _____
a) Funds
b) Technical assistance
c) Assistance
d) Guidance

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] GECAP program provides technical assistance to environmental concerns such as oil storage and spill prevention, problems relating industrial wastewater, solid waste management techniques, and hazardous waste management.

Set 3

1. Schedule I talks about ____
a) List of processes that generate HW
b) Management of HW
c) Export of HW
d) Import of HW

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Schedule I of hazardous waste focus on the list of processes that generate hazardous waste, for instance, Petrochemical processes and pyrolytic operations generate Oily sludge emulsion and organic residues.

2. Which of the following hazardous waste is produced from production of mineral acids?
a) Spent pickling liquor
b) Benzol acid sludge
c) Spent catalyst
d) Decanter tank sludge

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Production of mineral acids produces process acidic residue, filter cake, dust and spent catalyst from the activity.

3. The high volume low effect wastes such as fly ash, Phosphogypsum etc are included under schedule I. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Separate guidelines on the management of high volume low effect wastes are issued by Central Pollution Control Board.

4. Schedule II focus on the ____
a) Import
b) Export
c) Concentration
d) Transportation

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The main focus of schedule II is the list of waste constituents with concentration limits.

5. Class A of schedule II is based on ____
a) TCLP
b) PIO
c) HGP
d) CDE

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Class A schedule II is based on leachable concentration limits i.e., Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP) or Soluble Threshold Limit Concentration (STLC).

6. What is the concentration of class A1 element according to schedule II?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A1 element of class A schedule II is Arsenic. The maximum concentration is 5.0mg/L.

7. Class B of schedule II is based on ____
a) TCLP
b) TTLC
c) HGP
d) CDE

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Class A of schedule II is based on Total Threshold Limit Concentration (TTLC) provided by CPCB.

8. Class C of schedule II is based on ____
a) Quantity
b) Concentration
c) Characteristics
d) Quantity

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Class C of schedule II is based on hazardous characteristics such as ignitibility, corrosivity, flammability and toxicity.

9. Class C1 of class C schedule II focus on ____
a) Corrosivity
b) Flammability
c) Toxicity
d) Reactivity

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Class C1 of class C schedule II focus on flammable characters such as temperature, pressure, moisture content and spontaneous chemical changes.

10. Class C2 of class C schedule II focus on ____
a) Corrosivity
b) Flammability
c) Toxicity
d) Reactivity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Class C2 of class C schedule II focus on corrosive characters such as the pH range and temperature.

Set 4

1. When did Seveso accident occur?
a) 1974
b) 1975
c) 1976
d) 1977

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Seveso disaster was an industrial accident that occurred on July 10,1976 in a small chemical manufacturing plant.

2. Which chemical was exposed from Seveso disaster?
a) 2,3,7,8 TCDD
b) 1,2,8 TCP
c) 2,4,8,3 TCD
d) 1,2,3,4 TCD

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] 2,4,5 tricholorophenol was being produced from 1,2,4,5 tetrachlorobenze, the accident resulted in exposure of tonnes of to 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin (TCDD).

3. The affected area was split into zones A, B and C. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The affected area was split into zones A, B and R in decreasing order of surface soil concentrations of TCDD.

4. Zone A of affected Seveso area had a TCDD soil concentration of greater than ____ micrograms per square meter.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Zone A of affected Seveso area had a TCDD soil concentration of greater than 50 micrograms per square meter (µg/ m2), it had 736 residents.

5. Zone B of affected Seveso area had a TCDD soil concentration of between ____ and ____ micrograms per square meter.
a) 5, 50
b) 10, 20
c) 20, 30
d) 40, 50

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Zone B of affected Seveso area had a TCDD soil concentration of between 5 and 50 µg/ m2, it had about 4700 residents.

6. Zone R of affected Seveso area had a TCDD soil concentration of less than ____ micrograms per square meter.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Zone R of affected Seveso area had negligible or a TCDD soil concentration of less than 5 µg/ m2, it had 31,800 residents.

7. Industrial safety regulations were passed in the ____ after Seveso disaster.
a) European Community
b) UK Community
c) US Community
d) Paris Community

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Industrial safety regulations were passed in the European Community after Seveso disaster in 1982 and called that as Seveso Directive.

8. The Seveso Directive is currently referred to as ____
a) Seveso I Directive
b) Seveso II Directive
c) Seveso III Directive
d) Seveso IV Directive

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Seveso Directive was updated in 1999, amended again in 2005 and is currently referred to as the Seveso II Directive or COMAH Regulations in the United Kingdom.

9. The ____ Group claimed the immediate action against Seveso disaster.
a) Roche
b) Colin
c) Davis
d) Dennis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Roche Group claimed that the immediate action has to be taken against Seveso disaster and it was initiated by both Givaudan and Roche.

Set 5

1. No landfill shall normally be constructed within ___ m of any lake or pond.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] No landfill shall normally be constructed within 200 m of any lake or pond, because of concerns regarding runoff of waste contaminated water.

2. No landfill shall be constructed within a ___ m of a navigable river or stream.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] No landfill shall be constructed within a 100 m of a navigable river or stream to prevent contamination from leachate.

3. No landfill shall be constructed within a ___ year flood plain.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] No landfill shall be constructed within a 100-year flood plain, landfills must not be built within the flood plains of major rivers unless properly designed protection embankments are constructed around the landfills.

4. No landfill shall be constructed within ____ m of the highway.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] No landfill shall be constructed within 500 m of the right of way of any state or national highway, to prevent vehicular accidents.

5. A landfill site shall be at least ____ m from a notified habituated area.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 500

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] A landfill site shall be at least 500 m from a notified habituated area. A zone of 500 m around a landfill boundary should be declared a no-development buffer zone.

6. Landfill shall be constructed within critical habitat areas. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Landfill shall not be constructed within critical habitat areas including reserved forest areas.

7. No landfill shall be constructed within ____ m of any water supply well.
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 500

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] No landfill shall be constructed within 500 m of any water supply well to prevent contamination of water from leachate runoff.

8. No landfill shall be located in areas where the ground water table will be less than ___ m below.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] No landfill shall be located in areas where the ground water table will be less than 2m below base of landfill to prevent contamination of ground water.

9. What is the search radius range while selecting TSDF?
a) 5-250
b) 2-200
c) 6-250
d) 6-200

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The search radius range while selecting TSDF is 5-250 km, search area will be so chosen that it minimizes the number of HW landfills in any region or state.

10. The active life of landfill is ___ years.
a) 10-25
b) 10-20
c) 20-30
d) 20-50

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The period for which waste filling is in progress at the landfill and typically range from 10 to 25 years depending on the availability of land area.