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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. Which of the following does not affect the stability of a α-helix?
a) Electrostatic repulsion
b) Bulkiness
c) Interaction between R groups spaced three residues apart
d) Occurrence of alanine and glycine residues

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The occurrence of Proline and Glycine residues affect the stability of a α-helix.

2. Which of the following is not true about secondary protein structure?
a) The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
b) The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary structure.
c) The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary structure.
d) The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The hydrophilic / hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to protein tertiary structure rather than to secondary structure. In secondary structure, it is the steric size of the residues that is important and residues are positioned to minimize interactions between each other and the peptide chain.

3. β-pleated sheets are the examples of
a) Primary structure
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Secondary structure of proteins is of two forms α-helix and β-pleated structures.

4. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same chain is
a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same chain is α helix.

5. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is
a) Primary structure
b) α-helix
c) β-pleated sheets
d) Tertiary structure

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is β-pleated sheets.

6. Which of the following are known as helix breakers?
a) Proline and glycine
b) Isoleucine and leucine
c) Valine
d) Threonine

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Proline and glycine are known as helix breakers as they disrupt the regularity of the alpha helical backbone conformation.

7. Which of the following is false about NMR spectroscopy?
a) NMR is an abbreviated form of Nuclear Magnetic Resonance
b) The intramolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance frequency giving structural information about the atom
c) The intermolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance frequency giving structural information about the atom
d) It is a technique that exploits magnetic properties of atomic nuclei

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The intramolecular magnetic field around an atom in a molecule changes the resonance frequency giving structural information about the atom.

8. Which of the statements is false about multiple sequence alignment?
a) Both protein and nucleic acid secondary structures can be used
b) More useful in RNA
c) These alignments can be made more accurate by the inclusion of secondary structure information
d) A significant increase in accuracy

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Less useful in RNA. This is because base pairing is highly conserved than sequence.

9. Secondary structure is defined by
a) Hydrogen bonding
b) Vander Waals forces
c) Covalent bonding
d) Ionic bonding

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Hydrogen bonding is present between the amine hydrogen and carbonyl oxygen atoms in the peptide backbone.

10. Which of the following is false statement?
a) α-Keratin is α helical
b) Collagen is α helical
c) Hemoglobin has a quaternary structure
d) α-Keratin is β pleated structure

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Fibrous structural protein, α-Keratin is α helical.

Set 2

1. Amino acids sequence in DNA can be determined by the order of their
a) rRNA
b) tRNA
c) Nucleotides
d) mRNA

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] By the order of nucleotides, amino acids sequence in DNA can be determined.

2. Which of the following is a Sanger’s reagent?
a) 1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
b) 1-fluoro-2, 3-dinitrobenzene
c) 1-fluoro-2, 4-trinitrobenzene
d) 1-fluoro-2, 3-trinitrobenzene

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] To identify the amino-terminal amino acid residue, Sanger developed the reagent 1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene (FDNB).

3. The amino acid sequences of thousands of different proteins from many species have been determined using principles first developed by
a) Edman
b) Sanger
c) Mendel
d) Watson and Crick

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The amino acid sequences of thousands of different proteins from many species have been determined using principles first developed by Frederick Sanger.

4. Which of the following compound is not involved in Edman degradation?
a) Phenylisothiocyanate
b) CF3 COOH
c) FDNB
d) Phenylthiocarbonyl

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] FDNB is involved in Sanger’s method.

5. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Oxidation of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in proteins
b) Reduction of cysteine residue with dithiothreitol is done to break disulfide bond in proteins
c) Reduction of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in proteins
d) Reduced cysteine is further acetylated by iodoacetate

View Answer

Answer:c [Reason:] Oxidation of cysteine residue with performic acid is done to break disulfide bond in proteins.

6. Cleaving of peptide chain is done by
a) Trypsin
b) Tyrosine
c) Tryptophan
d) Arginine

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Trypsin is a digestive enzyme that fragments polypeptide chain.

7. Which of the following is the correct order of sequencing?
a) Cleaving, sequencing and ordering
b) Sequencing, ordering and cleaving
c) Ordering, cleaving and sequencing
d) Ordering, sequencing and cleaving

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] First fragmenting of a peptide is done followed by sequencing and ordering the peptide fragments.

8. Edman degradation is used for
a) Identifying N-terminal amino acids
d) Identifying C-terminal amino acids
c) Identifying amino acid
d) Identifying carbohydrates

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Edman degradation is used for identifying N-terminal amino acids.

9. What best summarizes the MALDI method by which gas phase ions are produced for mass spectrometry?
a. Sample is hit by a low energy xenon beam.
b. Sample is forced through a narrow capillary tube and solvent rapidly evaporates.
c. Sample is embedded in a crystalline matrix and bombarded by laser beams.
d. Sample is heated and then bombarded by electrons

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] MALDI, the term itself is an abbreviation for Matrix Assisted Laser Desorption or Ionization.

10. Which of the following is Edman reagent?
a) Phenylisothiocyanate
b) CF3 COOH
c) FDNB
d) Phenylthiocarbonyl

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The Edman reagent, phenylisothiocyanate reacts with the amine group of the N-terminal amino acid.

Set 3

1. Fibroin is rich in
a) Alanine and Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Glycine
d) Pro

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Fibroin is rich in Alanine and Glycine residues, permitting a close packing of β sheets and an interlocking arrangement of R groups.

2. Which of the following bonds are not involved in tertiary type of protein structure?
a) Disulfide bond
b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Salt bridges
d) Hydrophilic interactions

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hydrophobic interactions are present in tertiary type of protein structure.

3. Which of the following does not possess a quaternary structure?
a) Myoglobin
b) Lactate dehydrogenase
c) Immunoglobin M
d) Creatine Phospho Kinase

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Myoglobin is a monomer, so it does not possess quaternary structure.

4. Which of the following is abundantly found in collagen?
a) Glycine
b) Serine
c) Alanine
d) Tryptophan

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Each three amino acids of the collagen peptide chain is a glycine. It is thus an abundant amino acid that is important for collagen structure.

5. Which of the following is first determined as oligomer?
a) Myoglobin
b) Collagen
c) Keratin
d) Hemoglobin

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Hemoglobin contains four polypeptide chains and four heme prosthetic groups in which iron atoms are present in Fe+2 state.

6. Which of the following is false?
a) Lysozyme has S-S linkage
b) Ribonuclease has S-S linkage
c) Heme group in cytochrome c is covalently linked to the protein on two sides
d) Ribonuclease has SH-SH linkage

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Lysozyme and ribonuclease have disulfide linkages.

7. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by the pancreas?
a) Ribonuclease
b) Lysozyme
c) Cytochrome c
d) Myoglobin

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Ribonuclease is secreted by the pancreas into small intestine, where it catalyses the hydrolysis of certain bonds in ribonucleic acids present in the ingested food.

8. Which of the following is a component of mitochondria?
a) Ribonuclease
b) Lysozyme
c) Cytochrome c
d) Myoglobin

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Cytochrome c which is a heme protein is a component of the respiratory chain of mitochondria.

9. Which of the following serves as bactericidal agent?
a) Ribonuclease
b) Lysozyme
c) Cytochrome c
d) Myoglobin

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Lysozyme can lyse, or degrade, bacterial cell walls, so it serves as bactericidal agent.

10. Which of the following is false about fibrous protein?
a) It is in rod or wire like shape
b) Keratin and collagen are the best examples
c) Hemoglobin is the best example
d) It provides structural support for cells and tissues

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Hemoglobin is the best example for globular protein.

Set 4

1. Rauolfia serpentine, to save this plant under the threat of extinction, which of the following techniques is useful?
a) Genetic engineering
b) In vitro culture
c) DNA fingerprinting
d) Hybridoma technology

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] In vitro culture is useful in saving this plant from extinction.

2. Transgenic organisms are generally
a) Extinct organisms
b) Naturally occurring and endemic
c) Produced by traditional plant breeding technique
d) Produced by gene transfer technology

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Transgenic technology, also known as genetic engineering involves transfer of genes from one species to another.

3. Dolly, the first animal produced by cloning is a
a) Cow
b) Sheep
c) Rat
d) Dog

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Dolly is a female domestic sheep that was cloned using nuclear transfer process from an adult somatic cell.

4. Gene therapy is a technique preferred to cure inherited diseases by
a) Repairing the faulty gene
b) Introducing the correct copy of the gene
c) Adding new cells to the body
d) PCR

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] By inserting a gene in place of defective ones in order to correct genetic disorders is included in gene therapy.

5. Glucose is added to the tissue culture media as a/an
a) Carbon source
b) Growth regulator
c) Solidifying agent
d) Antibiotic

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Energy is derived from glucose.

6. Explant can be a
a) Cut part of the plant used in tissue culture
b) Plant extract used in tissue culture
c) Source of growth regulators added to media
d) Solidifying agent

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Explant is a piece of plant or animal tissue placed in a culture medium.

7. Meristem culture helps in developing which of the following?
a) Tall plants
b) Disease resistant plants
c) Virus free plants
d) Hybrid plants

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Apical meristem from the infected plant is collected and cultivated in appropriate media, so that new, complete and virus-free plants develop.

8. Which of the following is used to transfer genes in plants?
a) Ti plasmid
b) pBR 322
c) EcorI
d) pUC 18

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Ti plasmid of agrobacterium is used to transfer genes in plants.

9. Which of the following bacterium is used for gene transfer in plants?
a) Agrobacterium
b) Azatobacter
c) Rhizobium
d) Ecoli

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Agrobacterium is the only bacterium capable of transferring genes to plants.

10. Production of a large number of genetically similar plants through plant tissue culture is called
a) Recombinant DNA technology
b) Gene therapy
c) Micro propagation
d) Hybridoma technology

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Micro propagation is the practice of producing a large number of genetically similar plants through plant tissue culture.

Set 5

1. SH2 domain specifically binds to
a) GDP
b) Ca+2
c) Phosphorylated tyrosine residues
d) Phosphorylated serine residues

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Phosphorylated tyrosine residues specifically binds SH2 domain during signal transduction.

2. cAMP and cGMP are derived from
a) ATP and GTP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and adenylate cyclase respectively
b) ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and gualnlate cyclase respectively
c) GTP and ATP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase respectively
d) None

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] cGMP is derived from GTP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and cAMP is derived from ATP by the actions of adenylate cyclase respectively.

3. Which of the following is false about phosphorylation by IRS on serine residue?
a) It is an inhibitory phosphorylation
b) It is molecular mechanism for insulin resistance
c) It increases insulin levels
d) Target tissues fail to respond to circulating insulin

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Inhibitory serine phosphorylation is a molecular mechanism for insulin resistance which is a condition where target tissues fail to respond to circulating insulin.

4. The enzyme activated by cyclic AMP, passing on the hormonal signal is
a) Protein kinase B
b) Protein kinase A
c) Protein kinase C
d) G protein receptor kinase

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Protein kinase A is activated by cyclic AMP, passing on the hormonal signal.

5. Protein kinase ERK is activated by phosphorylation of
a) Only Thr
b) Only Tyr
c) Both Thr and Tyr
d) Only Ser

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Both Thr and Tyr are phosphorylated to activate the protein kinase ERK.

6. Activation of guanylyl cyclase produces
a) Guanosine 3’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate
b) Guanosine 2’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate
c) Guanosine 4’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate
d) Guanosine 1’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Guanosine 3’, 5’-cyclic monophosphate is produced by the activation of guanylyl cyclase.

7. cGMP-dependent protein kinase is also called
a) Protein kinase B
b) Protein kinase A
c) Protein kinase G
d) Protein kinase C

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] cGMP-dependent protein kinase is also called protein kinase G.

8. Which of the following is not responsible of producing diarrhea?
a) Elevation in [cGMP]
b) Increase in Cl secretion
c) Decrease in reabsorption of water by the intestinal epithelium
d) Decrease in Cl secretion

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Elevation in [cGMP] leads to increase in Cl secretion and decrease in reabsorption of water by the intestinal epithelium.

9. Which of the following is a short-lived messenger that acts by stimulating a soluble guanylyl cyclase, raising [cGMP] and stimulating PKG?
a) NO
b) NO2
c) NO3
d) N2O

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] NO is a short-lived messenger that acts by stimulating a soluble guanylyl cyclase, raising [cGMP] and stimulating PKG.

10. Ras protein is a
a) G-protein switch
b) Small monomeric GTPase switch protein
c) Serine-threonine kinase
d) Tyrosine kinase

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ras protein is a small monomeric GTPase switch protein, involved in transmitting signals within cells.