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Multiple choice question for engineering

Set 1

1. How many human mitochondrial proteins are encoded in the mitochondrial genome and synthesized within mitochondria?
a) 11
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] 13 human mitochondrial proteins are encoded in the mitochondrial genome and synthesized within mitochondria.

2. How many mitochondrial proteins are encoded in nuclear genes and imported into mitochondria after their synthesis?
a) 600
b) 700
c) 800
d) 900

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] About 900 different mitochondrial proteins are encoded in nuclear genes and imported into mitochondria after their synthesis.

3. Mitochondrial DNA is a
a) Simple, single stranded linear DNA molecule
b) Simple, single stranded circular DNA molecule
c) Simple, double stranded linear DNA molecule
d) Simple, double stranded circular DNA molecule

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Mitochondrial DNA (mt DNA) is a simple, double stranded circular DNA molecule.

4. Oxysomes or F0 – F1 particles occur on
a) Inner mitochondrial membrane
b) Chloroplast surface
c) Mitochondrial surface
d) Thylakoids

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Oxysomes which are also called as F0 – F1 particles are present on the surface of the folded inner mitochondrial membrane.

5. More than what proportion of mitochondrial proteins are coded by nuclear DNA?
a) 95%
b) 50%
c) 10%
d) 40%

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] More than 95% of mitochondrial proteins are coded by nuclear DNA.

6. The size of human mitochondrial DNA is
a) 16kb
b) 200kb
c) 2500kb
d) 100kb

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The size of human mitochondrial DNA is 16kb.

7. The size of plant mitochondrial DNA is
a) 16kb
b) 200-2500kb
c) 100- 2550kb
d) 100-2500kb

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The size of plant mitochondrial DNA is in the range 200-2500kb.

8. Typically how many copies of DNA is/are there in each mitochondrion?
a) 1
b) 11
c) 10
d) 12

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Typically 2-10 copies of DNA are there in each mitochondrion.

9. Mitochondrial DNA is one of the best marker tools for population biologists and evolutionary biologists because
a) Absence of genetic recombination in mt-DNA
b) Mitochondrial genes are specific to mt-DNA
c) It can be easily isolated
d)It undergoes spontaneous mutation

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Mitochondrial DNA is one of the best marker tools for population biologists and evolutionary biologists because of the absence of genetic recombination in mt-DNA.

10. The mechanism of action of cyanide, a mitochondrial toxin, is by inhibiting
a) ATP synthase
b) Succinate dehydrogenase
c) Cytochrome c oxidase
d) NADH dehydrogenase

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Cyanide inhibits cytochrome c oxidase.

Set 2

1. The lowest level of chromosome organization is
a) Nucleosome
b) Solenoid
c) 30nm fiber
d) None of these

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] It is the basic unit of chromosomal package consisting of a segment of DNA coiled around a core of histones.

2. Number of autosomes in humans is
a) 21 pairs
b) 44
c) 46
d) 48

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes (44) and one homomorphic sex chromosomal pair.

3. What proportion of the human genome is made up of repetitive DNA sequences?
a) 15%
b) 1%
c) 90%
d) 50%

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] About half of the human genome is composed of repetitive and non-repetitive DNA sequences.

4. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, double stranded, closed, circular DNA molecules are called
a) Viruses
b) Phages
c) Chloroplasts
d) Plasmids

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Plasmids are the extra chromosomal elements, which are self-replicating.

5. Which out of the following statements is true about human genome?
a) The human genome is believed to contain approximately 50,000 protein coding genes
b) All non-protein coding sequences in the genome are believed to be non-functional DNA
c) About 1.6% of the human genome encodes protein sequences
d) Intros are the sections of protein coding genes that actually encode amino acid sequences

View Answer

Answer: [Reason:] The actual protein coding sequences (excluding introns) constitute only 1.6% of the total DNA.

6. Which of the following is false about introns?
a) They are non-protein coding genes
b) They are protein coding genes
c) They are removed by splicing
d) Integral to gene expression regulation

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Exons are the protein coding genes.

7. Which of the two organelles contain their own DNA and ribosomes?
a) Mitochondria and chloroplast
b) Endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria
c) Golgi complex and mitochondria
d) Lysosomes and mitochondria

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Only mitochondria and chloroplast contain their own DNA and ribosomes.

8. About what proportion of mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear DNA?
a) More than 95%
b) 50%
c) 1%
d) 1.5%

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] More than 95% of mitochondrial proteins are encoded by nuclear DNA.

9. Short interspersed elements are about
a) 100 to 300 bp long
b) 200 to 400 bp long
c) 10 to 100 bp long
d) 6000 to 8000 bp long

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Short interspersed elements (SINEs) are about 100 to 300 bp long.

10. Long interspersed elements are about
a) 100 to 300 bp long
b) 200 to 400 bp long
c) 10 to 100 bp long
d) 6000 to 8000 bp long

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Long interspersed elements (LINEs) are about 6kbp to 8kbp.

Set 3

1. Gluconeogenesis responds to which of the following?
a) Hormonal control
b) pH control
c) Temperature control
d) Blood control

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] When the blood glucose level decreases, the hormone glucagon signals the liver to produce and release more glucose and to stop consuming it for its own needs. One source of glucose is gluconeogenesis.

2. When blood sugar levels fall, glycolysis is halted in liver to allow
a) Homeostasis
b) Anaerobic respiration
c) Aerobic respiration
d) Gluconeogenesis

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Gluconeogenesis produces glucose in order to compensate the fall.

3. How many steps are catalyzed by same enzymes in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Phosphohexose isomerase, aldolase, triose phosphate isomerase, glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphoglycerate kinase, phosphoglycerate mutase and enolase are the enzymes which catalyzes the reactions in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis.

4. How many steps are catalyzed by different enzymes in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase-1 and pyruvate kinase in glycolysis, Glucose 6-phosphatase, fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase, PEP carboxykinase and pyruvate carboxylase in gluconeogenesis.

5. Three reactions of glycolysis are so exergonic, which are not catalyzed by
a) Hexokinase
b) PFK-1
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Three glycolytic enzymes are subjected to allosteric regulation: hexokinase IV, PFK-1 and pyruvate kinase.

6. What are the effects of increased concentration of citrate?
a) Increases the inhibitory effect of ATP
b) Decreases the inhibitory effect of ATP
c) Increases the activity of ATP
d) Increases the activity of AMP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Citrate is a key intermediate in the aerobic oxidation of pyruvate, fatty acids and amino acids. It serves as an allosteric regulator of PFK-1; its high concentration increases the inhibitory effect of ATP, further reducing the flow of glucose through glycolysis.

7. The second control point in gluconeogenesis is the reaction catalyzed by
a) Pyruvate kinase
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) FBPase-1
d) PFK-1

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The second control point in gluconeogenesis is the reaction catalyzed by fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase-1.

8. Which of the following statements is true about PFK-1?
a) It is stimulated by AMP and ADP
b) It is stimulated by citrate and ATP
c) It is inhibited by AMP and ADP
d) It is stimulated by citrate and ADP

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] AMP promotes glycogen degradation and glycolysis by activating glycogen phosphorylase and stimulating the activity of phosphofructokinase-1. ATP and citrate are the allosteric inhibitors.

9. Which of the following statements is true regarding acetyl co-A?
a) It stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase
b) It stimulates pyruvate carboxylase
c) It inhibits pyruvate carboxylase
d) It stimulates hexokinase

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Gluconeogenesis is regulated at the level of pyruvate carboxylase which is activated by acetyl co-A.

10. Which of the following is a potent regulator of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?
a) Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate
b) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
c) Fructose 6-phosphate
d) Glucose 1, 6-bisphosphate

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] The hormonal regulation of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is mediated by fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate.

Set 4

1. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional structure
b) Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional structure
c) Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
d) Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional structure, which in turn determines the function of a protein.

2. Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?
a) Frederick Sanger
b) Mendel
c) Watson and Francis Crick
d) Anton van Leeuwenhoek

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] In 1953 James D. Watson and Francis Crick deduced the double-helical structure of DNA and proposed a structural basis for its precise replication.

3. Two chains of amino acids in an insulin molecule are held together by
a) Sulfide bridges
b) Disulfide bridges
c) Peptide bond
d) Covalent linkage

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] When we consider amino acid sequence of bovine insulin, the two peptide chains are joined together by disulfide cross linkages.

4. Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and
a) Sulfide
b) Disulfide
c) Covalent
d) Peptide

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ionic interactions, hydrogen and disulfide linkages stabilizes tertiary structure of a protein.

5. Hemoglobin is a
a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Trimer
d) Tetramer

View Answer

Answer: It is a tetramer with 2 α chains and 2β chains.

6. Which of the following is false?
a) The two main types of secondary structure are the α helix and β pleet structures
b) α helix is a right handed coiled strand
c) The hydrogen bonding in a β-sheet is between strands rather than within strands
d) The hydrogen bonding in a β-sheet is within strands rather than between strands

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] The sheet conformation consists of a pair of strands lying side-by-side. The carbonyl oxygen in one strand hydrogen bond with the amino hydrogen of the adjacent strand.

7. Native state of a protein can be disrupted by
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Removal of water
d) Presence of hydrophilic surfaces

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Native state of a protein can be disrupted by temperature, pH, Removal of water and presence of hydrophobic surfaces.

8. Which of the following is true?
a) The disulfide bridges formed by reduction of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine stabilizes protein tertiary structure
b) The disulfide bridges formed by oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine destabilizes protein tertiary structure
c) The disulfide bridges formed by oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine stabilizes protein tertiary structure
d) The disulfide bridges formed by reduction of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine destabilizes protein tertiary structure

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The disulfide bridge formed by oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups on cysteine stabilizes protein tertiary structure, allowing different parts of the protein chain to be held together covalently.

9. Identify the wrong statement
a) Hemoglobin is a globular protein
b) Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
c) Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
d) Collagen is a fibrous protein

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Hemoglobin is a globular protein and collagen is a fibrous protein.

10. In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by
a) Hydrophobic interactions
b) Polar interactions
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Globular proteins have tertiary structure with hydrophobic amino acid residues and a surface region of hydrophilic residues; these hydrophobic interactions are responsible for the folding and shaping of 3° structure of proteins.

Set 5

1. Which of the following does not act as a restriction enzyme?
a) EcorI
b) BamHI
c) HindIII
d) polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] Polydeoxtribonucleotide synthase is a DNA ligase.

2. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy from RNA?
a) Reverse transcriptase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polI
d) RNA polII

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Reverse transcriptase generates complementary DNA from RNA template.

3. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Exonuclease III removes nucleotide residues from the 3’ ends of a DNA strand
b) Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease removes terminal phosphates
c) Alkaline phosphatase removes nucleotides from 5‘ends
d) Kinase adds homopolymer tails to the 3’ –OH ends of a linear duplex

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease removes nucleotides from 5‘ends. Alkaline phosphatase removes terminal phosphates Terminal transferase adds homopolymer tails to the 3’ –OH ends of a linear duplex.

4. Which of the following can be termed as a restriction modification system?
a) Restriction endonuclease + methylase
b) DNA ligase + methylase
c) Restriction endonuclease + acetylase
d) DNA ligase + acetylase

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] (Restriction endonuclease + methylase) is termed as a restriction modification system.

5. Which of the following is true about restriction endonucleases?
a) Type I and II requires ATP to move along DNA
b) Type I, II and III requires ATP to move along DNA
c) Type II requires no ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence
d) Type II requires ATP and cleaves DNA within recognition sequence

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Type I and III requires ATP to move along DNA.

6. Which of the following enzymes’ combined action leads to the generation of sticky ends in plasmid vector?
a) Alkaline phosphatase and terminal transferase
b) Exonuclease III and alkaline phosphatase
c) Bacteriophage lambda exonuclease and terminal transferase
d) Exonuclease III and terminal transferase

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] The combined action of bacteriophage lambda exonuclease and terminal transferase lead to the generation of sticky ends in plasmid vector.

7. Generally a plasmid vector contains how many elements?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

View Answer

Answer: c [Reason:] Cloning site, drug resistant gene and replication origin are the 3 elements in a plasmid vector.

8. To make the recombinant plasmid permeable to DNA molecules, which of the chemicals is added?
a) MgCl2
b) CaCl2
c) NaCl
d) HCl

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] The cells are treated with CaCl2 to make them permeable to DNA molecules through a process called transformation.

9. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The cells which take up recombinant plasmids are drug resistant
b) The cells with no recombinant plasmids are drug resistant
c) Plasmid replication is independent of cell’s division
d) The cells containing recombinant plasmid are called transformed cells

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] Recombinant plasmid contains a drug resistant gene.

10. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, double stranded and circular DNA molecule is generally termed as
a) Chromosome
b) Plasmid
c) Genomic DNA
d) Bacteriophage

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Plasmid is an extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, double stranded and circular DNA molecule.

11. E.cor1 is a
a) DNA ligase enzyme
b) Restriction endonuclease
c) A vector used for insulin synthesis
d) A plasmid used as a vector

View Answer

Answer: b [Reason:] Ecor1 is a restriction enzyme that cleaves vector at the cloning site.

12. In which stage of genetic engineering a probe is used?
a) Cleaving DNA
b) Recombining DNA
c) Cloning
d) Screening

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] In hybridization, which is one of the methods of screening, a probe is used.

13. A DNA library is a
a) A DNA fragment inserted into a vector.
b) A general collection of all genes sequenced thus far.
c) All DNA fragments identified with a probe.
d) A collection of DNA fragments that make up the entire genome of a particular organism.

View Answer

Answer: d [Reason:] DNA library is a collection of DNA fragments representing the entire DNA of an organism.

14. Which of the following enzyme is required for end to end joining of DNA?
a) DNA ligase
b) Restriction endonuclease
c) RNA polymerase
d) DNA polymerase

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] DNA ligase ligates both blunt and sticky ends of DNA.

15. Repressor molecules bind to
a) Operator
b) Promoter
c) Enhancer
d) Hormone response element

View Answer

Answer: a [Reason:] An operator lies partially within the promoter, repressor binds to the DNA at operator region inhibiting the expression of genes.