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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. CERCLA is also knows as ____
a) Superfund
b) SARA
c) RCRA
d) TSCA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] CERCLA is also known as the Superfund act provided for liability, compensation, clean-up and emergency response in condition with clean-up of contaminated sites.

2. What was the purpose for creating superfund act?
a) Clean up inactive waste sites
b) Chemical analysis
c) Import of chemicals
d) Export of chemicals

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A major hazardous problem is large number of old dump sites that has been abandoned by owners and still contain large quantity of HW.

3. When was CERCLA enacted?
a) 1979
b) 1980
c) 1982
d) 1981

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) which is commonly known as Superfund, was enacted by Congress on December 11, 1980.

4. Which federal act is responsible for the clean up of abandoned hazardous site?
a) RCRA
b) SARA
c) CERCLA
d) TSCA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] CERCLA established a trust fund to provide for the site clean up when no responsible party could be identified.

5. ______ defines type of response for the clean up.
a) PSP
b) UOS
c) JIS
d) NCP

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] National Contingency Plan (NCP) has federal authority to respond to the problems of abandoned hazardous waste disposal sites and decides the type of response.

6. Immediate removal should be completed within ____
a) 5 months
b) 6 months
c) 7 month
d) 8 months

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Immediate removal require prompt response to prevent immediate and significant harm to human health or environment and should be completed within 6 months.

7. Long term removal are those where actions may be taken to address releases requiring prompt response. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Long-term remedial response actions are those that are permanently and suggestively reduce the dangers associated with releases of hazardous substances that are serious, but not immediately affecting.

8. Which of the following episode is declared as superfund site?
a) DDT
b) Times beach
c) Love canal
d) Seveso

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] NY Federal Emergency Management Agency purchased homes from the vicinity of love canal and EPA later declared the place as superfund site.

9. EPA gives the authority for superfund act to cleanup ____ sites.
a) Abandoned
b) Polluted
c) Harmful
d) Contaminated

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] EPA gives the authority for superfund act to cleanup abandoned hazardous sites which pose threat to human and environment.

10. Love canal was a _____
a) Dump site
b) Factory
c) Waste generator
d) Waste exporter

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Love canal was a chemical dump site which was later converted into a neighbourhood which affected human health by improper site management.

Set 2

1. When did Chernobyl nuclear disaster take place?
a) 1980
b) 1986
c) 1982
d) 1983

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Chernobyl nuclear explosion took place on 26 April 1986 at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant, which is located 100 km from Kiev in Ukraine.

2. The explosion of reactor ruptured _____ pressure tubes.
a) 1660
b) 1770
c) 1880
d) 1990

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The steam explosion lifted the 1,000-metric-ton cover off the top of the reactor, rupturing the rest of the 1,660 pressure tubes, causing a second explosion and exposing the reactor core to the environment.

3. How long did the fire burn in the core due to explosion?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The explosion in reactor 4 left the reactor core open to environment and the fire burned for 10 days, releasing a large amount of radiation into the atmosphere.

4. When was Chernobyl 1 reactor shut down?
a) 1980
b) 1968
c) 1996
d) 1983

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Due to building fire in Chernobyl plant, the reactor 2 was shut down in 1991, and reactor 1 and 3 was closed in 1996 and 2000 respectively.

5. What was the percent of uranium dioxide escaped to environment?
a) 13-30
b) 12-20
c) 11-20
d) 10-30

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Chernobyl 4 reactor contained about 190 metric tons of uranium dioxide fuel and it is estimated 13 percent to 30 percent of this escaped into the atmosphere.

6. What was the main reason for Chernobyl accident?
a) Tsunami
b) Earthquake
c) Flawed reactor design
d) Vent failure

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Chernobyl accident in 1986 was the result of a flawed reactor design that was operated with inefficiently trained personnel.

7. Which of the following element was dropped to the core to extinguish fire?
a) Boron
b) Sulphur
c) Zinc
d) Bromine

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] 5000 tonnes of boron, dolomite, sand, clay and lead were dropped on to the burning core by helicopter in an effort to extinguish the fire and limit the release of radioactive particles into the environment.

8. Which of the following radionuclide dose caused radiation health hazard in public population?
a) Iodine-131
b) Iron-131
c) Bromine-131
d) Zinc-131

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Two radionuclides, the short-lived iodine-131 and the long-lived caesium-137, caused radiation health hazard in public population.

9. What was the major health hazard from Chernobyl disaster?
a) Leukaemia
b) Asthma
c) Thyroid cancer
d) Vomiting

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Subsequent studies in Ukraine, Russia and Belarus suggested the rapid increase in thyroid cancers due to the disaster.

10. When was the Chernobyl Forum established?
a) 1980
b) 2003
c) 1982
d) 1983

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In February 2003, the IAEA established the Chernobyl Forum, in cooperation with seven other UN organisations to enumerate the hazards associated.

Set 3

1. Which section of the Clean Air Act directs the Administrator to develop regulations?
a) 129
b) 130
c) 128
d) 127

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Section 129 of the Clean Air Act directs the Administrator to develop regulations under section 111 of the Act limiting emissions of nine air pollutants which are particulate matter, carbon monoxide, dioxins/furans, sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, hydrogen chloride, lead, mercury, and cadmium from four classes of solid waste incineration units.

2. Which performance standards were introduced by EPA to reduce air pollution from commercial and industrial solid waste incineration?
a) NSPS and EG
b) NPS
c) NPS and ES
d) SNO and TSR

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The NSPS and EG were designed to substantially reduce emissions of a number of harmful air pollutants such as lead, cadmium, mercury, and dioxins/furans, which are supposed to cause negative health and environmental effects.

3. Which of the following action finalises hazardous air pollutants for HWC?
a) RCRA
b) CERCLA
c) NESHAP
d) SARA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] NESHAP finalizes for hazardous air pollutants for hazardous waste combustors (HWCs) which includes hazardous waste burning incinerators, cement kilns, lightweight aggregate kilns, industrial/commercial/institutional boilers and process heaters, and hydrochloric acid production furnaces.

4. Which are the major sources of hazardous air pollutant (HAP) emissions?
a) HHP
b) HWC
c) HEW
d) HSD

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] EPA has identified HWCs as major sources of hazardous air pollutant (HAP) emissions. These standards implement section 112(d) of the Clean Air Act (CAA) by requiring hazardous waste combustors to meet HAP emission standards reflecting the performance of the maximum achievable control technology (MACT).

5. HAP emitted from MSW landfills can cause adverse health effects. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The hazardous air pollutants (HAP) emitted by municipal solid waste (MSW) landfills include, vinyl chloride, ethyl benzene, toluene, and benzene. The HAP emitted from MSW landfills can cause severe health effects if there is sufficient exposure.

6. EPA announced updates to New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) to reduce emissions of ______ landfill gas.
a) Sulphur-rich
b) Methane-rich
c) Carbon-rich
d) Hydrogen-rich

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] On August 29, 2016, EPA announced final updates to its New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) to reduce emissions of methane-rich landfill gas from new, modified and reconstructed municipal solid waste (MSW) landfills.

7. Site remediation subject to final rule which is required to control emissions of organic HAP by application of _____
a) MACT
b) MCAT
c) RCRA
d) CERCLA

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Site remediation is subjected to the final rule which are required to control emissions of organic HAP by meeting emissions limitations and work practice standards reflecting the application of maximum achievable control technology (MACT).

8. What was the first federal legislation involving air pollution?
a) APCA 1975
b) APCA 1935
c) APCA 1955
d) APCA 1970

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The Air Pollution Control Act of 1955 was the first federal legislation involving air pollution. This Act provided funds for federal research in air pollution.

9. The Air Quality Act of 1967 initiated in areas subject to interstate air pollution transport. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Air Quality Act of 1967 authorized expanded studies of air pollutant emission inventories, ambient monitoring techniques, and control techniques.

10. ______ legally approved the establishment of National Ambient Air Quality Standards.
a) CAA 1950
b) CAA 1960
c) CAA 1970
d) CAA 1980

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Clean Air Act 1970 set requirements for State Implementation Plans to attain the National Ambient Air Quality Standards and it also authorized the set-up of New Source Performance Standards for new as well as modified stationary sources to reduce impact on environment and as well as human health.

Set 4

1. ____furnace uses forces of gravity to help in mixing of waste.
a) Bed plate
b) Fluidised bed
c) Incineration grate
d) Rotary

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Bed plate furnace uses forces of gravity to help in mixing of waste, as the waste is moved between series of metal plates.

2. Which of the following combustion technology is suitable for homogeneous and wet wastes?
a) Bed plate
b) Fluidised bed
c) Incineration grate
d) Rotary

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Bed plate furnace is suitable for homogeneous and wet wastes such as sludge cake, and pasty wastes.

3. In which of the following combustion technique waste is introduced to a bed of sand which is kept in suspension?
a) Bed plate
b) Fluidised bed
c) Incineration grate
d) Rotary

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In fluidised bed furnace waste is introduced into a bed of sand and heated several hundred degrees to provide inertia and sufficient combustion.

4. Which of the following waste combustion furnace is opted for waste of same size and density?
a) Bed plate
b) Fluidised bed
c) Incineration grate
d) Rotary

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Fluidised bed furnace is more suitable for waste of same size and density, and for wastes which have been pre-heated to reduce them in size.

5. Which of the waste combustion technique is opted for solid waste treatment?
a) Bed plate
b) Fluidised bed
c) Incineration grate
d) Rotary

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Incineration grates are used to treat solid waste such as municipal waste which do not comprise liquids, pastes or sludges that would run through gate.

6. Which of the following furnaces withstand high temperature?
a) Bed plate
b) Fluidised bed
c) Incineration grate
d) Rotary

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In rotary furnace wastes are placed in refractory-lined furnace which rotates itself and is designed to withstand high temperature and pressure.

7. Optimum temperature range for a furnace is ____ degree Celsius.
a) 850-1200
b) 800-1200
c) 700-1250
d) 800-1250

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Optimum temperature range for a furnace is 800-1200 degree Celsius, to maintain the temperature mixing of low and high CV waste is carried out.

8. What is the average plant capacity of rotary kiln incinerator?
a) 20000-50000 tonnes per year
b) 25000-50000 tonnes per year
c) 200000-540222 tonnes per year
d) 457916-595263 tonnes per year

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The average plant capacity of rotary kiln incinerator is 25000-50000 tonnes per year and waste can be either solid, liquid or drummed wastes.

9. Complete destruction of hazardous components is done in first chamber of rotary kiln. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The kiln is operated around 1200 degree Celsius and off-gas from first chamber is then combusted in secondary chamber to reduce particulates and to ensure complete destruction of hazardous components.

10. Which of the following combustion enables operator to control residence time and temperatures?
a) Rotary kiln
b) Fluidised bed
c) Pyrolysis
d) Rotary furnace

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Fluidised bed combustion technology enables operator to control residence time and sustain stable temperatures, and has good gas-to-solid contact characteristics.

11. Which of the following combustion technology destroys persistent chlorinated hydrocarbons?
a) Rotary kiln
b) Fluidised bed
c) Pyrolysis
d) Rotary furnace

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Fluidised bed combustion technology operates at temperature ranging from 650-775 degree Celsius and destroys highly persistent chlorinated hydrocarbons.

12. Manufacture of charcoal is example of pyrolysis. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Pyrolysis is partial combustion in closed container in absence of oxygen, manufacture of charcoal is example of pyrolysis, which has been used for many years.

13. Which of the following combustion technology is used for pre-treatment of health care waste?
a) Rotary kiln
b) Fluidised bed
c) Pyrolysis
d) Rotary furnace

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Pyrolysis is used for pre-treatment of health care waste which consist of materials such as bandages, organic materials, plastics (safety clothes, syringes, tubes).

14. Which of the following combustion takes place in closed container in presence of oxygen?
a) Rotary kiln
b) Fluidised bed
c) Pyrolysis
d) Gasification

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Gasification is a partial combustion process that takes place in closed container in presence of oxygen and end products include hydrogen and methane.

Set 5

1. Identified character of corrosivity is ____
a) pH
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Friction

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Corrosivity is an indicated character of hazardous waste because of the reactivity with high and low pH.

2. Toxic contaminant migration occurs in corrosive activity. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hazardous waste possessing corrosive character reacts with pH and with other waste to cause migration of toxic contaminants from certain waste.

3. Acidic waste possess _____ character.
a) Ignitable
b) Corrosive
c) Toxic
d) Reactive

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Acidic waste and used pickle liquor from steel manufacturing industries hold corrosive characters.

4. _____ is a prime indicator of corrosion.
a) Steel
b) Lead
c) Mercury
d) Zinc

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Steel corrosion is a prime indicator of hazardous waste since waste capable of corroding steel can escape from drums.

5. pH of corrosive substance is less than or equal to _____
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] pH of corrosive substance is less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5 according to EPA test.

6. Steel corrosion rate by corrosive liquid or substance is ____mm/year.
a) 6
b) 6.1
c) 6.2
d) 6.35

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Steel corrosion rate by corrosive material or substance is 6.35 mm/year according to NACE.

7. Steel corrosion rate by corrosive liquid or substance is observed at temperature ___ Celsius.
a) 50
b) 55
c) 60
d) 65

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The liquid which corrodes steel is maximum at test temperature 55 degree Celsius or 130 Fahrenheit according to NACE.

8. A non-aqueous substance produces pH of the corrosive standards when mixed with water is considered to have corrosive character. True or False.
a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A non-aqueous material when mixed with an equivalent weight of water, produces a solution having a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5 is said to be corrosive.

9. To establish corrosive character, the test by EPA is ___ method.
a) 1111A
b) 1110A
c) 1111Q
d) 1111Z

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Corrosive character tests are Bureau of Indian Standard 9040 C method for pH, NACE and EPA 1110A for steel.

10. Hazardous waste number of material that is not considered corrosive is ____
a) D001
b) D000
c) D002
d) D003

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A waste that exhibits corrosivity character but is not listed as hazardous waste in sub-part D of EPA has a number D002.