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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. The ideal cleaning material for removing milk stone from milking equipment surfaces is _____
a) Acidic detergent
b) Phosphate
c) Surfactant
d) Chelate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Acidic detergent is used for cleaning purpose. It is an ideal material in order to remove milk stone from milking equipment surface.

2. The somatic cell count standard for Grade A raw milk is _____ or less per milliliter of milk.
a) 500,000
b) 750,000
c) 1,000,000
d) 1,500,000

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Somatic cell if less leads to flat flavor of milk. Somatic cell count for grade A raw milk should be 750,000 0r less per milliliter of milk.

3. The ability of lipase in milk to attack milk fat and produce a rancid off flavor is enhanced by?
a) Excessive agitation of warm raw milk
b) Poorly cleaned milking equipment
c) Exposing milk to sunlight
d) Feeding cows moldy hay

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Lipase is an enzyme which helps in the breakdown of milk fat. Its ability to produce off flavor is enhanced by excessive agitation of warm raw milk.

4. In ______when the Capper-Volstead Act was enacted, cooperatives were given the right and power to organize producers of a farm commodity to its fullest extent.
a) 1829
b) 1959
c) 1729
d) 1929

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Capper–Volstead Act , the Co-operative Marketing Associations Act was adopted by the United States Congress on February 18, 1922. In 1929 it gave right and power to organizw producers of a farm commodity to fullest extent.

5. The two most important etiologic agents of mastitis are __________
a) Streptococcus agaiactiae and Staphylococcus aureaus
b) Streptococcus uberis and Streptococcus dysgapactiae
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa and coliform bacteria
d) Klebsiella and actinomycetes

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A total of 137 microbial species, subspecies and serovars have been isolated from the bovine mammary gland. Nucleic acid hybridization studies have restructured the classification of many mastitis pathogens. Streptococcus agaiactiae and Staphylococcus aureaus are two most important etiologic agents of mastitis.

6. ___________ cause(s) off flavors in milk such as acid, high acid, or sour milk.
a) Chemical adulterants
b) Microorganisms
c) Sediment
d) Weeds

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Microorganism release acid which are responsible for sour milk.

7. Aflatoxins sometimes found in dairy feeds are produced by?
a) Protozoa
b) Bacteria
c) Mold
d) Yeasts

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Aflatoxins are a family of toxins produced by certain fungi that are found on agricultural crops such as maize (corn), peanuts, cottonseed, and tree nuts. They are produced by molds.

8. With the exception of ________, all of the following off flavors of milk are caused by bacteria
a) Bitter
b) Malty
c) Yeasty
d) Salty

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] bacteria contribute to variety of off flavor to the milk. It leads to bitter, malty and yeasty off flavor.

9. The Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) specifies requirements for the production of Grade A raw milk for pasteurization and is recommended by _________
a) The Food and Drug Administration
b) The Small Business Administration
c) The U.S. Department of Agriculture
d) The National Committee on Milk

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] PMO Pasteurized Milk Ordinance gives the Grade “A” Pasteurized Milk Ordinance (PMO) is a set of minimum standards and requirements that are established by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for regulating the production, processing and packaging of Grade A milk.

10. In Federal order markets, milk sold for consumption in fluid form is in __________
a) Class IV
b) Class III
c) Class II
d) Class I

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Milk sold for consumption in liquid form is a class I product.

11. Milk covered by Federal milk marketing orders is __________
a) Grade A
b) Grade B
c) Grade C
d) Grade A, B, C

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Federal Milk Marketing Orders (FMMOs) establish certain provisions under which dairy processors purchase fresh milk from dairy farmers supplying a marketing area. It covers Grade A milk.

12. The largest percentage of the U.S. milk supply is utilized in the production of ______
a) Cream and specialty sales
b) Cheese
c) Frozen dairy desserts
d) Evaporated, condensed and dry products

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Cheese production is a major dairy operation. It utilizes a large percentage of U.S. milk supply.

13. Operating costs of Federal orders are paid by ______
a) The State Department of Agriculture
b) The Federal government
c) The milk producers
d) The milk handlers

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The milk handlers pay the operating cost of federal orders. It is written under the norms of payment.

14. One objective of a federal order is to _______________
a) Assure all dairy farmers an adequate income
b) Assure consumers that an adequate supply of pure, wholesome milk
c) Assure that all dairy plants receive an adequate supply of milk
d) Prevent surpluses of milk in the marketplace

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] USDA cites three major objectives of federal milk orders: 1) To assure consumers of an adequate supply of wholesome milk at a reasonable price. 2) To promote greater producer price stability and orderly marketing. 3) To provide adequate producer prices to ensure an adequate current and future Grade A milk supply.

15. What is the most popular size container used for fluid milk?
a) Gallon
b) Half Gallon
c) Quart
d) Five quart bulk

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Fluid milk is available in market in different packaging and quantity. The most popular among them is a Gallon packing.

Set 2

1. The rate at which milk flows through a closed pipe can be determined by:
a) Determining the mass flow rate
b) Determining the volume flow rate
c) Mass flow rate and volume flow rate
d) Fat content

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Flow rate determines the flow rate of milk through a closed pipe. Volume flow rate also plays a major role in determining flow rate.

2. Conveyor-based methods are used for the measurement of the flow of:
a) Solids
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Gel

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Conveyor-based method determines flow of solids. Liquid, gas. Gel flow characteristic cannot be determined by this method.

3. For the measurement of flow rate of liquid, the method used is:
a) Conveyor-based methods
b) Bourdon tube
c) Coriolis method
d) Thermal mass flow measurement

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Using the Coriolis Effect that causes a laterally vibrating tube to distort, a direct measurement of mass flow can be obtained in a coriolis flow meter. Hence, coriolis method is used for the measuring liquid flow rate.

4. The device cannot be used for flow obstruction is :
a) Orifice plate
b) Venturi tube
c) Flow nozzle and dall flow tube
d) sphere

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] : Orifice plate, venture tube and flow nozzle all these devices are used for flow obstruction. Sphere can’t be used for flow obstruction.

5. The device which is used for making temporary measurements of flow is:
a) Venturi
b) Dull flow tube
c) Orifice plate
d) Pitot static tube

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] An orifice plate is a device used for measuring flow rate, for reducing pressure or for restricting flow. It is also used to make temporary flow measurements.

6. For the measurement of flow the cheapest device is:
a) Venturi
b) Dall flow tube
c) Flow nozzle
d) Pitot static tube

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Flow nozzle is the most economical device for the measurement of flow. Dall flow tube, Venturi and Pitot static tube are comparatively expensive.

7. The instrument which is not suitable for the application in automatic control scheme is :
a) Rotameters
b) Pitot static tube
c) Rotary piston meter
d) Orifice plate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] In rotameter, the falling and rising action of a float in a tapered tube provides a measure of flow rateRotameter is not suitable in automatic control scheme.

8. Example for positive displacement meter is:
a) Variable area flow meter
b) Turbine meters
c) Rotary piston meter
d) Venturi

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A positive displacement meter is a type of flow meter that requires fluid to mechanically displace components in the meter in order for flow measurement. Rotary piston meter is a positive displacement meter.

9. Turbine meters are generally preferred for?
a) Low-viscosity and high flow measurements
b) High viscosity and low flow measurements
c) High viscosity and high flow measurements
d) Low viscosity and low flow measurements

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Turbine flow meters are used for the measurement of natural gas and liquid flow. Turbine meters are used for low-viscosity and high flow measurements.

10. The flow meter which is replacing the differential pressure meters in its applications is:
a) Vortex-shedding flow meter
b) Electromagnetic flow meters
c) Ultrasonic flow meters
d) Displacemement meter

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] A vortex flow meter is a flow measurement device best suited for flow measurements where the introduction of moving parts presents problems. Vortex-shedding flow meter took place of differential pressure meters in its applications.

11. Ostwald,Herschel-Bulkley, Steiger-Ory, Bingham, Ellis and Eyring.The following models are to study the flow behavior of ?
a) Newtonian fluid
b) Non-Newtonian fluid
c) Dilated fluid
d) Ideal fluid

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Several models are available for mathematical description of the flow behavior of non-Newtonian systems. Examples of such models are Ostwald, Herschel-Bulkley, Steiger-Ory, Bingham, Ellis and Eyring.

12. Which of the following satisfy n= 1 (where n is flow behavior index)?
a) Pseudoplastic fluid
b) Thixotropic fluid
c) Newtonian fluid
d) Diliant fluid

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The n=1 for Newtonian fluids. Newtonian fluid is a fluid in which the viscous stresses arising from its flow, at every point, .The stress is linearly proportional to the local strain rate—the rate of change of its deformation over time.

13. Which of the following satisfy n<1 (where n is flow behavior index)?
a) Pseudoplastic fluid
b) Thixotropic fluid
c) Newtonian fluid
d) Diliant fluid

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The n<1 for shear thinning (pseudoplastic) fluids. Shear thinning is the non-Newtonian behavior of fluids whose viscosity decreases under shear strain. It is sometimes considered synonymous for pseudo plastic behavior.

14. Which of the following satisfy n>1 (where n is flow behavior index)?
a) Pseudoplastic fluid
b) Thixotropic fluid
c) Newtonian fluid
d) Diliant fluid

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The n>1 for shear thickening (diliants) fluids. Dilatant fluids, also known as shear thickening fluids, are liquids or solutions whose viscosity increases as stress is applied.

15. Herschel-Bulkley model is also called as ______
a) Low equation
b) Young’s equation
c) Power law equation
d) Rutherford equation

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Herschel:Bulkley model, also called the generalised power law equation which in principle is an extended Ostwald mode.

Set 3

1. What is the flux of a membrane filter if it contains 75 sq. ft. of filter area and operates for 24 hours at a flow rate of 5 gpm? Assume that the water temperature is 20℃.
a) 100 gallons per square foot per day
b) 98 gallons per square foot per day
c) 76 gallons per square foot per day
d) 59 gallons per square foot per day

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] 5 gallons per minute multiplied by 60 minutes per hour multiplied by24 hours per day equals 7200 gallons per day. 7200 gallons per day divided by75 sq. ft. = 96 gallons per square foot per day.

2. What is the specific flux of the system if it contains 75 sq. ft. of filter area and operates for 24 hours at a flow rate of 5 gpm? Assume that the water temperature is 20℃ and the TMP of the system is 20 psi.
a) 5.6 gfd/psi
b) 4.8 gfd/psi
c) 9.4 gfd/psi
d) 5.5 gfd/psi

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] We calculated the flux to be 96 gfd. In order to calculate specific flux, divide the flux by the TMP 96 gfd / 20 psi. = 4.8 gfd/psi.

3. Which of the following qualities do not determine the percent recovery in membrane treatment?
a) Membrane filtration level selected
b) Characteristic of membrane itself
c) Quality of feed water
d) Nutritional content of feed

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The three qualities are: membrane filtration level selected; the characteristics of the membrane itself; and the quality of the feed water. These qualities help in determining percentage recovery.

4. Which of the following mechanisms is used by a membrane filter to remove particulate material from the water?
a) Adsorption
b) Settling
c) Straining
d) Crystallization

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Straining has been identified as the principal mechanism that is operative in the removal of suspended solids during the filtration of settled secondary effluent from biological treatment processes. Other mechanisms like interception and adhesion are also operative even though their effects are small and, for the most part, masked by the straining action.

5. The membrane filtration level with the smallest pore size (0.0001 – 0.001 µm) is called_____________
a) Micro filtration
b) Reverse osmosis
c) Nano filtration
d) Ultra filtration

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Reverse Osmosis has a pore size range of 0.0001 – 0.001. It is by far the finest separation material available to industry.

6. The flow rate through the membrane filter itself expressed as gallon per square foot per day is called?
a) Permeate
b) Head loss
c) Flux
d) Overhead

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Flux is the rate of extraction of permeates measured as gallon per square foot per day. Permeate is the filtrate, the liquid passing through the membrane.

7. Which one of the following is the name of the process of reversing the direction of water flow through the filter using filtered water?
a) back pulse
b) reverse flow
c) air pressure
d) front pressure

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Applying an external pressure to reverse the natural flow of pure solvent, thus, is reverse osmosis. The process is similar to other membrane technology applications. However, key differences are found between reverse osmosis and filtration. The predominant removal mechanism in membrane filtration is straining, or size exclusion, so the process can theoretically achieve perfect efficiency regardless of parameters such as the solution’s pressure and concentration.

8. The filtered water that has been treated by a membrane filter is called _____________
a) Permeate
b) Concentrate
c) Reject
d) Pulp

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The desalinated water that is de-mineralized or de-ionized, is called permeate (or product) water. The water stream carrying the concentrated contaminants that did not pass through the RO membrane is called the reject (or concentrate) stream.

9. Which of the following remains the primary use of membrane filtration in water treatment?
a) Desalination of salt water to produce potable water
b) A pretreatment step in water treatment
c) Filtration of surface or ground water under the direct influence of surface water
d) Pre heating

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Primary use of Membrane filtration is desalination of salt water to produce portable water in water treatment. All other options are secondary uses.

10. Which of the following are different forms of membrane filter construction?
I) Hollow filter
II) TMP
III) Spiral wound
IV) Ceramic
V) Cross flow
VI) Electro dialysis
a) I), III) IV) and VI)
b) I),II),III) and IV)
c) I) and II)
d) III) and IV)

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hollow filters, TMP, Ceramic and Electro dialysis are different forms which constitute material of membrane filter. Cross flow is the type of flow and TMP is Trans-membrane pressure.

11. A raw water reservoir would be an example of which membrane pretreatment method (where the goal is to reduce the loading and fouling potential of the water fed to the membrane)?
a) Filtration
b) Clarification
c) Chemical treatment
d) Pasteurization

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The raw water reservoir would act as clarifier. It helps in clarification and reduction of fouling potential of water fed to membrane.

12. Which of the following is a valid name for a test for testing membrane integrity?
a) Flux membrane test
b) Reversal of flow test
c) Air pressure hold test
d) Sediment test

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] There are 3 major tests used to determine the integrity of a membrane filter: the Bubble Point Test, the Forward Flow Test, and the Pressure Hold Test. All three tests are based on the same physics mechanism that the flow of a gas through a liquid-wetted membrane under applied gas pressures.

13. Chlorines, acids, and bases are three types of chemicals used to do which of the following?
a) prescreen the water in the membrane filtration system
b) chemically clean a membrane filtration system
c) monitor a membrane filtration system for fiber failure
d) filter

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Chlorines, acids and bases are used to chemically clean a membrane filtration system. They ensure maximum efficiency of the system.

14. Which of the following mechanisms is not used by a membrane filter to remove particulate material from the water?
a) flux
b) reverse flow
c) particle counts
d) chlorine

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Reverse flow is basically a flow method. Flux, particle count and chlorine are mechanism used to remove particulate material from water.

15. For surface water system, the required residual disinfectant concentration may not be less than _______mg/L for more than ___________hours before the first customer.
a) 0.2, 6
b) 2.0, 6
c) 0.2, 4
d) 2.0, 4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The residual disinfectant concentration required is equal to or more than 0.2mg/L. This should be applied 6 hrs before the 1st usage.

Set 4

1. Pore size Micro-filtration membrane ranges from_________
a) 0.1- 5µm
b) 0.1- 0.01µm
c) 0.001- 0.01µm
d) 0.0001- 0.001µm

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The pore size on microfiltration membranes ranges from 0.1 – 5 um, and has the largest pore size of the four main membrane types. Its pores are large enough to filter out such things as bacteria, blood cells, flour, talc and many other kinds of fine dust in solution. This can be contributed to its pores which are relatively large compared to other membranes; it can be operated under low pressures and therefore low energy.

2. Pore size Ultra-filtration membrane ranges from________
a) 0.1- 5µm
b) 0.1- 0.01µm
c) 0.001- 0.01µm
d) 0.0001- 0.001µm

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ultra filtration has a pore size range of 0.1um to 0.01um. UF membranes reject particles such as silica, viruses, endotoxins, proteins, plastics and smog/fumes such as ZnO. Due to the decrease in pore size, the osmotic pressure required is higher than that of MF.

3. Pore size Nano-filtration membrane ranges from__________
a) 0.1- 5µm
b) 0.1- 0.01µm
c) 0.001- 0.01µm
d) 0.0001- 0.001µm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Nanofiltration has a pore size range of 0.001-0.01um. NF membranes can filter particles up to and including some salts, synthetic dies and sugars, however it is unable to remove most aqueous salts and metallic ions, as such, NF is generally confined to specialist uses.

4. Pore size RO membrane ranges from_____________
a) 0.1- 5µm
b) 0.1- 0.01µm
c) 0.001- 0.01µm
d) 0.0001- 0.001µm

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Reverse Osmosis has a pore size range of 0.0001 – 0.001. It is by far the finest separation material available to industry. It is used on a large scale for the desalination and purification of water as it filters out everything but water molecules, with pore sizes approaching the radius of some atoms in many cases.

5. The solution to be concentrated or fractionated is called?
a) Feed
b) Flux
c) Membrane fouling
d) Permeate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Inlet solution which has to be fractionated is called feed. Once feed is injected the membrane filtration process starts.

6. The term for deposition of solids on the membrane, irreversible during processing is?
a) Feed
b) Flux
c) Membrane fouling
d) Permeate

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Membrane fouling is a process whereby a solution or a particle is deposited on a membrane surface or in membrane pores in a process such as in a Membrane bioreactor, so that the membrane’s performance is degraded. It is a major obstacle to the widespread use of this technology.

7. The concentrate, the retained liquid is called___________
a) Permeate
b) Retentate
c) Concentration factor
d) Diafilteration

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Retentate is the matter that is retained by a semi permeable membrane during dialysis; non-dialyzable matter; a substance of this kind.

8. What is the volume reduction achieved by concentration, i.e. the ratio of initial volume of feed to the final volume of concentrate called?
a) Permeate
b) Retentate
c) Concentration factor
d) Diafilteration

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The concentration factor is the degree that the RO feed water dissolved solids is concentrated in the brine. Concentration Factor = 1/ (1- Y).

9. _________ is a modification of ultra filtration in which water is added to the feed as filtration proceeds in order to wash out feed components which will pass through the membranes, basically lactose and minerals.
a) Permeate
b) Retentate
c) Concentration factor
d) Diafilteration

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Diafiltration is a technique that uses ultra filtration membranes to completely remove, replace, or lower the concentration of salts or solvents from solutions containing proteins, peptides, nucleic acids, and other biomolecules.

10. Which of the following membrane separation technique would be most suitable for dehydration of whey in dairy industry?
a) Reverse osmosis
b) Nano filtration
c) Ultra filtration
d) Membrane filtration

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Reverse osmosis in dairy industry is used for dehydration of whey, UF permeate and condensate.

11. Which of the following membrane separation technique would be most suitable for partial desalination of whey in dairy industry?
a) Reverse osmosis
b) Nano filtration
c) Ultra filtration
d) Membrane filtration

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Nano filtration in dairy industry used when partial desalination of whey, UF permeates or retentate is required.

12. Which of the following membrane separation technique would be most suitable for concentration of milk proteins in dairy industry?
a) Reverse osmosis
b) Nano filtration
c) Ultra filtration
d) Membrane filtration

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] UF in dairy industry is typically used for concentration of milk proteins in milk and whey and for protein standardization of milk intended for cheese, yoghurt and some other products.

13. Which of the following membrane separation technique would be most suitable for reduction of bacteria in skim milk?
a) Reverse osmosis
b) Nano filtration
c) Ultra filtration
d) Membrane filtration

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] MF in dairy industry is basically used for reduction of bacteria in skimmilk, whey and brine, but also for defatting whey intended for whey protein concentrate (WPC) and for protein fractionation.

14. What is the Processing temperature in membrane filtration applications?
a) 15℃
b) 25℃
c) 65℃
d) 50℃

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In most cases the processing temperature is about 50°C for dairy applications. Filtration plants are normally supplemented with a simple cooling system integrated into the internal circulation loop to compensate for the slight rise in temperature that occurs during operation and maintain a constant processing temperature.

15. The separation limit for a membrane is determined by the lowest ___________ that can be separated.
a) Fractional weight
b) Molecular weight
c) Ion weight
d) Mass

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Membranes with a definite separation limit separate everything with a definitely lower molecular weight, while membranes with a diffuse limit let some material with a higher molecular weight through and stop some with a lower molecular weight.

Set 5

1. A dairy farmer who delivers “Grade A “or “bottling quality “milk to the processing plant is known as the__________
a) Handler
b) Producer
c) Order taker
d) Consumer

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Producer is the dairy farmer which assigns a quality to the milk in the processing plant.

2. What is not the justification for government involvement in the marketing of milk?
a) Price and Income support for Dairy farmers
b) Reduce price and income flexibility
c) Improve market power of farmers
d) To reduce the consumption

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The government is involved in the marketing of milk in order to support price and income of dairy farmers; reduce price and improve the market power of farmers.

3. Milk from cows being treated with antibiotics should be withheld from the supply because:
a) Antibiotics curdle the milk
b) People are sensitive to antibiotics
c) They create high bacteria counts
d) They prevent proper cooling

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Many people are sensitive to antibiotics hence milk treated with them should be excluded from the supply.

4.________ is not a form of differentiation milk sellers use to separate themselves from competitors.
a) Physical product differentiation
b) Container differentiation
c) Advertising
d) Production

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Physical product differentiation; container differentiation; advertising helps milk sellers in differentiating them from their business competitor.

5. The tanker of milk must be checked for which of thefollowing before it can be unloaded at a milk plant?
a) Antibiotics
b) Lactose
c) Fat
d) BST

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Before a tanker of milk can be unloaded at a milk plant; it must be checked for antibiotics. Many people are sensitive to antibiotics.

6. Every month, regulated handlers file a report of milk receipts and utilization with the order market administrator. This information is used to determine:
a) Maximum price paid to processors
b) Minimum price paid to producers
c) Minimum price paid to processors
d) No price paid

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Reports of milk receipts and utilizations are used to determine the minimum price paid to producers.

7. Major deductions on a dairy farmer’s milk check does not include:
a) Hauling
b) Federal advertisement/promotion
c) Cooperative/marketing fees
d) Seasonal loss

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Major Deductions on a dairy farmer’s milk check include Hauling, federal advertisement/promotion and cooperative/marketing fees.

8. What is the purpose of a “milk check-off”?
a) To increase the milk price support
b) Determine if milk contains antibiotics
c) To pay for the generic advertising and research
d) To prevent spoilage

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The purpose of a “milk check-off” is to increase the milk price support. Fifteen cents per hundredweight of milk is taken from the producers ‘milk check.

9. Prices are based on which of the following in component pricing system?
a) Uniform skim milk price and uniform butter price
b) Value of butterfat, protein, and other solids
c) Total solids content
d) Total moisture content

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In the component pricing system producer prices are based on value of butterfat, protein, and other solids.

10. Specific milk will not be rejected by the plant if the milk fails to meet requirements for which of the following?
a) Color and appearance
b) Sediment
c) Tests positive for drug residue
d) Acceptable pH

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The plant will reject specific milk from a producer if the milk fails to meet requirements for Color and appearance; sediment or it tests positive for drug residue.