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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Part B of Form 1 has to be filled by ____
a) Everyone
b) HW generators
c) Importers
d) Exporters

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Part B of Form 1 has to be filled by hazardous waste generators which has the information of type and by-products produced.

2. Part C of Form 1 has to be filled by operators of TSDF. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Part C of Form 1 has to be filled by recycler or pre-processors or co-processors or users of hazardous or other wastes.

3. Form 2 mainly focus on ____
a) HW generators
b) Importers
c) Exporters
d) Renewal

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Form 2 is mainly for the grant or renewal of authorization by state pollution control board to the occupiers, recyclers, users and operators of disposal facilities.

4. ____ form emphasis for record keeping.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Form 3 mentions strict norms on format for maintaining records of hazardous and other wastes.

5. Form 4 is for _____
a) Annual returns
b) Importing
c) Exporting
d) Analysis

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Form 4 is for filing annual returns for State pollution control board.

6. When should form 4 has to be submitted to SPCB?
a) May
b) June
c) July
d) August

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Form 4 has to be submitted to State Pollution Control Board by 30th day of June of every year for the previous periods April to March.

7. Form 5 is for _____ activities.
a) Import and export
b) Analysis
c) Transportation
d) Collection

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Form 5 is application for import or export of hazardous and other waste for reuse or recycling or recovery or co-processing.

8. Trans boundary movement of HW is discussed in form ____
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Form 6 is about the Trans boundary movement of hazardous waste and the procedures that has to be followed for marking, packing and manifest.

9. Form 7 is for ____
a) Authorisation
b) Import and export
c) Analysis
d) Transportation

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Form 7 is an application form for one time authorisation of traders.

10. Labelling of hazardous waste is dealt under form ____
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Form 8 deals with the labelling of hazardous and other wastes, such as background color, and color of the warnings.

11. According to form 8, the background labelling color has to be ____
a) Yellow
b) Fluorescent yellow
c) Dark yellow
d) Light yellow

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] When labelling containers of hazardous and other waste background color has to be fluorescent yellow and hazardous waste has to be written in red.

12. Form 9 is ____ card.
a) TREM
b) TRUM
c) TEIO
d) TREP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Form 9 is transport emergency (TREM) CARD and has to be carried by transporter during transporter of hazardous waste.

13. Form 10 is for reporting accident. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Form 10 is manifest for hazardous and other waste whereas form 11 is for reporting accidents.

14. ____ form is for filing appeal against order.
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Form 12 is application for filing appeal against the order passed by state pollution control board.

Set 2

1. Class C3 of class C schedule II focus on ____
a) Corrosivity
b) Flammability
c) Toxicity
d) Reactivity

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Class C3 of class C schedule II focus on reactive or explosive characters such as instability conditions, reactions with various parameters.

2. Class C4 of class C schedule II focus on _____
a) Corrosivity
b) Flammability
c) Toxicity
d) Reactivity

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Class C4 of class C schedule II focus on toxic characters such as lethal dosage concentrations and toxicity levels.

3. Class C5 of class C schedule II focus on _____
a) Poisons
b) Flammability
c) Toxicity
d) Reactivity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Class C5 of class C schedule II focus on substances or wastes responsible either to cause death or serious injury and harm human health when its contacted.

4. Part A of schedule III deals with ____
a) Import and export
b) Transportation
c) Analysis
d) Toxicity

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Part A of schedule III deals with List of hazardous wastes applicable for import and export with previous Consent Annexure VIII of the Basel Convention.

5. Part D of schedule III deals with characters of hazardous waste. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Part D of schedule III deals with list of other wastes applicable for import and export without permission from Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

6. Schedule IV deals with _____
a) Import
b) Export
c) Recyclable HW
d) Analysis

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Schedule IV deals with list of commonly recyclable hazardous wastes.

7. Part A of Schedule IV is for ____
a) Import
b) Export
c) Recyclable HW
d) Fuel recycle

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Part A of Schedule IV is for specifications of used oil suitable for recycling.

8. Schedule VI deals with ____
a) Import prohibition
b) Export
c) Recyclable HW
d) Fuel recycle

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Schedule VI deals with hazardous and other wastes prohibited for import.

9. Schedule VII is the ____
a) Authorities
b) Import prohibition
c) Export
d) Recyclable HW

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Schedule VII is the list of authorities and corresponding duties such as MOEFCC, CPCB, SPCB.

Set 3

1. Ground water characteristics has to be monitored at least once in a ____ till design span.
a) Week
b) Month
c) Day
d) Quarter

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ground water characteristics has to be monitored at least once in a quarter till designed life span of the TSDF.

2. Ground water pH has to be analysed in monitoring. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Ground water should be analysed for pH, Colour, EC, Turbidity (NTU), SS, TDS, TOC, COD, heavy metals, Fe, CN, F, As and Mn, Cl, NO3 , SO4 , TKN, Total Alkalinity, Total hardness and Total Pesticides.

3. Ground water samples should be collected at least up to a distance ___ km.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Ground water samples should be collected at least up to a distance of 5 KM from the TSDF location to analyse for contamination.

4. If no open wells are available, action needs to be taken to provide at least ____ monitoring wells.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] If no open wells or tube wells are available, action needs to be taken to provide at least four monitoring wells (piezometric) around the TSDF.

5. How should the monitoring wells be arranged in the absence of bore wells?
a) One on up gradient and other three on the down gradient
b) One on up gradient and other two on the down gradient
c) One on up gradient and other one on the down gradient
d) One on up gradient and other four on the down gradient

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In the absence of bore wells monitoring wells in such a way that one on up gradient of the ground water flow and other three on the down gradient side of the ground water flow at least up to first layer aquifer.

6. The ground water flow direction has to be ascertained periodically and reported at least _____
a) Once in a year
b) Once in two years
c) Once in three years
d) Once in four years

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The ground water flow direction has to be ascertained periodically and reported at least once in three years so as to know any changes in the ground water flow directions.

7. The directions of the ground water flow have to be established with ____
a) State Ground Water Board
b) Water Control Board
c) PCB
d) SPCB

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The directions of the ground water flow have to be established in consultation with the State Ground Water Board or any other authority.

8. Lead content has to be checked in ground water analysis. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Heavy metals such as Pb, Cd, Cu, Zn, Cr, Hg, Ni has to be monitored to prevent groundwater contamination.

Set 4

1. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?
a) To minimise the effect of a consequence
b) For better risk management
c) To characterize adverse effect of toxins
d) To reduce probability of occurrence

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Hazard identification is the first step in risk assessment. The goal is to understand the concentration of toxins, spatial distribution and there movement.

2. The ____________ process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.
a) Hazard identification
b) Exposure assessment
c) Toxicity assessment
d) Risk characterization

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hazard identification traces the path of the toxins and also determines the likelihood of occurrence in humans.

3. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?
a) Land use
b) Contaminant levels
c) Affected population
d) Estimation of risk

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Estimation of risk is done at risk characterization whereas land use, contaminant level, affected population and biota data plays a major role while identifying a hazard.

4. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Risk is the probability of suffering harm whereas hazard is a potential source of harm.

5. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?
a) To estimate the risk
b) To calculate carcinogenic exposure
c) To know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
d) For determination of remedial actions

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Site history provides precise information about the activities that had been carried on the area. Most of the instance contamination is due to past activities on site.

6. What is the main objective of risk assessment?
a) To evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
b) Remediation of contaminated sites
c) Hazard management
d) To know source of pollutants

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Risk assessment helps to understand possible problems and provides alternatives as well as control measures to reduce the accident.

7. What is the first stage of risk assessment?
a) Exposure assessment
b) Hazard identification
c) Toxicity study
d) Risk characterisation

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Hazard identification is the first stage of risk assessment. It provides clear understanding about chemical contaminants, their concentration and distribution in environment.

8. An incident can be called hazardous only when
a) Stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
b) Poses threat to surrounding
c) Monitoring is failed
d) Outburst of chemicals

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] An incident is called hazardous only when the contaminant poses threat to humans and ecological systems which may results catastrophic.

9. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-handling activities may be planned. True or False
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The main goal of risk management is to reduce the threats from an activity so that harm to the surrounding is minimized.

10. Hazard identification mainly focus on
a) Chemical source and concentration
b) Chemical exposure
c) Chemical analysis
d) Chemical pathway

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The main aim of hazard identification is to identify chemical source, concentration and its movement in environment.

Set 5

1. ______law covers the discharge of waste into environment in NY.
a) HWRP
b) HARP
c) HRPA
d) HPRA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Hazardous Waste Reduction Plan (HWRP) accounts for hazardous wastes which emitted into air, discharged into waters, or treated and disposed of in a facility.

2. Waste reduction can be achieved by technology. True or False.
a) False
b) True

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Hazardous waste can be reduced through implementing technically feasible and economically practical hazardous waste reduction technologies.

3. HW that are not subjected to regulation after recycling can be recycled to minimise waste. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Even if the material is listed as a hazardous waste or meets the characteristics of a hazardous waste, it cannot be recycled if it does not fall under HW category after recycling.

4. Which of the following HW cannot be recycled?
a) Used oil
b) Treatment waste
c) Paints
d) Batteries

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Used oil includes petroleum-based or synthetic oil that has been used which has certain unique properties that separates it from most hazardous waste streams.

5. Which of the following techniques can be implemented to reduce hazardous waste?
a) Analysis
b) Transportation
c) Trans boundary movement
d) Chemical exchange

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] By notifying materials handler, the excess chemicals can be used by someone else.

6. Which of the following can be considered as source reduction?
a) Material substitution
b) Treating offsite
c) Analysis
d) Landfill disposal

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Raw material substitution if the waste being produced is more is effective source reduction. It can be achieved by life cycle analysis.

7. ______concept by RCRA is an attempt to reduce density of waste generated.
a) NPL
b) CERCLA
c) Cradle to grave
d) Carcinogen

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Cradle to grave concept by RCRA to reduce generation of waste from generation point and also with respect to disposal sites.

8. TSD can accumulate waste for ____ days.
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 100

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A TSD facility generator can only accumulate hazardous waste for a period of 90 days according to RCRA.

9. ______approach should be considered to reduce the impact of waste on environment.
a) LCA
b) NPL
c) RCRA
d) CERCLA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] By employing life cycle analysis (LCA) methods corporations can identify opportunities to reduce environmental impacts.